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e.g. in a year that had highs and lows and gains and losses, what single
measure describes a “good year”, or a “good manager”?
280
What is a money weighted
rate of return?
This is the average “interest rate”
150
familiar from equations of value.
100
PRICE
(which pays no dividends). The unit price halves 600
over 6 months, and then doubles in another six 400
months (back where it started - see the red line) 200
0
Suppose a fund only invests in the unit trust. It
0 0.5 1
has a holding of 100 at the start of the year and
adds cash of 49 mid-year. 250
200
The 100 at the start of the year shrinks to a 150
CASHFLOWS
holding worth 50 mid-year. The new cash makes 100
a holding of 99. The 99 doubles in value to 198 by 50
the end of the year. (See the blue blocks). 0
-50 0 0.5 1
The average (money weighted return) is 40%, -100
because 100 * 1.40 + 49 * 1.400.5 = 198 282
-150
Why is a money weighted rate of return no use
for benchmarking? (2)
PRICE
600
The 100 at the start of the year shrinks to a
holding worth 50 mid-year. The cash withdrawal 400
leaves a holding of just 1. The 1 doubles in value 200
to 2 by the end of the year 0
0 0.5 1
The average money weighted annual return
100
would be calculated as -72% because
50
100 * (1 – 72%) – 49 * (1 – 72%)0.5 = 2
CASHFLOWS
0
But both funds were invested in the same asset, 0 0.5 1
-50
managed by the same manager. The (different)
MWRRs haven’t measured the return on the -100
asset, and haven’t measured the manager’s 283
performance. -150
What is a time-weighted rate
of return?
This is what the cumulative return on the
fund would have been had there been
1200
no cashflows. See
1000
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/t/tim
e-weightedror.asp 800
PRICE
600
In our example case it is nil. 400
200
The unit price fell and rose. 0
0 0.5 1
Ie the 1 + the total return =
=(1 – 50%) * (1 + 100%) = 1
250
200 -50%
Eliminating all the cashflows in the 150
CASHFLOWS
TWRR calculation requires a lot of data. 100
50
The LIRR gets round this by working out
0
a MWRR for various periods, then
-50 0 0.5 1
chaining the returns together. -100
-150
If we chose periods of a whole year for
100
our example, we’d just get the rather
useless MWRR. 50
CASHFLOWS
0
If we chose periods of half a year, the
LIRR would be nil, for both funds. 0 0.5 1
-50
-100
285
-150
Specimen Q12
286
Specimen Q12
2
1.8
1.6 Rough guess:
1.4
1.2
Cashflow
ignoring 0.2m
1
0.8 Value (cash in), grew
0.6
0.4
from …..to 1.8-0.2 =
0.2
0
1.6 => annual return
J F M A M J J A S O N D about …./1.2 ie 33%
Exact calc: the dates that matter are the start & the end.
Grew from 1.2 to …… in first period
Then grew from (1.4 + …..)= 1.6 to ….. in second period
Overall, grew by factor of 1.4 / 1.2 * 1.8 / ….. in a year
= growth factor of …….. pa ie …….% pa (close to guess?)
287
Specimen Q12
2
1.8
1.6 Rough guess:
1.4
1.2
Cashflow
ignoring 0.2m
1
0.8 Value (cash in), grew
0.6
0.4
from 1.2 to 1.8-0.2 =
0.2
0
1.6 => annual return
J F M A M J J A S O N D about 1.6/1.2 ie 33%
Exact calc: the dates that matter are the start & the end.
Just though investment management,
grew from 1.2 to 1.4 in first period
Then grew from (1.4 + 0.2)= 1.6 to 1.8 in second period
Overall, grew by factor of 1.4 / 1.2 * 1.8 / 1.6 in a year
= growth factor of 1.3125 pa ie 31.25% pa (close to guess)
288
Specimen Q12
Model answer
289
Apr 2000 Q5
290
Apr 2000 Q5
350
300 Rough guess: ignoring cash
250
in, grew
200
150
from 180 to
100 309 – (25+18+16)=…..
50
0 => 3 year return about
1/97 7/97 1/98 7/98 1/99 7/99 1/2000
……/180 ie 39%
Exact calc: Just though investment management,
grew from 180 to ….. in first six months. Over next year,
shrank from ……+25 = 237 to 230. Grew from …….+18 = 248 to 295 in next year.
Shrank from ……..+16= 311 to 309 in last six months.
Growth factor over period = 212/…… * 230/237 * 295/248 * 309/311
= 1.3509 (close to guess) => annual growth factor = 1.3509(……) = 1.105
=> TWRR = ……..% 291
Apr 2000 Q5
350
300 Rough guess: ignoring cash
250
in, grew
200
150
from 180 to
100 309 – (25+18+16)=250
50
0 => 3 year return about
1/97 7/97 1/98 7/98 1/99 7/99 1/2000
250/180 ie 39%
Exact calc: Just though investment management,
grew from 180 to 212 in first six months. Over next year,
shrank from 212+25 = 237 to 230. Grew from 230+18 = 248 to 295 in next year.
Shrank from 295+16= 311 to 309 in last six months.
Growth factor over period = 212/180 * 230/237 * 295/248 * 309/311
= 1.3509 (close to guess) => annual growth factor = 1.3509(1/3) = 1.105
=> TWRR = 10.5% 292
Apr 2000 Q5
Model answer
293
Apr 2001 Q2
294
Apr 2001 Q2
800
700 Rough guess: ignoring cash
600
500 in, 11% pa would increase
400 initial fund from 400 to 400 *
300
200
1.11^3 = …..
100
0 Add cashflows back in
1/98 7/98 1/99 7/99 1/2000 7/2000 1/2001
(without any return),
guess X= …..+ 50+ 40+ 60
Exact calc: Just though investment management,
Total growth factor is = 700
…… / 400 * ……/ (460 + 50) * …… / (500 + 40) * X / (650 + 60)
And total growth factor = 1.11^…. (11% pa TWRR)
800
700 Rough guess: ignoring cash
600
500 in, 11% pa would increase
400 initial fund from 400 to 400 *
300
200
111^3 = 550.
100
0 Add cashflows back in
1/98 7/98 1/99 7/99 1/2000 7/2000 1/2001
(without any return),
guess X= 550+ 50+ 40+ 60
Exact calc: Just though investment management,
Total growth factor is = 700
460 / 400 * 500 / (460 + 50) * 650 / (500 + 40) * X / (650 + 60)
And total growth factor = 1.11^3 (11% pa TWRR)
=> X = £715.5m (a bit more than guess – OK allowing for additional return on cash in) 296
Apr 2001 Q2
Model answer
297
Apr 2003 Q8
298
Apr 2003 Q8(i)a
60
=> Average annual growth factor (just due to management) = TWRR = 1.1647(1/2) – 1 = 7.92% 299
Apr 2003 Q8(i)a
Model answer
300
Apr 2003 Q8(i)b
60
50
Rough guess: will be close to
TWRR. Will be more or less than
40
TWRR?
30
20
Will be slightly less. 2nd half of 2001
was worse (on TWRR measure)
10
than 1st half of 2001. MWRR for
0 2001 is average of frist & second
1/00 7/00 1/01 7/01 1/02
half of year. Average will be more
heavily weighted to (poor) second
Exact calc: half by the extra money that came
MWRR over first year is 43/40 = 1.075 in mid-2001.
MWRR over first year is i: if v = 1 / (1 + i)
Then (43 + 4)(1 + i) + 2(1 + i) (1/2) = 53 ie (1 + i) (1/2) (using quadratic formula) = 1.04085
and so 1 + i = 1.08337.
Hence 1 + LIRR pa = ( 1.075 * 1.08337 ) (1/2) = 1.07918 301
Ie LIRR is just less than TWRR (as guessed)
Apr 2003 Q8(i)b
Abbreviated Model
answer
302
Apr 2003 Q8(ii)
60
50
TWRR will be identical to LIRR
when calculations are identical.
40
30
Model answer
304
Sep 2003 Q2
305
Sep 2003 Q2
Model answer
306
Key question
Get 100% on April 2003 Q8
307
Next session: par yields
END
308