SCOTT & WHITE EMS

EDUCATION

MEDICAL EMERGENCY TECHNICIAN COURSE - BASIC

WRITTEN EXAM

FINAL EXAM

Please do not write your answers in this questionnaire. Use the answer sheet
 6. In understanding reactions to death, the TUM-B
should:
MODULE 1

1. Which of the following is an essential component a. be tolerant of angry reactions

of SMU systems: b. do not offer false assurances
c. offer the most realistic comfort one can
a. medical address give
b. planning for all types of disasters d. all of the above
c. communication via cell phone
7. Express or expressed consent is one that:
d. step response

2. What is the level of preparedness of the person a. assumed to exist when a patient is
who typically initially responds to the scene and unconscious
whose emphasis is on activating the EMS system b. is defined by local protocols for certain
and providing immediate care for life-threatening types of emergencies
injuries:
c. assumed to exist when emergency care is
required
a. First responder
d. obtained from a conscious, competent,
b. TUM-Basic adult patient
c. TUM-Intermediate
d. Health assistant 8. When a patient is informed of the treatment they
require and the associated risks, the TUM-B is
3. Delegating patient care to the TUM-B by a doctor requesting a:
legally responsible for the SM system is known as:

a. informed consent
a. implied consent
b. mutual consent
b. medical address
c. implied consent
c. medical guideline
d. emancipated consent
d. quality improvement
9. Consent based on the theory that the unconscious
4. The orders given to the TUM-B via telephone or patient would have accepted life-saving treatment
radio are known as: is called:

a. “offline” medical direction a. express consent

b. standing order b. mutual consent
c. “online” medical address c. implied consent
d. protocols d. informed consent

5. The family's reactions to a dying patient can be: 10. Treating or touching a person without proper
consent can be considered as:
a. wanting to pray with the patient when
dying a. waiver of consent
b. cry, scream, or release other emotions b. negligence
verbally
c. implied consent
c. wanting to stay with the patient during
resuscitation maneuvers d. assault, assault or abuse

d. all of the above 11. To be considered negligence, all of the following

must be proven except:
 a. between 6 and 8 per minute
a. a duty to act was violated
b. between 8 and 10 per minute
b. an injury was inflicted
c. between 20 and 24 per minute
c. the injury inflicted is life-threatening
d. between 12 and 20 per minute
d. TUM-B's actions caused an injury
18. The use of accessory muscles and nasal flaring are
12. A TUM-B can provide confidential information to: signs of:

a. inform other health professionals and a. normal breathing

continue treatment
b. labored or difficult breathing
b. report incidents required by law such as
c. shallow breathing
sexual abuse and rape
c. comply with a legal requirement
d. noisy breathing

d. all of the above 19. Normally the pupils are of intermediate size. When
you shine a light into the patient's pupil, it:
13. The anatomical term that means “forward” is:
a. dilates
a. former
b. gets bigger
b. later
c. constrains
c. superior
d. stays the same size
d. lower
20. Whenever possible, when carrying a patient down
14. The term “medial” means: stairs, you should:

a. towards the midline a. bend at waist level

b. to the right or left of the midline b. position the patient with the head and
torso in the lowest part
c. to both sides
d. near the reference point
c. place one hand on the handrail
d. use a chair-type stretcher instead of the
15. The leaf-shaped valve that prevents food from stretcher cart
passing into the trachea is called:
21. When you need to push an object:
a. Pharynx
b. epiglottis
a. push from the region between the waist
and shoulders
c. larynx
b. push from a higher position
d. Bronchus
c. keep your elbows extended

16. The left atrium or atrium: d. push from a level below the waist

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a. receives blood from the veins of the body
b. receives blood from the pulmonary veins MODULE 2
c. pumps blood into the lungs
22. Which of the following structures is NOT
d. pumps blood to the body considered part of the respiratory system:

17. The normal respiratory rate of the adult at rest is:

a. mouth
b. windpipe
 c. esophagus
28. Which of the following steps is NOT correct when
d. larynx using the modified maneuver to open the patient's
airway:
23. The structures that branch from the trachea are
called the main, right and left _______________.
a. rest your elbows on the same surface as
the patient is on
a. alveoli
b. stabilize the patient's head with your
b. bronchi forearms
c. cricoid c. tilt the head by applying gentle pressure to
the forehead
d. arterioles
d. use index fingers to push the angles of the
24. Which of the following is a sign of adequate jaw forward
breathing.
29. If the patient's airway contains blood, vomit, or
secretions:
a. bilateral chest expansion
b. abdominal breathing
a. use a suction unit to clear the airway
c. fast frequency immediately
d. all of the above b. the patient will still be able to breathe
adequately
c. use artificial vents to clear the airway
25. Which of the following signs would indicate
inadequate breathing: d. perform a digital scan to remove the
blockage
a. air coming out of the nose or mouth
b. equal expansion of both sides of the chest
30. The proper technique for suctioning the patient's
c. nasal flaring
airway includes:
d. all of the above
a. suction to the deepest part of the airway
26. When using the head tilt and chin lift technique to
open the airway of an unconscious patient, your b. hyperventilate or hyperoxygenate the
hand(s) should be positioned: patient after suctioning
c. force the tip of the aspiration cannula in
a. above the forehead and below the neck as far as possible
b. over the nose, with the digital tips d. apply suction for 20-30 seconds
squeezing it closed, and under the neck continuously
c. on the forehead and nose, with the digital
31. You should not suction the adult patient's airway
tips squeezing it closed
for more than:
d. on the forehead with the digital tips of the
other hand under the jaw
a. 10 seconds

27. Your patient is lying on the ground after falling b. 5 seconds

from a rooftop. Based on the mechanism of injury,
c. 15 seconds
with which method would you open the airway:
d. 12 seconds
a. Head tilt - chin lift
32. Which of the following should be considered an
b. Modified maneuver advantage when using a pocket mask to ventilate
a non-breathing patient:
c. head tilt only
d. head tilt - neck lift
 a. there is no direct contact with the a. warm and dry skin
patient's mouth
b. cyanotic discoloration of the skin
b. oxygen can be connected to the mask
c. symmetrical lung expansion
c. a one-way valve prevents contact with
d. unequal pupils
exhaled air
d. all of the above 38. When ventilating a patient with an oxygen-
powered, flow-restricted ventilation device:
33. When you are ventilating a trauma patient with a
bag-valve-mask device and the modified maneuver:
a. ventilate every 18 seconds

a. it is impossible to avoid tilting the head or

b. look for chest elevation

neck c. avoid using an oropharyngeal cannula

b. lean next to the patient d. all of the above
c. use your ring and little fingers to move
39. When administering mouth-to-stoma ventilation to
your jaw forward
a non-breathing patient, the correct head position
d. the use of airway devices is not required is:

34. Adding oxygen and a reservoir to a bag-valve-mask

a. the same position as when performing
system increases the delivered oxygen
mouth-to-mouth, with the head tilt and
concentration from 21% to about:
chin lift method

a. 70%
b. a neutral position and it is not necessary
to position the airway
b. 90%
c. the same position as when performed
c. 80% mouth to mouth, with the mandibular lift
method
d. 95%
d. the extended position, using the neck lift
35. When two TUMs are ventilating a patient with a method
bag-valve-mask:

40. To select the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal

a. one squeezes the bag while the other
cannula, measure from:
maintains the seal of the mask
b. one squeezes the bag and the other listens
a. the corner of the mouth to the tip of the
for breathing sounds with ventilations
earlobe
c. one squeezes the bag while the other
b. nose to tip of earlobe
applies cricoid pressure
d. both squeeze the bag to maximize oxygen
c. the corner of the mouth to the nose

delivery d. the nose to the tip of the chin

36. The most reliable sign that your patient is being 41. If a gag reflex occurs when inserting an
adequately ventilated with a bag-valve-mask is: oropharyngeal cannula into a patient, you should:

a. raising the patient's abdomen a. attempt reinsertion of the cannula

b. raising the patient's chest b. remove the cannula
c. the patient's pupillary reaction c. restrain the patient and keep the cannula
in position
d. that the patient regains consciousness
d. contact medical control to receive
37. Signs that indicate your patient is not being instructions
adequately ventilated include:
42. The technique for inserting a nasopharyngeal
cannula includes: 47. A non-recirculating reservoir mask with
appropriate oxygen flow can deliver a maximum
oxygen concentration of:
a. lubricate the cannula with a petroleum-
based jelly
b. only use transparent and rigid plastic
a. 40 to 50%

cannulas b. 60 to 70%
c. keep the patient's head in a neutral c. 80 to 95%
position
d. 20 to 30%
d. place the bevel of the cannula towards the
nasal septum 48. You should use a nasal cannula to administer
oxygen only if:
43. To select the appropriate size nasopharyngeal
cannula for your patient, you must measure:
a. your patient requires a high concentration
of O2
a. from the corner of the mouth to the angle
b. your patient cannot tolerate a mask
of the jaw
b. from the earlobe to the corner of the jaw
c. your patient suffers from chest pain

c. from the tip of the nose to the earlobe

d. your patient is unconscious

d. from the chin to the “Adam's apple” 49. The oxygen flow through a nasal cannula should
not exceed:
44. An oxygen cylinder when full maintains a pressure
of:
a. 1-2 liters per minute

a. about 2,000 pounds per square inch (psi)

b. 2-3 liters per minute

b. about 1,200 pounds per square inch (psi)

c. 4-6 liters per minute

c. about 1,500 pounds per square inch (psi)

d. 3-5 liters per minute

d. about 3,200 pounds per square inch (psi) 50. When opening an infant's airway, you should:

45. Oxygen cylinders are usually metallic green or:

a. move your head so that it is tilted back

a. red “fire truck”

b. move the head so that it is flexed forward

b. aluminum gray
c. do not move your head

c. lemon yellow
d. move head to a “sniffing” position

d. robin's egg blue -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

46. You are treating a patient with severely MODULE 3

inadequate breathing. To administer the highest
concentration of oxygen, the following should be 51. During scene assessment, the TUM-B must identify
used: all of the following EXCEPT:

a. a nasal cannula at a flow of 6 liters per a. possible harm to him, other team
minute members, patients and bystanders.
b. a nasal cannula at a flow of 15 liters per b. the reason why the emergency team was
minute called to the scene.
c. a mask with a non-recirculating reservoir c. injuries that threaten the patient's life.
at a flow of 6 liters per minute
d. the need for additional help.
d. a mask with a non-recirculating reservoir
at a flow of 15 liters per minute
52. Among the external signs of vehicle impact that
a. Focus your assessment on the patient's
the TUM-B must look for and document at the
neck.
scene of a car crash are:
b. performing a rapid trauma assessment.
a. vehicle deformity greater than 25 cm. c. focusing their evaluation on the patient's
neck and spine.
b. displacement of the vehicle axle.
c. deformity of the front or rear bumper.
d. moving the patient to the ambulance
before fully evaluating the patient.
d. all of the above.
57. You have restrained a 66-year-old male patient
53. A 32-year-old female patient complains of leg pain. who is unconscious after a vehicle rollover. When
Be alert and oriented with 16 breaths. There are no you put him in the ambulance, what is done is:
obvious injuries visible to the naked eye. What
should you do next?:
a. make a SAMPLE history

a. request additional resources

b. take the patient's blood pressure

b. start oxygen at high concentration

c. reassess the patient's mental status

c. evaluate the leg

d. consider requesting advanced life support

d. continue initial evaluation 58. The mnemonic “DCAP-BLS” helps you remember:

54. You treat a 74-year-old man who is collapsing at

a. trauma patient's vital signs
home. Doesn't respond. He has respirations of 6
per minute. What should you do first? : b. what to look for when inspecting and
palpating the patient
a. start oxygen at high concentration and c. the patient's medications, allergies, and
evaluate circulation medical history
b. give two breaths and assess mental status d. the order of evaluation of the patient
during the detailed examination
c. move him to the ambulance and start high
concentration oxygen
59. 40-year-old male patient who crashed on his
d. give ventilation with a bag-valve-mask and motorcycle. He complains of pain in his right leg.
100% oxygen When evaluating the leg, you should palpate for:

55. You treat a 28-year-old female who fell from a

a. sensitivity
height of 6 meters while repairing the roof of a
house. After determining that you are b. distension
unresponsive, you must immediately:
c. bilateral softness

a. open your airway with a head tilt and chin

d. muscular stiffness

lift maneuver
60. While performing the focused physical
b. apply in-line stabilization and open your examination, your trauma patient begins to
airway breathe rapidly. You must :
c. start high concentration oxygen with non-
recirculating mask a. take note (mentally) and continue with the
physical exam
d. open your airway and start high
concentration oxygen b. stop your exam and give appropriate
treatment
c. reevaluate it starting from the head
56. You arrive at the scene of a vehicle crash. The
driver is a conscious 18-year-old male who d. reassess the mechanism of injury
complains of pain in his neck. The passenger has
died. You must proceed:
61. Your patient complains of chest pain. He has no
previous history of this type of pain. Which of the MODULE 4
following questions should you ask? :
66. A 32-year-old woman has amputated her index
finger in an accident with a saw. You have
a. Is your pain crushing and heavy?
bandaged your hand. The best way to transport the
b. Is it a dull pain you feel? amputated finger is:
c. How would you describe your pain?
d. All of the above
a. placing finger directly on ice
b. wrapping the finger tightly in an occlusive
62. During the evaluation of a responding medical dressing
patient, you use the mnemonic “OPQRST.” What
c. placing the finger directly in saline
does the “P” mean? :
solution

a. symptom provocation
d. wrapping the finger in gauze, placing it in
a plastic bag and keeping it as cool as
b. pulse possible
c. previous relevant illnesses
67. A 54-year-old man has been involved in a car
d. pain accident. The glass fragments have caused an
open neck injury. You must cover this injury with:
63. A 63-year-old male complains of general weakness,
nausea and vomiting. The mechanism of injury is
a. an occlusive dressing
unknown. During the detailed physical
examination, you inspect and palpate for firmness b. a sterile gauze covering
and distension of:
c. a covering of moistened gauze

a. The thorax
d. butterfly bandages

b. The abdomen 68. If bleeding from an open wound cannot be

controlled by direct pressure and elevation, you
c. the posterior region
should use a:
d. pelvis
a. tourniquet

64. Young female who fell from a tractor while b. pressure point
plowing. Doesn't respond. During the detailed
c. occlusive dressing
physical examination you should look for drainage
of clear fluid from: d. ice pack

69. Your patient has an open chest wound caused by a

a. the ears
knife. Management should include all of the
b. The abdomen following EXCEPT:
c. The thorax
d. the eyes
a. high oxygen concentration
b. wound sealing with occlusive dressing
65. 18-year-old male patient who fell from a jet-ski at
c. a comfortable position if there is no spinal
high speed. Reply. You should evaluate the ears
injury
for:
d. wash the wound with saline solution
a. hearing ability (respected hearing)
70. A 23-year-old patient was the victim of a car
b. any fluid drainage accident and presented with an open abdominal
injury with protruding intestines. Your wound
c. blood
treatment will include:
d. all of the above
a. return the intestine to its place
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 b. keep the patient's arms straight d. brain damage
c. cover the exposed intestine with a sterile
76. When treating a patient in a motor vehicle
compress moistened with saline solution
accident, you may discontinue manual
d. cover the intestine with dry sterile gauze immobilization of the head and neck when the
before transport patient:
a. a rigid cervical collar has been applied
71. A full thickness burn involving more than 10% of
the body surface is classified as: b. be immobilized on a long spinal board
c. be removed from the vehicle
a. slight burn
d. arrive at the hospital emergency room
b. moderate burn
77. When determining the size of a cervical
c. critical burn
immobilization collar, measure between
d. circumferential burn
a. shoulder and earlobe
72. A superficial burn is characterized by:
a. blackish charred areas
b. the seventh cervical vertebra to the chin

b. blisters
c. shoulder and chin

c. redness of the skin

d. shoulder and tip of head

d. absence of pain 78. When lateralizing a patient towards a long plank,

the TUM in charge of the indications is the one
73. You are treating a 24-year-old female who emptied found in:
an alkaline drain cleaner on her forearm. The
product has been washed but the limb is still
a. head
painful, red and blistered. This burn should be
classified as: b. The thorax
c. pelvis
a. partial thickness
d. the feet
b. severe
79. A sucking chest wound must be treated quickly,
c. surface thickness
because it can progress to a life-threatening
d. Total thickness condition called:

74. Your patient has been exposed to an unknown

a. unstable segment
chemical that wet his or her clothing. You should
immediately wash the patient with: b. hemothorax
c. pericardial tamponade
a. water
d. tension pneumothorax
b. a neutralizing solution
c. vinegar
d. a solution with baking soda 80. Cushing's triad is:

75. The main problem caused by electrical shock is

a. Hypotension hyperventilation
generally not a burn. The most severe problem to
bradycardia
consider is:
b. Hypertension altered ventilatory
pattern tachycardia
a. shock
b. hypothermia
c. Hypotension ventilation of
cheyenne stoke bradycardia
c. heart attack
 d. Hypertension altered ventilatory d. None of the above.
pattern bradycardia
86. Children with respiratory distress may have “see-
81. Immediate treatment of an open chest injury saw” breathing. This type of breathing occurs
should include: when:

a. seal the wound with a gloved hand a. The child breathes through the nose and
then through the mouth.
b. cover the wound with plastic wrap or bags
c. Seal the wound with 7.5 cm adhesive
b. Chest and abdomen move in opposite
directions
cloth. Wide
d. place your gloved finger on the wound
c. The muscles pull between the ribs inward
and then push outward.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- d. The muscles above the collarbones pull in
and then push out.
MODULE 5 A
87. Your patient complains of chest pain. He has a
82. The three medications that you will bring on board weak, thready pulse of 140 beats per minute. His
the ambulance are: respirations are 15 per minute. You must
immediately:
a. lidocaine, naloxone (Narcanti) and
atropine. a. administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
b. activated carbon, oral glucose and oxygen. b. administer oxygen through a non-
recirculating mask.
c. diazepam, ibuprofen and 50% dextrose.
d. prescribed inhalers, nitroglycerin and
c. Give positive pressure ventilations and
supplemental oxygen.
epinephrine.
d. give nitroglycerin.
83. You can help the patient to take:
88. An important consideration in the management of
any patient with chest pain is that you can:
a. Prescribed medications of any kind.
b. medications for HTN.
a. deteriorate to cardiac arrest.
c. medications for heart rhythm disorders.
b. need automatic external defibrillation.
d. medications to control depression.
c. require positive pressure ventilation.

84. 6-year-old female complaining of respiratory d. need administration of oxygen and chest
distress. Which of the following signs and compressions.
symptoms would help you verify this condition? :
89. When treating patients with cardiac involvement,
you must be prepared to:
a. respiratory rate of 26 per minute
b. the chest moves down while the abdomen
a. require the help of a First Responder.
moves up
c. bilateral chest expansion
b. transport them before starting CPR.

d. pink mucous membranes

c. Provide CPR before administering
nitroglycerin.
85. Very rapid breathing can lead to: d. request advanced life support and initiate
transport early.
a. little air entering the lungs.
90. The automated external defibrillator (AED)
b. too much air entering the lungs. provides a strong electrical shock that can injure
those who come into contact with it. To prevent
c. provide too much oxygen to the entire
body.
 these discharges, all of the following procedures
a. under the patient's tongue.
are appropriate EXCEPT:
b. between the cheek and the gum.
a. No one should be in contact with the c. on the roof of the mouth.
patient during the shock administration
d. on the patient's tongue.
rhythm analysis.
b. The AED should not be used on a
pacemaker. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c. The DAE must be replaced every year.
MODULE 5 B
d. Any medication patch the patient is
wearing should be removed. 96. Epinephrine mimics the responses of the
sympathetic nervous system, doing all of the
following EXCEPT:
91. Which of the following is a sign or symptom
a. Improves BP
associated with a diabetic emergency?:
b. Relaxes smooth muscle in the lungs
a. energetic appearance c. Reverses edema and hives
b. alert and oriented d. Decreases heart rate
c. appearance of intoxication
97. Your patient suffers from shortness of breath and
d. flushed and shiny skin wheezing after eating at an Asian restaurant. His
respiratory rate is 32 and shallow, and he is
beginning to become cyanotic. Your next step will
92. In patients with suspected diabetes, the following be:
question should be asked:
a. Provide vents with a BVM device
a. When did you eat your last meal?
b. Apply O2 with a non-recirculating BR mask
b. Who is your treating doctor?
c. Administer adrenaline immediately
c. Do you have chest pain?
d. Contact medical management
d. Does it hurt when you breathe in?
98. 23-year-old female with a history of allergies to
93. Young, alert male patient with rapid, weak pulse. bee stings. She complains of respiratory distress
Your skin is warm and dry. Breaths are fast and after being stung by a wasp. She has a prescribed
deep. Has acetone breath. Can have : epinephrine auto-injector. Your next step will be:

a. a diabetic emergency a. Administer oxygen and transport

b. congestive heart failure b. Identify the insect that bit you
c. chronic bronchitis c. Administer oxygen and assist the patient
with the auto injector
d. a widespread cold emergency
d. Perform continuous evaluation and
94. Altered mental status is typically caused by all of administer oxygen
the following EXCEPT:
99. Your patient has spilled liquid ammonium in his
eyes. What treatment should you provide next? :
a. decreased oxygen levels
b. decreased sugar level
a. Irrigate with clean water
c. infection
b. Transport
d. chest pain
c. Dilute with water and vinegar

95. Glucose is administered by placing the gel: d. Irrigate with weak acid solution
100. 7-year-old female who ingested drain
d. Elevate the mother's hips to reduce
cleaner. He has burns in his mouth. Your breathing
pressure on the cord
is adequate. Treatment includes all of the
following EXCEPT
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a. Rinse the patient's lips and mouth MODULE 6

b. Maintain a patent airway
105. A 4-year-old male patient who responds
c. Call medical management has swallowed a marble, causing complete
obstruction of his airway. Immediate treatment
d. Administer activated charcoal
should include:
101. What is the usual dose of activated
charcoal for a 5-year-old child?: a. CPR
b. Oxygen with non-recirculating mask
a. 50 grams
c. Back blows and chest compressions
b. 1 gram per kilogram of body weight
d. abdominal thrusts
c. 12.5 grams per kilogram of body weight
106. You treat a 10-month-old female Px. He
d. 25 to 50 grams
has swallowed a piece of sausage which has
caused an airway obstruction. Treatment should
102. Which of the following is an effect of
include:
activated charcoal?:

a. Causes the patient to vomit the poison

a. Back blows and chest compressions

b. Acts as an antidote during poison

b. blind digital scanning to try to remove the
object
ingestion
c. Dilutes poisons
c. high concentration oxygen with non-
recirculating mask
d. Prevents the absorption of some poisons
d. ventilation with bag-valve-mask and
oxygen
103. A newborn is breathing at 48 breaths per
minute and the pulse is 110. You notice facial
107. Signs and symptoms of shock
cyanosis. You must administer oxygen:
(hypoperfusion) in children include:

a. With a pediatric nasal cannula with 10 to

a. extremely decreased respiratory rate
15 bpm
b. At 10-15 bpm with an oxygen tube near the
b. increased urine production

neonate's nose c. excessive tear production

c. With a pediatric mask at 10-15 bpm d. cold and clammy skin
d. Using a bag-valve-mask at 60-80 breaths
108. Because the infant has less circulating
per minute
blood volume than the adult:
104. At the beginning of labor you notice that a. minimal blood loss compared to massive
your cord is prolapsed. You must do all of the hemorrhage in an adult is just as serious
following EXCEPT:
b. bleeding must be stopped with a
tourniquet
a. Insert several gloved fingers into the
c. respiratory rate is slower than in adults
vagina and push on the part where the
fetus is presented d. heart rate is slower than in adults
b. Give O2 to the mother
109. One of the most reliable signs of early
c. Cover the cord with a sterile towel hypoperfusion in a child under 2 years of age is:
 a. lowering blood pressure d. a way to make driving the vehicle easier
b. the presence of strong peripheral pulses
115. The role of the TUM during extraction is to:
c. delayed capillary refill
d. excessive tear production a. stabilize the vehicle
b. attend the pacient
110. In infants and children, the main cause of
cardiac arrest is: c. manage and direct the scene
d. None of the above
a. shock
116. A car crashed into a tank car with highly
b. respiratory failure
flammable material. A patient is found with his
c. hypothermia legs trapped under the dashboard in the passenger
seat. Once released, the removal method to use is:
d. seizures

111. 10-month-old female who has suffered a a. the rapid descent

febrile seizure. These types of seizures are usually
b. the use of a restraint device (KED)
caused by:
c. quick extraction
a. cranial injuries d. complete immobilization on a long board
b. epilepsy
c. rapid rising fever 117. When a car hits an electrical source, you
should:
d. respiratory failure

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- a . ignore it, since an underground source does

not represent a danger
MODULE 7
b. Instruct the patient to stay in the car until the
power goes off.
112. To begin the transfer of a patient in a
situation of multiple victims, care is provided in:
c. approach and turn off the vehicle immediately
a. The red zone d. Contact the electricity company and
immediately begin evaluating the patient.
b. The yellow zone
c. The blue zone 118. The unsafe behavior that contributes to
the majority of injuries in multi-vehicle accident
d. The green Zone
scenarios is a lack of:
113. To use the siren the TUM-B must:
a. elimination or control of hazards
a. turn it on until you get to the hospital b. protective equipment during rescue
operations
b. never assume that all people hear it
c. turn off any other emergency signs
c. recognition of the mechanism of injury

d. all of the above

d. selection of the appropriate tool for the
maneuver
114. The use of escort vehicles during
119. The removal of the rear window of a
emergency response is generally:
crashed car to allow entry and evaluation of the
patient is an example of:
a. a very quick way to answer a call
a. disentanglement
b. a more dangerous way to respond
b. stabilization
c. a way to reduce the risk of a collision
c. obtaining access
 b. explosives and other dangerous materials
d. extraction
within 15 km
c. ability to protect the patient from others on the
120. Examples of emergency mobilization
scene
situations include:
d. Any scene that puts personnel or the injured at
to. fire or fire danger two blocks away
risk
 ANSWERS PAPER
TECHNICIAN COURSE IN MEDICAL EMERGENCIES - BASIC LEVEL
FINAL EXAM

Name Date ____________

Fill in the correct answer

Ask Answer Ask Answer

1. abcd 26. abcd
2. abcd 27. abcd
3. abcd 28. abcd
4. abcd 29. abcd
5. abcd 30. abcd
6. abcd 31. abcd
7. abcd 32. abcd
8. abcd 33. abcd
9. abcd 34. abcd
10. abcd 35. abcd
11. abcd 36. abcd
12. abcd 37. abcd
13. abcd 38. abcd
14. abcd 39. abcd
15. abcd 40. abcd
16. abcd 41. abcd
17. abcd 42. abcd
18. abcd 43. abcd
19. abcd 44. abcd
20. abcd 45. abcd
21. abcd 46. abcd
22. abcd 47. abcd
23. abcd 48. abcd
24. abcd 49. abcd
25. abcd 50. abcd

Ask Answer Ask Answer

51. abcd 76. abcd
52. abcd 77. abcd
53. abcd 78. abcd
54. abcd 79. abcd
55. abcd 80. abcd
56. abcd 81. abcd
57. abcd 82. abcd
58. abcd 83. abcd
59. abcd 84. abcd
60. abcd 85. abcd
61. abcd 86. abcd
62. abcd 87. abcd
63. abcd 88. abcd
64. abcd 89. abcd
65. abcd 90. abcd
66. abcd 91. abcd
67. abcd 92. abcd
68. abcd 93. abcd
69. abcd 94. abcd
70. abcd 95. abcd
71. abcd 96. abcd
72. abcd 97. abcd
73. abcd 98. abcd
74. abcd 99. abcd
75. abcd 100. abcd

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101. abcd 111. abcd
102. abcd 112. abcd
103. abcd 113. abcd
104. abcd 114. abcd
105. abcd 115. abcd
106. abcd 116. abcd
107. abcd 117. abcd
108. abcd 118. abcd
109. abcd 119. abcd
110. abcd 120. abcd