BIO 240 SPRING 2009 EXAMINATION #2 TEST #_______ AXIAL AND APPENDICULAR SKELETON, ARTICULATIONS, MUSCLE TISSUE AND

ND SYSTEM READ THESE DIRECTIONS 1. 2. This test will be over and all papers must be turned at 10 minutes before the hour. There are NO EXCEPTIONS. There are three things to do before starting the test: FIRST Write your name and test number at the top of the computer sheet. SECOND Fill in the bubbles for your name (last, first) on the back of the computer sheet. THIRD Write your name and test number on the front and back of the written answer sheet. Read the ACADEMIC HONOR CODE below:

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The University of North Carolina is committed to the proposition that the pursuit of truth requires the presence of honesty among all involved. It is therefore this institutions stated policy that no form of dishonesty among its faculty or students will be tolerated. Although all members of the university community are encouraged to report occurrences of dishonesty, each individual is principally responsible for his or her own honesty. 4. At the end of the test turn in your computer sheet and written answer sheet. You may keep the rest of the test. The key will be posted on my website after I have collected all of the tests. _________________________________________________________________________________ Each of the following questions or incomplete statements below is followed by suggested answers or completions. Select the one BEST answer in each case and fill in the appropriate circle on the computer sheet. (2 pts each) MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex, except the ________ bone. A) lacrimal B) nasal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) frontal 2) Which of these is not one of bones of the face? A) frontal B) maxilla C) vomer D) mandible E) zygomatic Which of the following statements below regarding sutures and fontanels is FALSE? A) The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the sagittal suture. B) The posterior fontanel is the last to close at 2 months. C) The coronal suture forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone. D) The number of wormian bones found inbetween sutures of different individuals can vary. E) The anteriolateral fontanel is also known as the sphenoid fontanel. Each of the following structures is associated with the correct bone, except A) The cribiform plate is part of the ethmoid bone. B) The external auditory meatus is part of the sphenoid bone. C) The pituitary gland sits within a "saddle like" fossa of the sphenoid bone. D) The foramen magnum is located within the occipital bone. E) The fossa for the mandible is located on the temporal bone.

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The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s). A) palatine B) vomer C) maxillary D) sphenoid E) both A and C The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later? A) cervical and lumbar B) thoracic and lumbar C) sacral and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) cervical and sacral As you move caudally along the spinal column, A) the transverse foramina disappear. B) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger. C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bones. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones. D) vomer and sphenoid bone. E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bones. The function of the hyoid bone is to A) support the larynx. B) anchor the tongue muscles. C) protect the heart. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by A) loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity. B) slippage of the fibrocartilage disc. C) ossification of the vertebral disc. D) protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. E) transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage. Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) scapula B) tibia C) sacrum D) os coxae bones E) metacarpals

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Which of these surface features does the ulna possess at its proximal end? A) olecranon B) styloid process C) trochlear notch D) all of the above E) A and C only When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the A) ischial tuberosities. B) posterior inferior iliac spines. C) iliac crests. D) obturator foramina. E) inferior rami of the pubis. The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from the A) fibula. B) femur. C) tibia. D) calcaneus. E) talus. The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) clavicle articulates with the humerus. B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. C) clavicle articulates with the acromion of the scapula. D) clavicle articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula. E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process. The talus contacts the A) calcaneus. B) navicular bone. C) tibial bone. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C Which statement below is FALSE? A) A suture is an example of a synarthrosis. B) A synovial joint is the best example of an amphiarthrosis. C) Cartilaginous joints are slightly movable. D) Freely movable joints are classified as diarthroses. E) Intervetebral discs are an example of an amphiarthrosis. Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? A) the joints contain a capsule that is continuous with the periosteum of bone. B) the articular cartilage in the joint is composed of elastic cartilage. C) the joints may contain menisci and extracapsular ligaments. D) the joints contain synovial fluid that provides lubrication and nutrients. E) the joints contain a capsule composed of an outer fibrous and inner synovial membrane layer.

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All of the following statements are true, except one. Identify the exception. A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint. B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint. C) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint. D) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint. E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint. Which of the following statements below regarding the connective tissues of muscle is FALSE? A) The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the epimysium. B) The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the endomysium. C) Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the endomysium connective tissue that composes each fascicle. D) The bundle of collagen fibers that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is called a ligament. E) C and D Which of the following statements regarding the regions of the sarcomere is FALSE? A) The region of the sarcomere containing both thick and thin filaments is the A band. B) The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the I band. C) The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the H band. D) The region of the sarcomere known as the Z line is where thick filaments are anchored. E) The Z line regions of the sarcomere are brought closer together during contraction. Which of the following statements regarding the types of filaments in a sarcomere is FALSE? A) thin filaments consist of two protein strands coiled helically around each other. B) thick filaments are comosed of a protein with a long shaftlike tail and a globular head. C) active sites on actin are blocked by troponin at rest. D) a springy protein known as titin forms the elastic filaments at the Z discs. E) C and D Which statement about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect? A) Calcium ion is released from the transverse tubule. B) Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Tropomyosin moves to expose myosin binding sites on actin. D) Troponin binds calcium ion and signals tropomyosin to move. E) Relaxation requires uptake of calcium ion by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. 1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin. 2. The free myosin head splits ATP. 3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere. 5. Calcium ion binds to troponin. 6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin. The correct sequence of these events is A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2. B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3. C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1, 6. D) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4, 6. E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5.
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In rigor mortis A) the myosin heads are attached to actin. B) ATP is depleted. C) muscles are inextensible. D) cross-bridge cycling is absent. E) all of the above How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? A) It would make the muscles less permeable to sodium ions. B) It would produce muscle weakness. C) It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax). D) It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract). E) It would have little effect on skeletal muscles. During anaerobic glycolysis A) ATP is produced. B) pyruvic acid is produced. C) oxygen is not consumed. D) all of the above E) B and C only Fast fibers A) fatigue easily. B) rely on aerobic metabolism. C) have many mitochondria. D) have twitches with a very brief contraction phase. E) both A and D Muscular force can be adjusted to match different loads by A) varying the frequency of action potentials in motor neurons B) recruiting larger motor units C) recruiting more motor units D) A, B, and C E) None of the above muscle contraction is all-or-none. Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle? A) Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons and aponeuroses. B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control. C) Smooth muscles are uninucleate. D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres. E) Smooth muscle is found in the digestive tract.

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Figure 10-2 Muscle Contractions Use Figure 10-2 to answer the following questions: 31) What is the contraction in graph (c) called? A) complete tetanus B) incomplete tetanus C) twitch D) wave summation E) B and D What is thought to happen in a muscle during the response shown in graph (a)? A) It is getting stronger with exercise. B) There is a gradual increase in the concentration of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm. C) It is fatigued and must make repeated efforts to twitch normally. D) It is aged and has lost contractile proteins. E) It is producing more ATP as tension increases.

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Fill in the blanks to form a correct statement. Write your answers on the written test sheet provided. (1 pt each) 33) 34) 35) 36) 37) 38) 39) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture. The cribiform plate has foramina for the _____________ nerves. Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the ________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae. The largest foramen in the body found in the os coxae is called the ___________. Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called ________. The pelvic ________ is bordered by the coccyx, the ischial tuberosities, and the inferior border of the pubic symphysis. A triad is composed of a transverse tubule and two adjacent _________.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 40) 41) 42) 43) 44) 45) 46) 47) Ribs numbered 11 and 12 are true ribs because they have no anterior attachments. In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius. All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina. The dens articulates with the axis. A muscle receiving 25 action potentials per second would contract more forcefully than a muscle receiving 10 action potentials per second. A motor unit in an eye muscle would produce a greater amount of tension than a motor unit in a back muscle. The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called isometric. Opposition is moving the arm away from the midline of the body.

Matching: For the matching questions below, mark your answers on the written answer sheet. There is only one correct answer per question . (1 point each) 62) elevates clavicle, adducts, rotates, and elevates scapula, abducts and extends neck 63) antagonist to the gastrocnemius C) tibialis anterior 64) abducts and rotates femur medially D) biceps femoris 65) rotates and abducts scapula elevates ribs when scapula fixed 66) only muscle of quadriceps that doesnt begin with vastus 67) elevates and retracts mandible H) trapezius I) rectus femoris
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A) mandible B) gluteus maximus

E) temporalis F) gluteus medius G) serratus anterior

WRITTEN ANSWER SHEET Signature Personal Return _____________________ Fill-in-the-Blank (1 pt ) 33. lambdoidal 34. olfactory 35. superior articular process 36. obturator foraman 37. bursae 38. outlet 39. terminal cisternae T/F (1 pt ) 40. __F__ 41. _T__ 42. _F___ 43. _F__ 44. _T___ 45. _F___ 46. _T___ 47. _F___ Identify (1/2 pt)

NAME ____________________ TEST NUMBER ________ Matching (1 pt)

48. _capitulum_____56. sternocleidomastoid62. _H_ 49. olecranon fossa__57. rectus abdominus 63. _C 50. greater trochanter58. sartorius 51. lateral epicondyle59. deltoid 52. lamina 60. latissimus dorsi 64. _F 65. _G 66. _I 67. _E

53. spinous process 61. gastrocnemius 54. pisiform 55. styloid process of ulna

SHORT ANSWER Write your answer in the space provided. 68) A pelvic girdle was found in a wooded area. It was brought to a forensic medicine laboratory for identification. The first thing the coroner did was determine the sex of the person which was female. Give three distinguishing characteristics of the female pelvic girdle as compared to the male pelvic girdle. _ilia more flared, pubic angle greater than 90 degrees, pelvis shallower, pelvic inlet more round obturator foramen more triangular or oval, acetabulum smaller

69) Duke inbounds the ball and a Duke basketball player runs down the court to shoot a 3 pointer. In the process of shooting the basketball and afterwards he carries out several different movements at his joints. List each type of joint movement taking place as described below. A. Before taking shot player bends knees _flexion_____________ B. Players hand on ball has fingers spread apart _abduction_____________ C. As shot is taken wrist bends backwards _hyperextension____________ D. Players arms are brought back to his sides or towards the midline of his body. _adduction___________ E. As basketball goes in, player shrugs his shoulders like he knew it always would. _elevation_________ EXTRA CREDIT: The triceps brachii is considered the _antagonist___________ to the biceps brachii because it produces the apposing action.

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