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Take Assessment - DRSEnt Final - CCNA Discovery (Version 4.0)

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1 A fully converged router is configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol. One
link of the router fails. Which two events may occur next? (Choose two.)

DUAL will look for a feasible successor route in the topology table and, if one
is found, it will add this route to the routing table.
EIGRP will look for feasible successors in the routing table.
DUAL will calculate the highest cost routes to each network.
EIGRP will send a bounded update to alert neighbors about the failure.
The router will forward the complete routing table to the neighboring routers.

Refer to the exhibit. The network consists of a single OSPF area.

All router priorities are at the default value and no loopback addresses are
configured.
The router interface IP addresses are displayed.
Which two routers are likely to be elected as the DRs? (Choose two.)

R1
R2
R3
R4
R5
R6

3 Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?

only in the routing table

only in the neighbor table
in the routing table and the topology table
in the routing table and the neighbor table

4 Which element of the hierarchical design model provides a connection point for
end-user devices to the network?

core layer
edge device
 access layer
enterprise edge
distribution layer

5 Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.)

The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information.

The number of required switches in a network decreases.
Each VLAN requires a unique network layer address.
VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location.
The size of the collision domain is reduced.

6 Which service or functionality is typically included in the enterprise edge

component of Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

server farms
PSTN services
network management
remote access and VPN

Refer to the exhibit. R3 is announcing all displayed internal networks to R4 with

the summary address 10.1.0.0/22. Which address will be most appropriate for
Network A?

10.0.0.0/24
10.1.4.0/24
10.1.0.0/24
10.1.0.0/23

Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?

Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.

No host can reach any other host.

Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
All hosts can reach each other.
9

Refer to the exhibit. The routing protocols are configured with their default
settings. Which two statements are true about the path or paths that R1 will
choose to the 192.168.2.0/24 network? (Choose two.)

If only EIGRP is configured on the network, only the path R1->R3 will be
installed in the routing table.
If OSPF and RIPv2 are both configured on the network, OSPF paths will be
installed in the routing table.
If EIGRP and OSPF are both configured on the network, EIGRP paths will be
installed in the routing table.
If EIGRP and RIPv2 are both configured on the network, RIPv2 paths will be
installed in the routing table.
If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, the two equal cost paths (R1-R2-R3 and R1-R4-
R3) will be installed in the routing table.

10

Refer to the exhibit. None of the hosts in network A are able to access the
Internet. How can this problem be resolved?

Configure dynamic NAT instead of PAT.

Configure the access list for the correct network.
Include the ip nat pool command in the configuration.
Configure the ip nat inside command on the correct interface.

11

Refer to the exhibit. Which VTP function will this switch perform?

It will create, change and share local VLAN information with other switches in
the XYZ domain.
It will forward to other switches the VLANs that are created in Switch1.
It will back up the VTP database for domain XYZ.
It will forward VTP configuration information for domain XYZ.

12

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to restrict the Production
network from accessing the HR network. All other traffic will have access to all
networks. Which combination of interface and direction should the administrator
use to apply the ACL?

Fa0/1, out
 Fa1/0, out
Fa0/1, in
Fa1/0, in

13

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is using the default OSPF operation. Which IP address
will be used as the router ID of R1?

192.168.201.1
172.16.1.1
10.10.10.1
10.1.1.1

14 What is an advantage of using a default route?

They never fail.

They reduce the size of the routing table.
They prevent routing loops between the edge router and the ISP.
They transfer traffic from the Internet to the network.

15 Which three statements correctly describe the features of IEEE STP? (Choose
three.)

It reconfigures port states if a link failure is detected.

It provides a mechanism for disabling redundant links in a switched network.
It immediately transitions all ports that are not discarding to the forwarding
state.
It has three port states: discarding, learning, and forwarding.
It ensures that there are no loops in the switched network.
It converges the switched network in less than 1 second.

16

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP

addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?

192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/25
17

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has used classless routing in the
network. What is the result of running the displayed command?

All packets that are destined for address 10.12.0.1/22 will be forwarded via
serial0/0/0.
All packets that are destined for address 10.12.14.0/22 will be forwarded via
serial0/0/0.
All packets that are destined for address 10.12.16.1/22 will be forwarded via
serial0/0/0.
All packets that are destined for address 10.12.15.255/22 will be forwarded via
serial0/0/0.

18

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both
interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator
verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are
unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?

no set loopback
incorrect subnet mask on R2
incompatible bandwidth
incorrect IP address on R1
incompatible encapsulation

19 What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose

two.)

eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device

provides segmentation of broadcast domains
allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

20 Which two statements are correct about Cisco HDLC encapsulation? (Choose two.)

It defines a Layer 3 framing structure.

It supports multiple network layer protocols.
It supports the callback option on serial links.
It is the default encapsulation type on Cisco router serial links.
It uses a layered architecture to encapsulate multiprotocol datagrams.
21

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing
protocol, and the network administrator has configured the serial interface with
the displayed commands. Which summary route will show in the routing table of R1
as a result of these commands?

a route pointing to the FastEthernet0/0 interface

a route pointing to the Serial0/0/0 interface
a route pointing to the Null0 interface
a route pointing to the loopback0 interface

22

Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP
address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the
interface to reject the address?

The IP address is already in use.

The technician is using a network address.
The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26.
The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

23

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the displayed
command? (Choose two.)

It will change the native VLAN to VLAN 10.

The command is applied on the access port of a switch.
The command will increase the CPU utilization of the switch.
All traffic that passes through this switch will be tagged with VLAN 10.
The untagged frames that are received on the trunk port will become members of
VLAN 10.

24

Refer to the exhibit. How will Switch2 respond to the VTP advertisement sent by
Switch1?

It will ignore the VTP advertisement.

It will add two VLANs to its database.
It will change its configuration revision number to 4.
It will send the VTP advertisement to Switch1 to delete the two VLANs.
25

Refer to the exhibit. The command that is displayed was run on a switch with 24
FastEthernet ports. Why are some ports missing from VLAN1?

The missing ports are administratively down.

The missing ports are not configured for STP.
The missing ports are not connected to any active device.
The missing ports are configured for trunk ports.

26

Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with default bridge priority.
Which two ports will definitely be elected STP designated ports if all links are
operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose two.)

Fa0/1 interface of switch A

Fa0/2 interface of switch A
Fa0/2 interface of switch B
Fa0/1 interface of switch C
Fa0/2 interface of switch C

27

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to block Telnet sessions from
host B to hosts E and F. Where should the administrator place the ACL that is
displayed in the exhibit?

on the Fa0/0 inbound interface of R1

on the S0/0/0 inbound interface of R1
on the S0/0/0 outbound interface of R3
on the Fa0/0 inbound interface of R3

28 Which two statements are correct about a single area OSPF network? (Choose
two.)

The DR and BDR reduce the processing overhead on all routers in a broadcast
multiaccess network.
The BDR is responsible for distributing changes to all other OSPF routers.
The router with the highest router ID is elected as the DR.
The maximum number of allowed routers is 250.
A point-to-point network always elects a DR.
29

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the routers using the
displayed commands, but the network fails to converge. What can the network
administrator do to solve this problem?

Issue the network commands correctly on both routers.

Configure the wildcard masks correctly on both routers.
Issue the no auto-summary command.
Configure both routers with different autonomous numbers.

30

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches have been configured with static VLANs. Host A
and host C belong to one VLAN and host B and D belong to another VLAN. However,
the hosts within each VLAN are unable to communicate with each other.

Which troubleshooting approach should be followed to resolve this problem?

Explore the possibility of adding a router to the network.

Ensure that both switches are configured for the same native VLAN.
Ensure that both switches are configured with the IP address of the same subnet.
Ensure that the ports connecting the two switches are configured as trunk ports
with the same encapsulation.

46 Which routing protocol requires the use of contiguous subnetworks?

RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP
OSPF

47 Which WAN connection method uses a PVC?

leased line
ISDN
DSL
Frame Relay

48
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be assigned to the Fa0/0 interface
of R1 to enable host A to access host B?

192.168.1.32/26
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.126/26
192.168.1.129/26

49 A journalist is using a wireless connection to transmit a video clip. Which is

the best protocol to use to transport the video packets?

TCP
UDP
PPP
HDLC

50

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the OSPF protocol with
default
settings. Which router will act as the BDR if all routers start at the same time?

R1
R2
R3
R4

51

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures R1 as displayed.

However,
some hosts from Network A are unable to access the Internet. Which two actions
can
resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

Configure the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands on the correct
interfaces.
Increase the number of IP addresses in the NAT address pool.
Configure the Fa0/0 interface of R1 for a different subnet.
Use PAT instead of dynamic NAT.
Use static NAT.

52 What are two differences between RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
 RIPv1 broadcasts routing updates to 255.255.255.255 while RIPv2 does not.
RIPv1 sends subnet mask information in the routing update but RIPv2 does not.
In contrast to RIPv1, RIPv2 allows the use of discontiguous networks.
RIPv2 is a classful routing protocol while RIPv1 is a classless protocol.
RIPv1 supports an authentication mechanism but RIPv2 does not.

53

Refer to the exhibit. R2 receives the dynamic update R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via
10.1.1.2, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/0.

What will happen to this new routing update?

The update information will be added to the existing routing table.

The update information will replace the existing routing table entry.
The existing routing table entry will be purged from the routing table and all
routers will attempt to converge.
The update information will be ignored and no further action will occur.

54 For security reasons, all OSPF routers in a network have been configured to use
MD5 authentication. Which
three components are required by the authentication algorithm to generate the
encrypted number? (Choose three.)

the key
the key ID
the router ID
the OSPF area
the OSPF packet
the loopback interface

55 What is the function of Inverse ARP in a Frame Relay network?

It maps the IP address to the MAC address.

It maps the MAC address to the DLCI.
It maps the DLCI to the remote IP address.
It maps the local IP address to the remote MAC address.

56 What are three correct host addresses in the 192.168.64.0/18 network? (Choose
three.)

192.168.0.1
192.168.32.1
192.168.82.1
192.168.100.1
 192.168.127.1
192.168.128.1

57

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the command that is shown
in the
exhibit and then issues the show ip route command. The route added by the network
administrator is missing from the routing table. What is the reason for this?

This static route is providing a backup to the existing route to 192.168.1.0 /24.

The route is incorrectly configured.

Dynamic updates are always preferred over static routes.
The FastEthernet0/0 interface is administratively down.

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