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MANAGEMENT MANAGEMENT

MOCK CAT 2003


150 Questions, 3 Sections, 2 hours.
This test is meant as a practice test for CAT aspirants. It is to be done in two hours in one stretch, without any breaks. After the test, work out your score by checking with the detailed answers provided. Give yourself one mark for every correct answer and minus mark for every wrong answer. Your net score is obtained after deducting the negative scores. Proficiency in all areas is required: candidates are advised not to give undue time to one section or the other. The minimum cut-off required is net score of 12 per section. The test has been prepared by Mastermind, a leading MBA preparatory institute of Chandigarh. Additional tests as well as CAT past papers can be obtained at nominal cost from them. Contact: Dinesh Kumar, Mastermind, c/o Envoy Services SCO 13-14-15, Sector 34 A, Fourth Floor, Chandigarh. Mobile: 98158-23299. Homepage: www.maxpages.com/mmind
(b) 4 days (a) 3 days (d) 6 days (c) 5 days 6. A monkey climbs a greased pole 36 metres high. He climbs 3 metres in first minute and descends 1 metre in next minute. He again climbs 3 metres in third minute and slips down by 1 metre in the fourth minute. Like this, he continues till he reaches the top of the pole. How much time does he take in total to reach the top of the pole? (b) 33 minutes (a) 34 minutes (d) None of these (c) 35 minutes Directions (Qs. 7-10): The questions are based on the following information. There are three parallel tracks of 120 km between X and Y. Train A starts at 9 am on the central track at 60 kmph from X. Train B starts at 10 am at 60 kmph from Y. Train C starts at 11 am at 90 kmph from X. Train A and C are 100 m each and train B is 150 m long. 7. What time does A meet B and what is the distance from X? (a) 10.15, 90 km (b) 10.30, 90 km (c) 10.30, 30 km (d) 10.15, 30 km 8. What time does B meet C and what is the distance from the point it had met A? (a) 11.18, 54 km (b) 11.24, 36 km (c) 11.18, 36 km (d) 11.24, 54 km 9. The total time, when B was crossing the two trains was (b) 10.5 sec (a) 6 sec (d) 15 sec (c) 13.5 sec 10. If the ticket collector starts checking tickets at one end of B, as soon as it leaves Y, the minimum speed he should travel, to cover the complete train is: 5 ( b) m/min (a) 1.25 m/min 12 (c )

SectionI QUANTITATIVE ABILITY


Questions: 50 Directions (Qs 1-5): Each of the following questions contain four alternatives/responses. Choose the correct response. 1. A cylindrical grain cellar full of wheat with its door on the top, needs to be painted on its outside curved surface. The cellar has a diameter of 10 metres and it is 14 metres high. The cost of painting a square metre of the curved surface is Rs 15. What will be the total cost of painting the curved surface of the cylindrical cellar? (b) Rs 5500 (a) Rs 4400 (d) None of these (c) Rs 6600 2. The young MBA son of a colour TV manufacturer wanted to position his CTV at par with Samsung and hiked the price of the CTV by 15%. To his fathers surprise, the sale of CTVs in terms of numbers went down by 15%. What was the net effect on the sales revenue of CTVs for the company? (b) 1.5% increase (a) No effect (d) 2.25% increase (c) 2.25% decrease 3. The monthly Personal Maintenance Allowance (PMA) for a family of an employee is determined by the average age of the family and size of the family. For every year of average age, the company pays Rs 100 per member of the family. Jacob was drawing Rs 5700 as PMA after he got married 6 years back. At present, he draws Rs 7200 as PMA with his family of three after the birth of a son. What is the age of the son? (b) 3 years (a) 2 years (d) 5 years (c) 4 years 4. Snow White sells a shirt for an amount. Due to off-season sale, it started offering a discount of 20% on the tag price. Come Diwali, it offered a further discount of 10% on the reduced price. If I get the shirt for Rs 108, what was the original tag price? (b) Rs 160 (a) Rs 180 (d) Rs 150 (c) Rs 145 5. A contractor undertakes to complete a task in 9 days by deploying 12 men. Somehow 3 days after the job is started, 2 of these men leave and to keep his commitments he hires 10 women with the full knowledge that 5 women can do as much work as 4 men can. In how many days the remaining job will be finished?

5 m/min 3

(d) 2 m/min

Directions (Qs. 11-15): The questions are independent of each other. 11. Each side of a square is trisected and the points of division are joined consecutively wherever necessary to form an octagon. What part of the square is the octagonal region? 7 8 ( b) ( a) 8 9 (c )

7 9

( d)

2 3

12. A rectangle ABCD is folded such that the shorter side AB coincides with the opposite side DC. The resulting rectangle is similar to the original one. Then the ratio of the length of ABCD to its breadth

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is: ( a) 2 ( b)

3 ( c) 2

4 ( d) 3

13. What is the number of zeros at the end when 50! is expanded and written as number? (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 25 (a) 10 14. The volume of a sphere is x cubic metres and its surface area is x square metres. Then x is: ( b) 4 ( c) 9 (d) 36 ( a) 2 15. What is the sum of the angles at the corners A, B, C, D, E of the star-shaped Figure? E
D

25. Madans father bought a shirt for him from Singapore and he sold it to Sham at a profit of 20% and Sham sold it to Mohan at a profit of 10% who in turn sold to Dev at a profit of 12.5%. If Dev paid Rs 14.85 for the shirt, how much had it cost Madans father? (b) Rs 10 (c) Rs 11 (d) Rs 8 (a) Rs 12 Directions (Qs. 26-31): The questions are based on the information below: A school works for four sessions in the morning and three sessions in the afternoon. The students of one class in that school have the following subjects on Mondays: English: Two sessions Mathematics, Latin, Science, Games and French: One session each. The following points have been kept in mind while framing the daily timetable: i) No two language class to be in consecutive sessions. ii) The fourth and fifth session are unsuitable for games as it is very hot during these two sessions. iii) The Science teacher was a part-time teacher who can come only in the afternoons. iv) The second English session was to be held in the day only after the Latin and French sessions. After the timetable was framed, it was noted that the order in which the students had their first three language classes in the day tallied with the alphabetical order of these languages. 26. The two English sessions are the: (b) first and seventh (a) third and fifth (d) third and sixth (c) second and sixth 27. The Mathematics class is in session number: ( b) 3 (c ) 3 ( d) 1 ( a) 4 28. Between which two classes does the Science class come? (b) Latin and English (a) Latin and French (d) English and Games (c) Mathematics and Latin 29. The Latin class is in session number: ( b) 4 (c ) 7 ( d) 6 ( a) 5 30. The subject they have in the third session is (c) English (d) French (a) Mathematics (b) Latin 31. The Games period is in session number ( b) 6 (c ) 3 ( d) 2 ( a) 7 Directions (Qs. 32-35): The questions are independent of each other. 32. In the following multiplication, all the numbers from 1 to 8 have been used exactly once. Each alphabet resents a distinct digit. What is the value of a + b + c + d + e + f + g? 6a bc defg (b) 30 (c) 24 (d) None of these (a) 28 33. If f(x) = x! and fn (x) = f {fn1 (x)} (for n 2) for how many xs is fn (x) = x, where n and x are natural numbers? (b) two (c) three (d) None (a) one 34. All the numbers from 105 to 498 are listed down in the ascending order. Ramu picks up every seventh number starting from 105 and prepares a list of these numbers. Ramus assistant sums up all the numbers in this list. What is the sum total so obtained? (a) 11757 (b) 17757 (d) 71157 (c) 17157 35. An urn contains 5 white and 7 black balls. A second urn contains 7 white and 8 black balls. The ball is drawn from the first urn and put into the second urn without notion its colour. Now if a ball is

C A B

( a) (c) 2

( b) ( d)

3 2 5 2

Questions 16 to 20 are based on the following: Roy called on Mel after many years. He enquired about his family. Mel said, I have three sons. Their names are Jack, Kevin and Larry. Jack is the eldest. Larry is the youngest. No twins. The product of their age is 1400. Larry is at least 2 years old. None of them is more than 45. The sum of their ages is equal to the age of my neighbour Edwin, whose age is a prime number. Also Larry is younger than my neighbours daughter Paula. If I tell you the age of Paula, you will be able to deduce the ages of all my sons. 16. Jacks age is (b) 28 (c) 35 (d) 20 (a) 25 17. Kevins age is (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 14 ( a) 8 18. Larrys age is ( b) 2 ( c) 5 ( d) 4 ( a) 7 19. Edwins age is (b) 31 (c) 43 (d) 37 (a) 23 20. Paulas age is ( b) 6 ( c) 3 ( d) 8 ( a) 5 Directions (Qs. 21-25): The questions are independent of each other. 21. Buses for four different routes in Delhi start from four different lanes of Central Stop at an interval of 5, 6, 8 and 10 minutes respectively, If the first service from all the stops starts simultaneously at 4.00 a.m., when again the buses will start together? (a) 5.30 a.m. (b) 6.00 a.m. (c) 6.30 a.m. (d) 7.00 a.m. (a + b + c) a b c 22. If = = , then the value of will be c 3 4 7 ( a)

1 2

( b)

1 7

( c) 2

( d) 7

23. Mr Aroras age is six times his daughter Snehs age. Vimals age will be half Mr Aroras age after 10 years. If Vimals eighth birthday was celebrated two years ago, then what is Snehs present age? (a) 24 years (b) 25 years (c) 10 years (d) 5 years. 24. A circular park in a playground was reduced from a radius of 10 m to 5 m. What is the percentage reduction in the size of the park? (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 80% (a) 25%

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drawn from the second urn, the probability that it is white is: 98 178 ( b) ( a) 192 384 (c ) b if d < c then what is the value of: RMAX [5, SWITCH {4, 3, RMAX (4, 6), 5}] ? ( b) 4 ( c) 3 ( d) 6 ( a) 5 47. The diameter and slant height of a conical-tomb are 28 m and 50 m respectively. The cost of white-washing its curved surface at the rate of 80 paise per square metre is: (b) Rs 1,760 (a) Rs 2,640 (d) Rs 176 (c) Rs 264 Directions (Qs 48-50): Choose the correct alternative. 48. ABCD is a parallelogram with area ABD = 10 cm and length (BC) = 5 cm. What is the length of AE? ( AEB is a right angle).
D C

77 192

( d)

61 192

Directions (Qs. 36-37): Refer to the information below: In a certain market there are three intermediate brokers between the seller and the ultimate buyers. Each seller makes a 10% profit. 36. If a seller had directly sold to the buyer, he would make a profit of: (a) 21% (b) 10% (c) 46% (d) 40% 37. If the buyer now pays Rs 154 and decides to buy by removing one of the brokers, his gain would be approximately: (a) Rs 15 (b) Rs 12 (c) Rs 13 (d) Rs 14 Directions (Qs. 38-40): The questions are independent of each other. 38. There is a jar consisting of 50 litres of milk of which 18 litres have to be filled into another jar. There are only two measures available. Measure A of 2 litres and measure B of 5 litres. The second jar is filled up with 18 litres of milk by using the two measures together the minimum number of times. How many times B was used? ( a) 2 ( b) 3 ( c) 4 ( d) 5 39. A triangular plot measures 28 ft, 35 ft and 56 ft. Around the plot a rope on poles is to be fixed at a distance of 7 feet each. By fixing poles at the three corners, how many extra poles will be required? (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 20 (a) 14 40. A bus starts from town A. The number of women is half of number of men. At the next town B, 10 men get down and 5 women get into the bus. Now, the number of men and women are equal. How many men were there in the bus originally? (b) 30 (c) 36 (d) 45 (a) 15 Directions (Qs. 41-42): Refer to the data below: A, B, C and D are four banks giving compound interest at 12% per annum, 6% half yearly, 4% four monthly and 3% quarterly respectively. 41. To maximise returns, a person should invest in which bank? ( b) B ( c) C ( d) D ( a) A 42. If B, C, and D all pay out interests, half yearly, four-monthly and quarterly which is withdrawn by the investor, then maximum return is from which of the banks? (b ) B ( c) C (d) All of the above ( a) D Directions (Qs. 43-47): The questions are independent of each other. 43. In a row of children, Sheena is fifth from left and Beena is sixth from right. If they interchange their places, then Sheena becomes thirteenth from left. What place will be occupied by Beena from right? (b) Fourteenth (c) Fifteenth (d) Eighteenth (a) Fourth 44. If x @ y = x2 + 2y, what is the value of p if 4 @ (3 @ p) = 50? (a) 12.5 ( b) 8 ( c) 4 ( d) 7 45. Rs 38 is divided among 100 boys and girls such that each boy gets 20 paise more than each girl. The boys get Rs 2 more than the girls. How many boys are there in the group? (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 30 (a) 40 46. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers and RMAX (a, b) = a if a b a if b < a SWITCH (a, b, c, d) = a if c d

(b) 3 cm (a) 2 cm (d) 5 cm (c) 4 cm 49. What is the relationship between a and b where a = log4 9 and b = log9 25? ( b) a < b ( a) a > b (d) Cannot be found (c ) a = b 50. If we know that: 2 x 4 and 4 and 1 y 3; what is the x greatest and least values of ? y (a) 2, (c )

4 3

(b) 4,

2 3

3 3 , 2 2

(d) None of these

SectionII VERBAL ABILITY


Questions: 50
Directions (Qs. 51-55): Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to make a coherent paragraph between sentences 1 and 6: 51. 1: The ultimate goal of Sarvodaya is freedom from government. P. That kind of absence of government is not our ideal. Q. Absence of government can be seen in a number of societies whose affairs are all at sixes and sevens, where no order is maintained, and where anti-social elements do as they please. R: Notice that I use the words freedom from government and not absence of government. S: Absence of government must be replaced by good government, and afterwards good government must be replaced by freedom from government. 6. A society free from government does not mean a society without order, but it means an orderly society, one in which administrative authority rests in the villages. ( a) R Q S P ( b) Q R P S (c ) Q R S P ( d) R Q P S 52. 1: In some early attempts by psychologists to describe the basic learning process, the terms stimulus, response and

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reinforcement were introduced. P: In an educational setting, these terms could be defined as follows. Q: When a teacher gives an instruction, or sets a problem, or asks a question, the pupil responds in some way, and the teacher then tells the pupil if he has responded correctly. R: The teachers first action is called the stimulus and the pupils action, carrying out the instruction, or answering the question, or solving the problem, is known as the response. S: When the teacher tells the pupil if his response is correct, the bond between the stimulus and the response is strengthened and reinforcement is positive. 6: If the response is incorrect, the bond is weakened and reinforcement is negative. ( b) P Q R S ( a) P R Q S ( d) P R S Q (c ) P Q S R 53. 1: This world is today a madhouse where individuals exaggerate their racial superiority, religious pride or national egotism. P: The answer to this madness is the growth of decency and compassion. Q: They have become the victims of moral and spiritual blindness. R: We have to view the world as one whole, a single community, a fellowship of human beings across the globe. S: Violence, which is a cowardly escape from the rule of reason, is rampant all around. 6: After all, we have the same instincts, feelings, aspirations and faiths as real brothers and sisters have. ( b) S Q R P ( a) Q S R P (c ) S Q P R ( d) Q S P R 54. 1: In India there are millions of drop-out children in the age group of six to fourteen years. P: Therefore, non-formal approach will have to be made. Q: This is possible only through part-time courses at such convenient hours that the children are free from their domestic work. R: For this purpose the rigid system of the formal school cannot be used. S: There is need to provide them facilities so that they may complete their education upto primary and junior high school level. 6: Non-formal education programme will have to be made functional and productive and related to the needs and aspirations of the community. ( b) S R P Q ( a) Q S R P ( d) S Q P R (c ) S Q R P 55. 1: The principle which distinguishes democracy from all other forms of government is that in a democracy the opposition not only is tolerated as constitutional but must be maintained because it is in fact indispensable. P: For, in making the great experiment of governing the people by consent rather than coercion, it is not sufficient that the party in power should have a majority. Q: The democratic system cannot be operated without effective opposition. R: It is just as necessary that the party in power should never outrage the minority. S: That means that it must listen to the minority and be moved by the criticisms of the minority. 6: That means that its measures must take account of the minoritys objections, and that in administering measures it must remember that the minority may become the majority. ( a) S P R Q ( b) Q P S R ( d) Q P R S (c ) S P Q R Directions (Qs. 56-60): Fill in the blanks. 56. The other day I was channel-zapping when I caught a fragment of a lowest common denominator game show. I was instantly gripped _______ when treated to the spectacle of ones fellows willingly offering themselves to the skewered. (b) like myself (a) for once (d) as one is (c) for 57. The great Indian middle class is carefully stratified, judging by the morning programmes on television. They all cater to it _____. (a) and like being so (b) but are miles apart (c) and are all divided (d) but there are subtle differences 58. How would you like to be welcomed to the theatre by bright, smiling children and join them in cavorting around? ____? (a) It would be brilliant! (b) With a couple of clowns to add to the carnival mood? (c) In the school where your child studies? (d) At a place where there is absolute peace? 59. Brain imaging is not the only technique you can use to probe the honesty of hypnosis subjects. It is well known that people who are unresponsive to hypnosis ______. (a) can mimic the effects of being hypnotized (b) are psychotic patients (c) can be treated by psychoanalysts only (d) do not allow their brains to be imaged properly 60. James first novel used conventional narrative techniques: explicit characterization, action which related events in distinctly phased sequences, _______. (a) shorelines which border more on the realm of reflective passages (b) settings firmly outlined and specifically described (c) ideas drawn out of dreary extracts (d) taken directly from boardroom conversations Directions (Qs. 61-65): Choose the set in which the statements are logically related. 61. A. All MBAs are managers. B. There are many managers. C. There are an equal number of MBAs and managers. D. There are many MBAs. E. All managers are MBAs. F. Some managers are not MBAs. (a) BDF (b) ABC (c) AEC (d) DBE 62. A. Sunny is a girl. B. Sunny is a fool. C. Sunny is intelligent. D. Some girls are intelligent. E. Girls are beautiful. F. Sunny is beautiful. (a) ADB (b) ADC (c) FEA (d) AEF 63. A. I am your friend. B. He is not you. C. He has enemies. D. He is my enemy. E. You are his enemy. F. I am his enemy. (a) EDA (b) BCF (c) EFC (d) EFA 64. A. Those who are not fools do not suffer. B. Some sufferers are fools. C. Fool never suffer. D. Only fools suffer.

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E. Those who are fools suffer. F. Some fools are sufferers. (b) BFA (c) FEA (a) EAD 65. A. The earth is not milky. B. The sky is white. C. The sky is the earth. D. White is black. E. The earth is milky. F. The sky is black. (b) ADC (c) FEA (a) BDF Doctors are already experimenting with gene therapy, in which a relatively small number of cellsin the lungs, sayare altered to correct a disease. Germ-line engineering, however, would change every cell in the body. People would no longer have to make do with haphazard combinations of their parents genes. Instead, genetic engineers could eliminate defective genes, change existing ones or even add a few extra. Humanity would, in effect, take control of its own evolution. So awesome is this idea, that until a year or so ago, the taboo on human germ-line engineering was absolute. But opinions have started to shift. Once barely considered a topic for polite conversation among even the most gung-ho of geneticists, germ-line engineering of humans is becoming so much grist to the mill of scientists gossiping around the coffee pot. Not that the pillars of the scientific establishment agree on this emerging technology, not by a long way. In a straw poll, researchers variously described the idea of human germ-line engineering as irresistible, morally questionable or just plain dangerous. What they did agree on is that germ-line engineered humans are likely to become a reality. Tampering with a human embryo to create changes that can be passed from one generation to the next is still more or less verboten23 countries have signed a Council of Europe convention that bans it, and officials at the US Food and Drug Administration promise not to give the go-ahead without much public deliberation. Despite this, however, most experts say theyd be surprised if designer babies are not toddling around within the next 20 years or so. Gregory Stock, a biophysicist-turned-expert on technology and society at the University of California, Los Angeles, helped to organise a symposium called Engineering the Human Germline. The task? Not to look way into the future, but at what well be faced with in the next decade or two. There is no way to avoid this technology, explains Stock, who thinks that calling the evolutionary shots will create a happier, healthier society. The knowledge is coming too fast, and the possibilities are too exciting. Public enthusiasm could soon match Stocks: poll after poll shows that a sizeable minority of parentssometimes as many as 20 per centsay that they see nothing wrong with genetically altering their children for health reasons, to give them an edge over the child at the next deskor even to stop them being homosexual. So what is shifting the mind-set about human germ-line engineering from never to well, maybe? The main driving force, most experts agree, is the new technologies rolling inexorably along the tracks. We are discovering not only what our genes do, but how to make precise changes in them. And although the human genome isnt yet completely sequenced, already the databases contain details of thousands of genes, and of thousands of variations within them, along with information about how these variations affect physical and emotional traits. Added incentive comes, paradoxically, from frustrations with gene therapy. Gene therapy promised to cure genetic disorders such as cystic fibrosis and sickle-cell anaemia, and even common illnesses such as cancer. But although the glitches are slowly being fixed, few people have so far benefited from the procedure. The problem is getting new genes into enough cells, and keeping them there for long enough to do any good. With germ-line engineering you have to tweak only one cella fertilised human eggwhich is infinitely easier, says Leroy Hood, a molecular biologist at the University of Washington in Seattle. We have terrific ways to do that. Once a genetic engineer has changed the genome of an egg fertilised in a lab dish, the egg divides over and

(d) AEF

(d) AEF

Directions (Qs. 66-70): From among the group of words given, select the two words which have the same or opposite meaning. 66. (A) wobbly (B) steady (C) slight (D) outlandish (b) BD (c) CD (d) BC (a) AB 67. (A) withstand (B) climate (D) hot (D) surrender (b) BC (c) AD (d) BD (a) AB 68. (A) perky (B) lively (C) honest (D) kind (b) BC (c) CD (d) BD (a) AB 69. (A) reverie (B) stirring (C) serene (D) fascination (b) BD (c) CD (d) AB (a) AD 70. (A) pandemonium (B) scramble (C) wriggle (D) order (b) BC (a) AB (d) AD (c) CD Directions (Qs. 71-75): Select the word or phrase that can best replace the underlined part in the sentence. If the sentence is correct as shown, mark (5). 71. The first robot that can sense and show emotions is developed as the ultimate interactive toy. (a) was developed (b) is now developed (c) is being developed (d) were being developed 72. A government employee has to work for some hours a day and can avail himself of only a fixed number of holidays. (a) a given number (b) a specified number (c) an unscheduled number (d) some number 73. Mental institutions became frightening and depressing places over where the rights of patients were all but forgotten. (a) about where (b) for (c) within which (d) in which 74. When a policy is right on form and wrong on content, problems arise. (a) about its form and wrong about its (b) formally and wrong about (c) in form but wrong in (d) for form but wrong in 75. Because some resources must be allocated at the national level, we have created policies which reflect the aggregate attributes of our society. (a) aggregated (b) variegated (c) large-scale (d) prominent Directions (Qs 76-100): Read the passages and answer the questions based on them. Passage 1 In conference halls around the world, geneticists and developmental biologists have been gathering to discuss what once was unthinkablegenetically engineering human embryos so that they, and their children, and their childrens children, are irrevocably changed. These experts are talking with remarkable candour about using germline engineering to cure fatal diseases or even to create designer babies that will be stronger, smarter, or more resistant to infections.

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over again, forming all the tissues of the body. Every cell will have exactly the same genetic make-up as the altered egg. Genetically engineered mice and farm animals have been around for years and are used for everything from basic research to attempts to create humanised animal organs for transplant. But what might be considered a bonus in agricultural biotechnologythe fact that any changes are present in the animals sperm and eggs (the germ cells) and so will be passed on to succeeding generationsis for many the most worrying thing about genetic engineering in humans. The critics point out that if medicine has played a bit part in our recent evolution antibiotics, for example, allow people with less than robust immune systems to survive long enough to pass this trait into the next generationgenetic engineering has the potential to be a star performer. One reason for cold feet is that large-scale genetic engineering could actually rob society of desirable traits. What if the disease genes in combination with other genes, or in people who are merely carriers, also help produce such intangibles as artistic creativity or a razor-sharp wit or the ability to wiggle ones ears? Wipe out the gene, and you risk losing those traits too. And while no one would wish manic depression on anyone, society might be the poorer without the inventiveness that many psychologists believe is part and parcel of the disorder. In his book Remaking Eden, Lee Silver, a biologist at Princeton University, goes as far as to suggest that a century or two of widespread engineering might even create a new species of human, no longer willing or able to mate with its gene poor relations. If esoteric worries about what may or may not happen in a genetically engineered society are unlikely to change peoples views, safety issues couldat least until they are solved. There is a real risk of unforeseen, unpredictable problems, says Nelson Wivel, deputy director of the Institute for Human Gene Therapy at the University of Pennsylvania, and former executive director of the National Institutes of Health Recombinant DNA Advisory Committee. In gene therapy, genes are ferried into cells by modified viruses or other means. Its a risky business, because genes can get inserted in the wrong spot in the genome, killing the cell outright or, far worse, triggering cancer. But at least with gene therapy there is natural damage controlfew cells pick up the genes even when the procedure goes well, cancer only affects one individual, and, as the procedure has always been carried out long after birth, theres no chance of upsetting key developmental genes. With germ-line engineering, on the other hand, theres more scope for unpredictable, even monstrous, alterations. Take the so-called Beltsville pig. This pig, a thorn in the side of high-tech agriculturists and an icon for animal rights activists everywhere, was engineered by scientists at the US Department of Agriculture to produce human growth hormone that would make it grow faster and leaner. The engineers added a genetic switch that should have turned on the growth hormone gene only when the pig ate food laced with zinc. But the switch failed. The extra growth hormone made the pig grow faster, but it also suffered severe bone and joint problems and was bug-eyed to boot. Of course, unlike human experiments, slaughtering failures is always an option for animal genetic engineers. Before genetic engineering of humans can become a reality, each candidate gene and its switches would need to be extensively studied in animals first, and any changes would have to be made with a surgical precision that reduced the chances of a Beltsville human to just about zero. As it happens, over the past few years, molecular geneticists have been busily developing the tools to do just this sort of genetic surgery. For years, genetic engineers have altered farm animals by injecting genes into fertilised eggs and then placing them in an animals womb. But the technique is far too unreliable to use in humans. Out of every 10,000 eggs injected, roughly three make it to adulthood with the gene functioning as planned. Whats more, it is possible only to add whole genes, not to fine-tune existing ones. But the efficiency of gene surgery is improving so that fewer cells are needed to start with. That has made it possible for several labs to try gene surgery directly on fertilised mouse eggs, says Dieter Gruenert, a molecular geneticist at the University of California, San Francisco, who is developing just such a technique. The process is still in its infancy, but it could one day make it possible to genetically engineer human eggs, eliminating the need for crossbreeding. A more immediate solution will probably come from an alternative way of generating lots of identical embryonic cells: the technology that produced Dolly & Co. Cloning relies on a combination of two new techniques. First, grow cells taken from an adult or an embryo in a flask under conditions that encourage them to divide and increase their numbers, and then trick them into reverting to a nonspecialised state with the potential to form an entirely new individual. Second, fuse one of these cells with an egg from which the nucleus has been removed, and implant this cut-and-paste embryo into a womb. The wrinkles still need ironing out, but these techniques promise engineers the luxury of an inexhaustible supply of cells to attempt genetic surgery upon, only transferring to an egg those nuclei they know have been properly changed. And unlike the mouse ES cells, these cells will generate an animal with the genetic change in every cell. Polly, a sheep with a gene for a human clotting factor, was created in just this manner. 76. What reason does the author give to explain his statement that despite the bans, designer babies could become a reality in 20 years or so? (a) the new technologies are rolling inexorably along the tracks (b) the public opinion that is shifting in favour of genetic altering of their offspring (c) there will always be some scientists willing to defy the ban (d) none of these 77. What would be the best meaning of the sentence, Added incentive comes, paradoxically, from frustrations with gene therapy? (a) As gene therapy has not been successful so far, scientists are trying hard to make the technology succeed. (b) Few people have benefited from gene therapy, so the researchers are frustrated. (c ) Gene therapy is a lengthy procedure while germ line engineering is short. (d) Gene therapy is paving the way for germ line engineering. 78. Which of the following statements could be directly attributed to the author of this passage? (a) The power of genetic engineering could be greater than creating the atom bomb. (b) It is quite easy to change the genome of an egg fertilised in a lab dish. (c) Safety issues could change public opinion against genetic engineering. (d) There is no way that the development of this technology can be avoided. 79. What did the Beltsville pig prove? (a) that it was possible to combine animal genes with human genes. (b) that the path of genetic engineering is not predictable. (c ) combining animal and human genes was fraught with dangers. (d) slaughtering failures is always an option for animal genetic

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failures but not in human experiments. 80. Of the following, which one is not an argument against large scale genetic engineering, mentioned in the passage? (a) it could produce biological monstrosities (b) genes sometimes may not work the way they were planned to (c) it could also reduce some desirable human traits (d) none of these 81. The passage could best be described as: (a) a description of the latest research in genetic engineering. ( b ) an essay against the widespread use of genetic techniques. (c) description of research and various issues involved in genetic techniques. (d) description of the consequences of germ line engineering. Passage 2 Descartes set out to destroy Aristotelian philosophy. He was entranced by the certainty that mathematics conferred upon its conclusions, and Kepler and Galileo had shown that mathematics had application to the natural world. Aristotles philosophy placed no emphasis upon irrefutable certainty and relied upon consensus as a basis for knowledge. Nor did Aristotelian natural philosophy lend itself to mathematic-isation. It was Descartes aim to underpin his knowledge of the world with unshakeable foundations by importing the certainty of mathematics into the physical and metaphysical spheres. This was no simple taskwhere was the purity of mathematics in the chaos of experience? To find the wanted certainty, Descartes had to remove any hint of doubt from the premises upon which he would build his new knowledge. It was his methodology at this point that set him apart from his predecessors. He chose not to rely upon popular opinion, or the writings of the ancients. He even questioned his own perceptions, opinions and knowledge. Rather than review each of his opinions individually, Descartes examined the foundation on which they were all basedperceptual experience. If this foundation was found wanting, the structure built upon it should be dismissed. Descartes recognised that his perceptual faculties misled him through illusion and hallucination. In dreams he had experiences which were not veridical. Perception produced only dubitable beliefs. But the possibility of doubt was difficult to maintain against the vigour of sensation. To counter this weakness, Descartes supposed there was a powerful evil demon whose vocation it was to deceive us. Such a mighty creature would be well equipped to feed you sensations of all sorts. The world would seem to you as it does now, but there would be nothing correspondent to any of your perceptions. The scepticism engendered by this creature would cast doubt on all beliefs derived from sensation. All that remained after this epistemic cleansing would be certain. But what was left? Certainly not the objects around me or even my body. Knowledge of these was based on sensation and sensation could not guarantee certainty. What then could be known? Must I doubt the existence of everything? Might I doubt that I exist? It is here that the doubt comes to an end. I cannot doubt that I existfor, Descartes maintains, in this very act of doubting I am existing. I think, declared Descartes, therefore I am. But what is the I that exists? It is not some material thingit is possible to doubt that all material things exist, but not that I do. I am a thinking thing and a thing, moreover, that certainly exists. This was Descartes Archimedean point, from which he would move the world. Yet in comparison to our former knowledge, this point seems hopelessly small. Where previously we had the richness of the entire world in which to believe, now we only have one small set of disembodied thoughts and memories. How can we move from this minute point of thought to the massive pageant of experience? Our knowledge of the world had to be constructed of the most solid of certainties. Descartes thought that such material could be found in God. If God truly existed, the things that we clearly and distinctly perceive must surely exist, as God is benevolent and would not allow us to be deceived. A demonstration of the necessary existence of God is thus crucial to Descartes plan. It is consequently unfortunate that the arguments that Descartes advanced to prove the existence of God were all flawed. Descartes did destroy Aristotle, but his own programme was a failure. Yet it was not his success that is important, it was radical nature of his strategy and the way in which he attempted to execute it. His emphasis upon mathematical certainty and universal law had a profound effect upon science. This soon found profitable expression in Newtons hands. Descartes individualism defined modernism in philosophy. But the sceptical spectre of the evil demon still haunts modern philosophical workit is a possession that no one has yet managed to exorcise, except by neglecting to consider it in the first instance. Descartes was the making of science and the downfall of philosophy. 82. How was Descartes approach different from Aristotles? (a) he tried to introduce certainty into physical and metaphysical spheres (b) he tried to introduce mathematics into everyday life (c) his methodology was entirely different from Aristotles (d) he proved that the foundations of Aristotelian philosophy were weak. 83. What was so different in Descartes methodology that set him apart from his predecessors? (a) he questioned the premise that consensus was a basis for knowledge (b) he questioned the basis of opinions (c) he questioned there the role played by perception (d) he supposed there was a powerful evil demon whose vocation it was to deceive us. 84. If we go by the philosophy of Descartes, what would ensure our existence? (b) illusion and hallucination (a) perceptual faculties (d) epistemic cleansing (c) thinking 85. What does the author imply in the statement, Descartes was the making of science and the downfall of philosophy? (a) Descartes established the principles of mathematical certainty and demolished the consensus approach of philosophy. (b) Descartes adopted an entirely new philosophy and refused to rely on the writings of the ancients. (c) Descartes adopted a radically new approach which had not been tried before (d) In I think, therefore I am, lies the basis of Descartes philosophy, which questioned the basis of philosophy 86. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Descartes proved that God existed (b) According to Descartes, God did not exist. (c) Traditional philosophy was subjective and relied on opinions. (d) none of these Passage 3 This is how its supposed to be. You walk into a gallery and look at a picture. Interesting, you think. I wonder what it means. You look at the title for help. Its called something informative such as Landscape in the Silesian Mountains or Violin with Grapes. Perhaps it tells you something of the identity of the subject: Jan Six, An Amsterdam Patrician or Portrait of Miss Bowles with her Dog. Or maybe it sets out

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a philosophical view which, looking back from title to picture, you now see dramatised in the work: Poussins Et in Arcadia Ego (a somewhat gnomic title, yes, but one that directs our attention to the ubiquity of death). Quite possibly its the other way round: you see something in the picture and look to the title, delighted to see your interpretation confirmed. Two Haystacks, for instance. Either way, theres a reassuringly stable relationship between signifier and signified. Nobodys having you on. And the title, quaint notion this, is at your service, the handmaiden of aesthetic appreciation. Its all very different with abstract art. Take Ellsworth Kelly, just an exhibition of burly signifieds, great sunny blocks of colour that defy you to read something into them, challenging you to look for an identity other than whats on the canvas. You study four panels of colour, green, red, yellow and blue. You look at the title for a hint about whats going on, a nod at a subtext perhaps, an explanation. But no, its called Green Red Yellow Blue, and consists of four big panels separated by nine-inch intervals. Perhaps theres some significance in that? Maybe Kelly is a numerologist or a nutty theosophist, for whom something always means something else. You flail, increasingly desperate, for a textual clue to the significance of this sumptuous world of colour. Further along there are panels of five colours, and once more you look for a hidden meaning. But no: the works entitled Red Yellow Blue White and Black. Ellsworth, baby, you cant help saying, we get the picture. We really do. But what is it that youre trying to tell us? Kellys telling us that the painting is the thing; its autonomous, self-contained. We get the picture without the rifle, and so the additional information serves as a tart commentary on the history of rifles, those that serve to inform the spectator about whats really going on in the picture, those that tell you what is depicted or what is the symbolic significance. Without this historical context, Kellys rifles would have no point. But given that context, they function as an art historical joke. A joke, to be sure, of the lumbering kind typical of much 20th-century titlegagging, but a joke nonetheless. This is part of Kellys project, to confound ones literary expectations, to reject the notion of title as explanation. Just let the eyes do the work and savour the relationships between the colours. I think if you can turn off the mind and look only with the eyes, ultimately everything becomes abstract, he wrote. Although he is pivotal in any story of the evolution of titles, Whistlers revolution was neither permanent nor totalitarian. Long after him, the cubists were giving their paintings handy rifles that helped spectators to spot what was depicted: Picassos reassuring Bread and Fruit Dish on a Table, Braques undeniable Man With a Guitar. Here the title served to effect a perspectival shift: as when one sees a rabbit and then, looking at the figure again, sees a duck. Titles here were perhaps necessary to induct spectators into the new, strange language of cubism. Even the surrealists could be disturbingly literal. The title of Max Ernsts Two Children are Menaced by a Nightingale was no more reassuring for accurately describing what was depicted. Dalis rifles, for me at least, convey a glee, a showy quality that underlines the nature of the paintings: Average Atmospherocephalic Bureaucrat in the Act of Milking a Cranial Harp is, we are to believe, exactly what it says. But Dali, in his glee, sometimes commits grammatical errors. In Young Virgin Auto-Sodomized by Her Own Chastity, for instance, what does the auto refer to? Is she sodomised by herself, and what would that involve? Or is she sodomised by some quality not identical with herself, namely her chastity? One doesnt like to pry. But after Whistler the descriptive title was no longer the norm. Gauguin, for instance, did not call his painting Happy Tahitian People,

Some Nearly Nude and Some Picking Fruit, Some Both, but went in for existential moralising: Where Do We Come From? What are We? Where are We Going? Personally, I prefer my title. By the time we got to pop art, the title had often become part of the commodified circus that the paintings were in effect satirising: Richard Hamiltons Just What is it That Makes Todays Homes So Different, So Appealing? recalls Gauguins title. But with Hamilton, advertising has been substituted for moralising, or at least a satire on advertising. Once the Pandoras box of nondescriptive titles was opened, nothing would be the same again. Even descriptive rifles often took on an ironic subtext. One of Agnes Martins minimalist paintings is called Leaf, but what one sees is more akin to a piece of finely drawn graph paper, the curvilinear natural form surrendered to the Mondrianosity of formalist aesthetics. R.B. Kitajs Self-Portrait as a Woman is more self-consciously playful, but its pithy paradox is explained into tedium by the accompanying text. This was one of the reasons that viewing his 1994 Tate retrospective was so irksome: text after text stood in the way of the pictures; the words effecting their own alienating closure, hermetically sealing them from the spectators imaginative engagement. Better perhaps to edit oneself into silence, to call ones work Untitled. Cindy Shermans photographs obey that injunction and with her works, perhaps more than any of the many others who have refused to rifle their work, one can understand why. Here only the numbers individuate the photographs. Untitled No 122, for example, depicts the artist dressed in a blonde wig through which one bloodshot eye stares madly; her clenched fists stick out from the tautly downpointed sleeves of her business suit; the whole image bespeaks fury and desperation. What could she have called this photograph? Blondes Have Less Fun (Anti-Homage To Hitchcock)? Its hard to think of anything appropriate that would not reductively suggest a meaning; still less could one imagine giving the photograph a helpful handle. Other artists have had more fun with rifles. An indeterminate figure in a blanket is tied up with string, the card Do Not Disturb attached. All very well, but it takes the title of Man Rays 1920 work to bring out the latent menace. Its called L Enigme dIsodore Ducasse. The title sends the mind racing: has poor Isodore been chopped up and pickled under a blanket? Or is she a spectre come back from the dead? Is she under the blanket at all? Can we look, please? This article has dallied too long without mentioning Magrittes Ceci nest pas une pipe. As the artist remarked: If I had written This is a pipe under my picture, I would have been lying. A lesson easily taught: a painting that draws attention to the treason of the representational picture, the lie at the heart of even the most realistic Courbet. This is what Whistler was doing with his formalist titles: telling the spectator the subject was not crucial. He could have called his picture Ceci nest pas seulement maman, cest aussi et surtout un architectonique du couleur. Though his title was more succinct. Perhaps a great title can make a great work of art, can transform the work and at the same time underwrite its quality. It may be, then, that, in both senses of the word, great titles become great plays, claims Gilbert Adair in his new book of essays. This is either false or a truism. It is false because a great title can never become, in the sense of grow into, a great play: thats just a silly putative bonne bouche. On the other hand, it is a truism that even a plain title such as King Lear becomes the play, in the sense of being appropriate to it, because of the trite truth that the title is always associated with it. The more substantial math, surely, is that titles have lives of their own and, as a result, become deceptive signifiers for the signifieds they advertise. Adairs earlier collection of essays was called The

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Postmodernist Always Rings Twice, droller and more becoming by far than the title of his new collection, Surfing the Zeitgeist. Perhaps this concentration on titles has created a breed of artists who are really creative in their rifles. Adair cites Eugene ONeills extraordinary way with titlesLong Days Journey into Night, The Iceman Cometh, A Moon for the Misbegottenand suggests, only slightly flippantly, that ONeill put his genius into his titles and his talent into his plays. The same is true of Damien Hirsts The Physical Impossibility of Death in the Mind of Someone Living. Great tide, shame about the shark. This is a theme of Hirsts: verbose titles such as Isolated Elements Swimming in the Same Direction for the Purposes of Understanding that provide handles for some cunningly pickled fish. Only a few artists have produced titles to match the ingenuity of their work: Duchamps The Bride Stripped Bare by her Bachelors, Even, a disturbing, confusing rifle that fits this disquisition on the mechanisms and onanisms of male sexuality very well indeed. Like this drawing on glass, it leaves many questions open: why bachelors? Can we see the bride in the painting? What is the force of the even? 87. What does the author mean to convey through the line, the title is at your service, the handmaiden of aesthetic appreciation? (a) that the title is essential for the appreciation of the art. (b) that aesthetic appreciation is helped by an interesting title. (c) the meaning of the work becomes obvious if a good title is given. (d) the title serves the purpose of aesthetic appreciation. 88. The titles in the case of abstract art of Ellsworth Kelly: (a) help you achieve aesthetic appreciation. (b) do not help you in understanding the art. (c) are meaningless. (d) convey a deeper meaning that what is depicted on canvas. 89. Kellys titles, says the author, function as an art historical joke. On what is this joke? (a) on the fact that abstract art is often meaningless. (b) that both the title and the painting are quite meaningless. (c) that the panting is actually self-contained and requires no title at all. (d) a comment on the history of titles. 90. How did the cubists use titles? (a) to explain their paintings. (b) to bring about a change in perspective. (c) by forcing a spectator to think about the painting. (d) by misguiding the spectator. 91. Gauguins painting Where do we come from? What are we? Where are we going? most likely depicts which of the following? (a) people wearing few clothes, some picking fruit. (b) the cycle of birth and death. (c) abstract surrealism that depicts the title. (d) none of these. 92. The author uses the word rifle as synonymous to title. What additional meaning does he covey through rifle? (a) a handle to understand the title the work. (b) telescope, through which to focus on the work. (c) gun or weapon to shoot the artist. (d) an irksome text that confuses people. 93. What is the authors opinion about Cindy Shermans untitled photograph? (a) She should have given it a title. (b) A title would have reduced the meaning of her work. (c) Untitled is an appropriate title for the work. (d) None of the above. 94. Gilbert Adairs quote is labelled as a truism by the author, because:
(a) Great plays have their titles associated with them and hence look like great titles (b) The title becomes a deceptive signifier for the signifieds they advertise. (c) The title hardly makes a painting great; it is vice versa. (d) The title and the painting convey a meaning together. 95. What should logically come after the last paragraph of the passage? (a) an explanation of Duchamps intriguing title that has been introduced in the last paragraph. (b) a summing up and conclusion about paintings and their titles. (c) a description of titles and modern paintings. (d) more examples of confusing and intriguing titles. 96. What would be the best title for the passage? (a) Paintings and their titles (b) Signifier and signified. (c) The Role of Titles in Understanding Paintings. (d) What Paintings Hide, Titles Explain. Passage 4 No revolutions in technology have as visibly marked the human condition as those in transport. Moving goods and people, they have opened continents, transformed living standards, spread diseases, fashions and folk around the world. Yet technologies to transport ideas and information across long distances have arguably achieved even more: they have spread knowledge, the basis of economic growth. The most basic of all these, the written word, was already ancient by 1000. By then China had, in basic form, the printing press, using carved woodblocks. But the key to its future, movable metal type, was four centuries away. The Chinese were hampered by their thousands of ideograms. Even so, they quite soon invented primitive movable type, made of clay, and by the 13th century they had movable wooden type. But the real secret was the use of an easily cast metal. When it came, Europeaided by simple western alphabets leapt forward with it. One reason why Asias civilisations, in 1000 far ahead of Europes, then fell behind was that they lacked the technology to reproduce and diffuse ideas. On Johannes Gutenbergs invention in the 1440s were built not just the Reformation and the Enlightenment, but Europes agricultural and industrial revolutions too. Yet information technology on its own would not have got far. Literally: better transport technology too was needed. That was not lacking, but here the big change came much later: it was railways and steamships that first allowed the speedy, widespread dissemination of news and ideas over long distances. And both technologies in turn required people and organisations to develop their use. They got them: for individual communication, the postal service; for wider publics, the publishing industry. Throughout the 19th century, the postal service formed the bedrock of national and international communications. Crucial to its growth had been the introduction of the gummed postage stamp, combined with a low price, and payment by the sender (not, as till then, the recipient). Britain put all three of these ideas into effect in 1840 (50 years later, alas, than its first plan for a penny post). By then, the worlds mail was taking off. It changed the world. Merchants in Americas eastern cities used it to gather information, enraging far-off cotton growers and farmers, who found that New Yorkers knew more about crop prices than they did. In the American debate about slavery, it offered abolitionists a low-cost way to spread their views, just as later technologies have cut the cost and widened the scope of political lobbying. The post helped too to integrate the American nation, tying the newly opened west to the settled east. Everywhere, its development drove and was driven by those of

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transport. In Britain, travellers rode by mail coach to posting inns. In America, the post subsidised road-building. Indeed, argues Dan Schiller, a professor of communications at the University of California, it was the connection between the post, transport and national integration that ensured that the mail remained a public enterprise even in the United States, its first and only government-run communications medium, and until at least the 1870s, the biggest organisation in the land. And in most countriesthe United States was an exceptionthe carriers of mail became in turn the providers of telegraphy and then of telephony. The change has not only been one of speed and distance, though, but of audience. At the start of the millennium, with rare exceptions kings, chiefs and churchmena mans words could reach no further than his voice, not just in range but in whom they reached. Gossip moves fast, be it from medieval mouth to ear or mobile phone to phone. But, for some purposes, efficient communication is mass communication, regular, cheap, quick and reliable. When it became possible it transformed the world. Now one voice could reach distant thousands. 97. According to the passage, the reason that Asias civilisations, which were ahead of Europes, fell behind was that: (a) the alphabet of European scripts was simple and reproducible. (b) the invention of movable type. (c) Europe developed the technology of communication. (d) the invention of the printing press created a revolution. 98. Why did information technology require better transport technology in order to succeed? (a) it allowed wide dissemination of news and ideas over long distances. (b) both technologies required people and organisations to develop their use (c) it formed the basis of postal service and publishing industry. (d) none of the above. 99. Which of the following could be a basis for the statement that the post subsidised road-building? (a) better communication meant better transport, which in turn meant better roads. (b) there was a connection between the post, transport and national integration. (c) the delivery of mail entailed better transport and better roads. (d) the carriers of mail became the providers of telegraphy and then of telephony. 100. Which of the following is NOT an effect of the mail service, as mentioned in the passage? (a) collection of market prices of goods. (b) a low cost way to spread ideas. (c) the scope of political lobbying has widened and costs reduced. (d) integrating the American nation. Its so natural to them now. In fact, they once thought every child was adopted. Ever since 1970, when we were married we have longed for children of our own, but despite medical tests and treatments we were unable to have any and now, at last, we have a family. It is one of lifes bitter ironies that some women would do almost anything to get rid of a foetus, while others would do almost anything to have one. Which of the following reflects the opinion of Jane Martin? (a) It is sad fact that many unwanted babies are born and sometimes abandoned by their mother. (b) The adoption of the children has fulfilled our yearning for a family. (c) We will tell our children they are adopted as soon as they express an interest. (d) We believe that abortion is sinful. 102. The following is an extract from a contract between company A Ltd and an individual X, X being the sole shareholder and an employee of another companyB Ltd, wherein A agrees to purchase the 2,400 shares held by X in B Ltd for $1,000,000 on January 15,1998. X agrees to sell 2,400 shares of B Ltds Common Stock to A Ltd in consideration of $1,000,000 due and payable on January 15, 1998. X agrees that he will not, without consent of B Ltd or A Ltd, disclose any material confidential information obtained during his employment with B Ltd, except as may be required by judicial proceedings. Which of the following statements most fairly represents the facts? (a) B Ltd will not purchase the shares if A Ltd discloses material confidential information regarding B Ltd before January 15. (b) Following January 15, 1998 A Ltd will have a wholly owned subsidiarynamely, B Ltd. (c) If X were selling only 600 shares, then the proceeds should be $250,000. (d) In the above, X can contract in the name of B Ltd because X was the sole shareholder. 103. Rohit is a terrible driver. He has had at least five traffic violations in the past year. Which of the following can be said about the above claim? (a) This is an example of an argument that is directed against the source or the claim rather than the claim itself. (b) The statement is fallacious because it contains an illegitimate of two compared situations. (c) The above argument obtains its strength from a similarity of two compared situations. (d) The argument is built upon an assumption. 104. Valerie Fitzgerald, the author of Zemindar, was born and grew up in that part of India in which the events described in her book took place. Her family, and in particular her father, had a great interest in the period of the Indian Mutiny, engendered perhaps by the fact that her Irish grandmother survived the Siege of Agra at the age of six. Trying to invoke the Zemindari life was easy for Valerie Fitzgerald, as she spent many childhood winters on a large estate outside Delhi, managed by her father, and later spent many holidays, on another estate, northeast of Lucknow and just at the foot of the Himalayas, what used to be Oudh. She said, I have no recollection of just when, or more important why I set about telling the story of the Siege. I suppose it was because I realised I had the right backgroundand because no one else, as far as I knew, had ever tried it. Which of the following facts can be elicited from the foregoing paragraph? (a) Zemindar is the story of the early life of the author, Valerie Fitzgerald.

SectionIII DATA INTERPRETATION


Questions: 50 Directions (Qs. 101-105): For each question, choose the best answer among the listed alternatives. 101. When Mr and Mrs Martin take a walk in the local downtown area with their four children, heads turn. With one boy easily mistaken for a Scandinavian, one child a Mexican, another Chinese, and the fourth black-skinned, it seems like an outing of the United Nations. In fact, the four kids are all adopted and each has been part of the Martin family since he or she was a few months old. We explained adoption to each of them as soon as they could understand, say Jane Martin.

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(b) Miss Fitzgerald cannot remember precisely the reason for writing the book Zemindar (c) Many of Miss Fitzgeralds winters were spent in the estates in India collecting and collating information to include in her book on the Siege of Agra. (d) Miss Fitzgerald is the only author ever to have written a book on the Siege of Agra. 105. You have three boxes, each containing two balls, one containing a black pair, one, a white pair, and the third, one white ball and one black ball. On each box are pictures of two ballseither two black ones, two white ones, or one white and one black. You are told that the markings on the boxes are all wrong. You are asked to ascertain the colours of the balls contained in each box. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above? (a) You can take out one ball from the box marked with two black balls and, without looking at the second ball, known what each box actually contains. (b) You can take out one ball from the box marked with two white balls and without looking at the second ball, know what each box actually contains. (c) You can take out one ball from the box marked with one white ball and one black ball and, without looking at the second ball, know what each box contains. (d) You cannot know which balls are contained in which box until you take a ball out of more than one box. Directions (Qs. 106-110): W, X, Y and Z are playing a game with dice. Let Wi be the score obtained by W in the i th throw [i = 1, 2, 3 ] Xi ,Yi and Zi are similarly defined. Rules of the game are as follows. W throws the dice first followed by X. If W1 > X1 then W receives Rs (W 1 X 1 ) from X and the winner throws the next. If W1 < X1 then X receives Rs (X 1 W1) from W and the winner throws the next. If W1 = X1 then there is no transaction of money and Y throws the next. If X1 < Y1 then Y receives Rs (Y1 X1) from X and the winner throws the next. If X1 > Y1 then X receives Rs (X 1 Y1) from Y and the winner throws the next. If X1 = Y1 then no money is given either by X or Y and Z throws. If Y1 > Z1 then Y receives Rs (Y1 Z1) from Z and Y throws the next. If Z1 > Y1 then Z receives Rs (Z1 Y1) from Y and the winner gets the chance of the next throw. If Y1 = Z1 then there is no transaction of money and W throws. W2 is compared with Z1 so that the winner gets money equal to difference of W2 and Z1 and the winner throws the next. However if W2 = Z1 then there is no transaction of money and X throws and so on. Barring W1, score obtained by a player will be compared with the score obtained by another player in his last throw. Result of first ten throws were W2 = W3 = 2 W1 = W4 = 4. X2 = 3 X3 = 1 X1 = 4. Y2 = 1 and Z1 = 1 Y1 = 2. After this the game was terminated. x1 then who throws the dice after Y? 106. W1 = X1 and Y1 = 2 ( a) W ( b) X ( c) Y ( d) Z 107. If W1 = X1 = Y1 = Z1 then (a) X will get money from Y (b) W will throw the next (c) total money to be transacted will be divided among the four players (d) the game will be terminated. 108. Suppose W1 = 4 = X1. . Y1 = 2. X2 = 6 Then I: Y will give Rs 2 to X. II: X will get Rs 4 from Y III: there will be no profit or loss for W (a) I and II are true but III is false (b) I and III are true but II is false (c) II and III are true but I is false (d) Only III is true. 109. Suppose in a certain throw X gets 1. Y throws the next and also gets I. Then (a) Z will go on throwing the dice (b) Z will go on throwing the dice till he throws one (c) Z will throw the dice for three times (maximum) (d) The game will terminate. 110. Which player would throw the dice for three terms consecutively (i.e. in a row)? ( b) X (c) Y (d) Z. ( a) W Directions (Qs. 111-116): Refer to the chart below, which gives the movement of share prices over a two-week period. June 12 1227 71.65 78.05 9.10 860 1550 10.70 27.80 644.50 5 11.75 85.50 404.80 10.85 610.10 204.45 199 11 12.70 June 19 1163.10 67.75 69.45 8.45 905 1537 10.10 27.20 605 4.95 10.50 77.05 363 14 532 205 182.25 10.35 12.25

ACC Apollo Tyres Escorts Essar Ship Hero Honda Hind Lever Hind Motors IFCI ITC JCT Ltd JP Ind LML Nestle Oswal Agro Ranbaxy SBI Telco UTI Mastergain UTI Mastershare

111. Which companys shares changed by the maximum percentage during the period from June 12 to 19? (b) ITC (a) ACC (d) JCT Ltd (c) Telco 112. Which companys shares increased by the minimum percentage during the given period? (b) SBI (a) Hero Honda (d) Oswal Agro (c) LML 113. The value of shares of which company remained the most steady during the given period? (b) Hind Lever (a) UTI Mastergain (d) JCT Ltd (c) Essar Ship 114. The number of scrips whose performance improved during the given period is ___. (a) Three (b) Four (c) Two (d) None of the above 115. Which scrip was the best performer at the DSE during June? (a) SBI (b) Hero Honda (c) JP Ind (d) Cant say 116. What would have been the % change if value of Nestles shares was 463 on June 19? (a) 19.12 (b) 58.23 (c) 14.37 (d) None of the above

375 ! NOVEMBER 2003 ! THE COMPETITION MASTER

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Directions (Qs. 117-125): The following charts give the figures about the Indian economy. Note: 1. In the first chart, Revenue is given by the uppermost line, Expenditure by the middle line and Subsidies in the last line. 2. In the second graph, the line from 38.41 to 39.45 represents Staff strength (in lakhs) and the line from 15208.62 to 32722.13 represents Wage Bill (in Rs crore). 3. In the third chart, revenue deficit is given by the bottom line while fiscal deficit is given by the upper line 4. In the last chart, the smaller bar represents 1998-99 figures and the bigger bar represents 1999-2000 figures. DAUNTING TASK
Revenue isn't keeping pace with expenditure and subsidy bill
Revenue
3,00,000 2,50,000 2,00,000 1,50,000 1,00,000 50,000 0

Government staff strength is climbing, as is the wage bill


Wage Bill (Rs crore) Staff Strength (lakh)

Expenditure

Subsidies

2,83,882 1,82,840

40,000

39,45

40

1,41,850 75,453 10,764

30,000

39

38,41
20,000

32,722,13 38
37 99-2K**

22,440
10,000 97-98 98-99* 99-2k** **Budget estimate

15,208,62
97-98 98-99*

93-94 94-95 95-96 96-97 Figures in Rs crore *Revised estimate

93-94 94-95 95-96 96-97 *Revised estimate **Budget estimate

The deficit is still high


Revenue deficit as a percentage of GDP Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP
8 6 4

Revenue and expenditure are up this year, as is the deficit


1998-99 1999-2000
90

7.4 4.4 4.0

80 70

83 75.7 62.9 61.5 60.4 59.9

83.9 80.7

2 0 93-94 94-95 *Revised estimate 95-96 96-97 **Budget estimate 97-98 98-99*

3.0

60 50

99-2k**

Receipts Expenditure Revenue deficit Figures are % of Budget estimates

Fiscaldeficit

117. What is the average annual earning of a government employee in 1999-2000 estimates? (b) Rs 83,000 (a) Rs 81,805 (d) Rs 1,07,000 (c) Rs 93,000 118. Approximately how many times has the government expenditure increased in 1999-2000 over 1993-94? (a) 1.5 times (b) 1.9 times (c) 2 times (d) 2.5 times 119. What is Indias GDP for 1999-2000 according to the data provided? (b) Rs 60.94 104 crore (a) Rs 58 105 crore (d) Rs 61 105 crore (c) Rs 61 107 crore 120. Revenue receipts have increased by how much per cent over 1998-99? (b) 9.8% (c) 2.2% (d) 1.7% (a) 11.2%

121. Subsidies as a per cent of expenditure for 1993-94 is: (b) 7.1% (c) 6.6% (d) 5.8% (a) 7.6% 122. What is the government revenue in 1996-97? (b) Rs 150,000 crore (a) Rs 1291 crore (d) Rs 29,146 crore (c) Rs 99,687 crore 123.The number of years that the staff strength is more than the wage bill is: (b ) 2 ( c) 3 (d) None of these ( a) 1 124. The wage bill of the government has increased by what percentage from 1993-94 to 1999-2000? (b) 216% (c) 115% (d) 107% (a) 200% 125. Fiscal deficit has fallen by how much percentage from 199394 to 1999-2000? (b) 37% (c) 36% (d) 35% (a) 40%

Directions (Qs. 126-131): The Performance Ratings of the five Project Types are given in the following table. In this table, rating is on a ten point scale, where 0 means hopelessness and 10 means excellent performance. Study the table carefully and answer questions based on this information.
Project Measure Big Losers Success rate(%) Profitability rate in (0-10) Technical Success rating (0-10) Sales/Profit impact (0-10) Current domestic market share (%) Time efficiency rating (0-10) On-schedule rating (0-10) 0% 1.53 6.00 4.16 11.8 4.37 3.16 Mean value for Each Performance Measure by Project Type Fast Dogs Fast Hits Technical Successes 93% 6.52 8.73 6.47 27.9 7.29 5.29 Stars All

0% 2.24 4.88 4.09 7.1 8.08 7.42

91% 7.55 8.24 6.61 25.2 8.67 8.27

100% 8.46 8.46 7.29 52.9 7.29 5.29

66% 58.8 7.56 6.00 27.4 6.84 5.79

376 ! NOVEMBER 2003 ! THE COMPETITION MASTER

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126. What could be said to be correct about the Technical Successes? (a) Profitability is low. (b) In technically successful projects, we dont make immediate profits. (c) Technically successful projects are not money. (d) None of these. 127. What is the major factor contributing to a star performance? (a) Time Efficiency Rating (b) Current Domestic Market. (c) On-schedule Rating (d) Cant be determined. 128. Which of the following statements can be said to be correct? (a) Market share always means success rate. (b) Most successful organisation has to be most efficient. ( c ) Most successful organisation has to be technically successful. (d) None of these 129. Which of the statements can be made with certainty for time efficiency rating? (a) Most efficient organisation is most profitable. (b) Most efficient organisation is most successful. (c) Organisations which are efficient are fast hits. (d) None of these.: 130. As compared to the overall performance, the projects which are fast hits, technical successes and stars do well in every aspect except for I. Time-efficiency rating. II. On-schedule rating. III. Profitability rating. (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) All three of these (d) None of these 131. Which of the following statements cannot be derived from the table? (a) To be technically successful, you need to compromise on profitability. (b) Technically successful organisations are the most efficient. (c) Fast hits may not be able to deliver on schedule (d) none of these

Directions (Qs. 132-136): Study the graph given below and answer the questions that follow: FOR WHOM THE POLL TOLLS? Indian democracy is witnessing repeated elections at short intervals as governments are failing to complete their tenures. This leaves nation and the common man faced with the consequences of repeated and increasing poll expenses. (Expenditure on Lok Sabha Elections in Rs crore) Expenditure on Lok Sabha Elections (Rs Crore)
1000 800 600 400 200 0 10.45 5.9 37.07 81.51 7.82 10.95 14.43 29.81 154.22 359.1 597.34 626.4 850

1952 1957 1962 1967 1972 1977 1980 1984 1989 1991 1996 1998 1999

132. The expenditure on Lok Sabha in 1998 was ___ times the expenditure in 1957. (a) 121.6 (b) 106.1 (c) 116.6 (d) 98.7 133. Which period saw the maximum % increase in expenditure? (a) 1989-91 (b) 1967-72 (c) 1984-89 (d) 1977-80 134. Which of the following statements is false? (a) In 1998, the expenditure was approximately 1.04 times of that in 1996. (b) Expenditure in 1980 increased by 24.3% over that in 1977. (c) Expenditure in 1999 was approximately 109 times of that in 1962.

(d) None of these 135. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Expenditure in 1991 increased by approximately: 133% over that in 1989. (b) Expenditure on Lok Sabha has always been increasing. (c) % increase in expenditure during 1989-91 was lower than that in 1977-80. (d) None of these 136. What has been the total expenditure on Lok Sabha during the period shown? (a) Rs 1787 crores (b) Rs 2785 crores (c) Rs 2785 lakhs (d) Rs 1785 lakhs Directions (Qs. 137-140): Two brothers, Harish and Sanjay bought four acres land in 1990 and started cultivating it in 1991. They

377 ! NOVEMBER 2003 ! THE COMPETITION MASTER

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produced 1,000 kg of paddy per acre in that year. Being the elder brother, Harish decided the proportion in which the produce would be shared. He retained 1,800 kg and gave the rest to Sanjay. In 1994, when the production was twice that in 1991, Harish gave 60% of the produce to Sanjay. Sanjay found that Harish was more considerate in that year than in 1992, when he had received 2,700 kg which was only 200 kg more than what Harish had retained when he had divided the produce equally. In 1995, when the production was twice that of 1993, Harish retained 9,000 kg, which was 75% of the total production in 1995. 137. In 1991 Harish and Sanjay had shared the production in the ratio of: (a) 50 : 50 (b) 45 : 55 (c) 55 : 45 (d) none of these 138. The increase in production between 1993 and 1994 was (a) 1,000 kg (b) 1,500 kg (c) 2,000 kg (d) 3,5000 kg 139. The quantity received by Harish in 1994 was (a) four times the production in 1993 (b) one-fourth the production in 1993 (c) twice the production in 1992 (d) 40% of the production in 1995 140. The quantity of paddy received by Harish in 1995 as a ratio of quantity received in 1991 is closer to: (a) 1.00 : 1.00 (b) 1.00 : 0.95 (c) 1.00 : 5 (d) 1.00 : 1.36 Directions (Qs. 141-145): These questions are followed by two statements A and B. Choose (a) if statement A is sufficient to answer the question asked, but the statement B by itself is not sufficient to answer the question. Choose (b) if statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question. Choose (c) if both the statements A and B together are sufficient to answer the given question but neither statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question. Choose (d) if the two statements A and B, even when taken together are not sufficient to answer the question. 141. Is y larger than in 1? A: y is greater than 0 B: y 4 = 0 142. Is the integer x divisible by 3? A: The last digit in x is 3 B: x + 5 is divisible by 6. 143. How much is Mohans weekly salary? A: Mohans weekly salary is twice as much as Sohans weekly salary. B: Sohans weekly salary is 40% of the total of Rams and Mohans weekly salaries. 144. What is the percentage of defective items produced in a factory? A: The total number of defective items produced is 1,234. B: The ratio of defective items to non-defective is 32 to 5,678. 145. How long will it take to travel from A to B? It takes 4 hours to travel from A to B and back to A. A: It takes 25% more time to travel from A to B than it takes to travel from B to A. B: C is midway between A and B and it takes 2 hours to travel from A to C and back to A. 146. What is the percentage of defective items produced in a factory? A: The total number of defective items produced is 1,234. B: The ratio of defective items to non-defective is 32 to 5,678. 147. How long will it take to travel from A to B? It takes 4 hours to travel from A to B and back to A. A: It takes 25% more time to travel from A to B than it takes to travel from B to A. B: C is midway between A and B and it takes 2 hours to travel from A to C and back to A. 148. How many square tiles with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room? A: The floor is 10 feet long. B: The floor is 5 feet wide. 149. A group of 49 consumers were offered a chance to subscribe to 3 magazines: A, B and C. 38 of the consumers subscribed to at least one of the magazines. How many of the 49 consumers subscribed to exactly two of the magazines? A: 12 of the 49 consumers subscribed to all the three magazines. B: 20 of the 49 consumers subscribed to magazine A. 150. What is the two-digit number whose first digit is a and the second digit is b? A: The number is a multiple of 51. B: The sum of the digits a and b is 6.

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS SectionI 1. (c) Direct application of formula : 2 rh 15 22 ) 5 14 15 = 6600 =2( 7 2. (c) Old revenue = 100 100, New revenue = 115 85 = 9775 decrease of 2.25% 3. (b) Total age 6 years ago = 57 years, today = 72 years. But 12 years have been added after 6 years, hence age of child = 72 (57 + 12) = 3 years. 108 = 120 4. (d) Present price = 108, Diwali price = 0.9 Original price =

12 = 150. 0.8

5. (b) Remaining job = 72 mandays : Men = 10 plus 10 women = 72 =4 10 + 8 men. Days = 18 6. (c) He climbs 1 m every minute so he continues upto 32 minutes. In 33rd minute he reaches 35, in 34th = 34 and in 35th minute he reaches the top 7. (b) Remaining distance = 60, Relative speed = 120. 60 1 = hour, hence (b) Time taken = 120 2 8. (d) Remaining distance = 60, Relative speed = 150. 60 2 = hrs after 11 which is 11.24 and the They meet 150 5 distance travelled is 54 km.

378 ! NOVEMBER 2003 ! THE COMPETITION MASTER

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9. (c) Time when A crosses B =

250 5 120 18 120 150

= 7.5 seconds.

34. (c) Sum of AP with a = 105, d = 7 and last term = 497 5 1 7 7 178 + = 35. (b) Required probability = 12 2 12 16 384 36. (c) There are four brokers, hence value at the end = x(1.1)4 = 1.46 x. The seller could make 46% profit by selling directly. 154 = 140. Gain = 154 170 = 14 37. (d) 11 . 38. (a) We use B twice because it cannot be used 3 times, which would leave an odd quantity of milk. 39. (a) Total poles reqd are 4 + 5 + 8 = 17 but 3 are available, hence 14. x + 5, solving we get x = 30 40. (b) x 10 = 2 41. (d) Quarterly compounding would be the maximum 42. (d) In this case there would be no compounding and all would be the same 43. (b) There are 8 children between S and B, hence 14. 44. (c) 4@(9 + 2p) = 16 + 2(9 + 2p) = 16 + 18 + 4p = 50. Hence p = 4 45. (a) 46. (b) Substitute the value to get the answer. 22 ) (14) (5) 0.80 47. (b) rl = ( 7 48. (c) 5x = 20. 49. (a) 4a = 32 and 32b = 52 or 3b = 5 hence a > b 50. (d) Greatest value when numerator is greatest and denominator is least, and vice versa. SectionII 51. (d) Must start with R, in which his choice of words is explained, thereafter Q must follow, followed by P, then S. 52. (a) The sequence is: terms-definition-instruction-correct-incorrect. 53. (d) Must start with Q, which explains what individuals are doing, and must end with R, which explains how we have the same feelings and aspirations. 54. (c) Must start with S (to provide the children with facilities) and must end with P, which introduces non-formal education programme. 55. (d) Must start with Q which explains why opposition is essential, and end with S, which introduces minority. 56. (d) I was instantly gripped as one is 57. (d) It is stratified so there are subtle differences. 58. (b) The word used is cavorting around, hence clowns should follow. 59. (a) First is the best choice, as they can mimic and thus spoil the effort. 60. (b) After action, settings should come. 61. (c) If all MBAs are managers and vice versa, C should logically follow. 62. (d) Sunny is the subset of girl and girls are beautiful leads to Sunny is beautiful. 63. (c) He has two enemies from statements E and F. 64. (a) Fools suffer, not fools do not suffer, hence only fools suffer. 65. (a) Sky-white-black; so sky-black. 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (d)

Time when B crosses C =

5 18

= 6 seconds

Total time = 7.5 + 6 = 13.5 seconds 10. (a) He has to cover 150 m in 2 hours hence 1.25 x 11. (c) Four triangles, each of side , are deleted from each of 4 3 corners. Area =

1 a 2 2a 2 ( ) 4= = Area of the octagon 2 3 9 7 2 2a 2 =a = ( )a 9 9


2

12. (b) Let the original length and breadth be x and y. x x2 Then x : y = y : hence y2 = or x : y = 2 : 1 2 2 13. (b) Each 5 and 10 contributes a zero. Hence 12 4 3 14. (d) x = ( ) r = 4 r 2 , hence r = 3 and x = 36 3 15. (a) Exterior angles of polygon = 2 . There are 2 sets of exterior angles, hence 4 . Interior angles = 6 right angles hence angles at the corners = , or 180 16. (d) Do Q 20 first. If P = 4, then L = 2 or 3. Since JKL = 1400 and J + K + L = prime number. We find that no numbers satisfy this condition. By hit and trial, if we take P = 8, then L = 7 and J & K can be 20 and 10 respectively. Then J + K + L = 20 + 10 + 7 = 37, which is prime. Hence J = 20. 17. (c) From the above 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b) LCM of 5, 6, 8 and 10 = 120 min = 2 hours Hence 4 + 2 = 6 am a b c = = = k. 22. (c) 3 4 7 Hence a = 3k, b = 4k and c = 7k. Substitute in the expression. 23. (d) Sneh = x, father = 6x then V + 10 =

(6x + 10) and V = 10. 2

Now solve. 24. (c) Area has reduced from 100 to 25 . 25. (b) Start with 100 then SP of the shirt becomes 120, 132, 148.5 hence (b) 26. (b) The order we get, satisfying all conditions, is English, Games, French, Maths, Latin, Science and English. Now all questions can be answered. 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (d) 32. (b) a + b + c + d + e = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 7 + 8 = 30. 33. (b) 1! = 1 and 2! = 2. So, just two xs are possible.

379 ! NOVEMBER 2003 ! THE COMPETITION MASTER

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71. (c) The robot is being developed 72. (b) can avail of only a specified number 73. (d) places in which 74. (c) in form but wrong in 75. (a) aggregated (combined, or collected) 76. (a) 77. (a) Frustrations in gene therapy are providing an incentive, or encouraging scientists, to succeed in germ line engineering. 78. (c) It esoteric worries..unlikely to change peoples views, safety issues could directly stated. 79. (b) With germ line engineering, there is more scope for unpredictable, even monstrous alterations. 80. (d) All the choices ((a) to ((c) are mentioned in the passage as arguments 81. (c) The article describes the research and also the issues involved in genetic research 82. (a) stated in the first paragraph 83. (b) He examined the foundation on which they (opinions) were all based.. 84. (c) According to Descartes, I think, therefore I am. 85. (a) His approach of mathematical certainty led to the question of traditional philosophy 86. (c) stated in the first paragraph. 87. (d) The author states that the title is the handmaidenor servant of aesthetic appreciation. 88. (b) Kellys titles do not help in understanding, as they merely name the colours. 89. (d) The joke is on the history of riflesthose that inform the spectator about whats really going on in the picture. 90. (b) Directly statedHere the title served to effect a perspectival shift. 91. (a) This is evident from the title that the author has suggested for the painting. 92. (b) The most obvious answer is a telescope, by which the meaning is deduced. 93. (b) Directly statedwould not reductively suggest a meaning. 94. (a) Even a title like King Lear begins to look great because the play is great 95. (c) The author has discussed various aspects of titles, after the last para he would sum it up. 96. (a) The most direct title is Paintings and their titles as this is what the passage is about. 97. (c) they lacked the technology to reproduce and diffuse ideas in other words, communication. 98. (a) railways and steamships that allowed widespread dissemination of news and ideas 99. (c) the post required better facilities for delivery, which in turn required better roads. 100. (c) later technologiesnot postcut the cost of political lobbying. SectionIII 101. (b) at last we have a family 102. (b) A Ltd is buying all the shares from the sole shareholder. 103. (d) the assumption is that traffic violations point to the conclusion that he is a bad driver 104. (b) directly stated 105. (c) By taking from the RB box, one can conclude whether the box contains only R, B or RB x1 4 = = 2. Here X1 > Y1, so X is the winner 106. (b) W1 = X1 = 4; Y1 = 2 2 and he will have the next throw. 107. (b) Y1 = Z1. Hence W will make the next throw and W2 will be compared to Z1. 108. (d) W1 = 4, X1 = 4, Y1 = 2. In this case X1 > Y1, so X is the winner and he gets Rs 2 from Y. X2 = 6, so Y will give him another Rs 4 in all, X gets Rs 6 from Y. But for W there is no profit or loss. 109. (a) X = 1, Y = 1, then Z must throw the dice. In any case Z > Y so Z will go on throwing the dice. 110. (b) W1 = 4, X1 = 4, Y1 = 2. Now X throws X2 = 3, so X throws again (X2 > Y1). X3 = 1, so Y throws the next round. Y2 = 1, so Z throws next round. We see that X has thrown thrice in a row. 111. (c) We calculate change percentage by calculating Differnce/old 100. 64 = 5% approx. ACC : 1227 1163 = 1227 ITC: 644 605 =

39 = 6% approx. 644 17 = 8% approx. 199

Telco: 199 182 =

JCT is too small. Note that we need not make the full calculation, but use approximations for these type of sums. 112. (b) Using approximation technique, we set: 45 = 5% approx. Hero Honda: 905 860 = 860 SBI: Negligible, while LML and Oswal are not contenders for the minimum percentage. 113. (d) This is a visual question. Look for the shares with the least difference. 114. (a) This is again a visual question. Look for the scrips which have improved: these are Hero Honda, Oswal, SBI. 115. (d) We are given only selected shares and hence we cannot say which is the best performance at the OSE. 58 = 14.3% 116. (c) 463 405 = 405 117. (b)

(32722 107 ) (39.45 105 )

= 83,000. (From the second graph)

118. (c)

283882 = 2. (First graph, top line) .141850

119. (d) Revenue deficit = 3% of GDP. Deficit 182,840 in the first (182,840) = 61,00,000 crore graph. Hence GDP = 0.03 120. (c) 121. (a) 122. (d)

(62.9 615) . 14 . = = 2.27% (fourth chart) 615 . 615 .


10,764 = 7.6% (first chart) 141850 ,

182840 + 75453 = 129146 crore (take average of revenue 2

from first chart) 123. (d) The figures are not comparable. 32722 15208 = 115% (From the second graph) 124. (c) 15208 125. (a)

(7.4 4.4) = 40%. (From the third graph) 7.4

126. (b) In technically successful projects, the profitability is low.


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127. (b) For stars, the current domestic share is the highest. 128. (d) none of the statements is true. 129. (c) they score relatively high in all areas. 130. (d) they do well in all areas. 131. (c) we cannot derive this option. 132. (b) Expenditure in 1957: 5.90. Expenditure in 1998: 626.40. 626 No. of times = = 105 approx. 6 133. (a) The expenditure has more than doubled in the periods given in the choices. 359 = 2.33 Choice (a): 154 Choice (b): (Total production = 4 1000 = 4000) 138. (b) Production in 95 : 9000 + 3000 = 12000 Production in 93 = (12000) = 6000. Production in 1994 : 8000 and in 1993 : 6000 Difference: 2000. 139. (d) Sanjay received 4800, which is 40% of 12000 140. (c) Harish receives 1800 in 91 and 9000 in 1995. 141. (c) A y > 0, B y > 2 (y = 2 is ruled out by A) 142. (c) 23 is not divisible by 3. If x + 5 is divisible by 6, then x is not divisible by 3 e.g. 36 is divisible by 6, but 31 is not divisible by 3. 143. (d) Mohan = 2 Sohan, Sohan = 40% of (Ram + Mohan) = (Ram + Mohan) =

2 of 5

29.81 = a little over 2 14.42

2 2 2 4 Ram + Mohan = Ram + Sohan 5 5 5 5

Choice (c): less than 2 815 . = 2.19 Choice (d): 37 The best answer is (a) 134. (d) This is a visual question. All figures can be compared mentally. (359 154) 205 135. (a) Expenditure increase = = 1339 54 150 Choice (b) is wrong as expenditure has decreased in 1952-57. Choice (c) is also wrong as expenditure increase in 1989-91 is more than double. 136. (b) This sum requires simple addition. Be careful of the units i.e. lakhs and crore. 137. (d) Harish retains 1800 and gives 2200 to Sanjay.

1 2 Sohan = Ram Sohan = 2 Ram 5 5

Mohan = 4 Ram 144. (b) 7 2 145. (a) 1 hours from A to B and 2 hours from B to A. 9 9

146. (b) 147. (a) 1

7 2 hours from A to B and 2 hours from B to A. 9 9

148. (c) 149. (d) 11 consumers did not subscribe to any magazine 150. (a) There is only one two-digit multiple of 51 and that is 51 itself is the number.

TEST OF REASONING
For ample practice in Reasoning Ability Verbal Analogies Statistical Data Representation Syllogism Quantitative Aptitude

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