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Unique identification project was initially conceived by the Planning Commission as an initiative that would provide identification for each resident across the country and would be used primarily as the basis for efficient delivery of welfare services. It would also act as a tool for effective monitoring of various programs and schemes of the Government. a) The concept of a unique identification was first discussed and worked upon since 2006 when administrative approval for the project "Unique ID for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families" was given on 03 March 2006 by the Department of Information Technology, Ministry of Communications and Information Technology. This project was to be implemented by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) over a period of 12 months. Subsequently, a Processes Committee to suggest processes for updation, modification, addition and deletion of data fields from the core database to be created under the Unique ID for below BPL project was set up on 03 July 2006. This was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Virmani, Principal Adviser, Planning Commission. b) A "Strategic Vision on the UIDAI Project" was prepared and submitted to this Committee by M/S Wipro Ltd (Consultant for the design phase and program management phase of the Pilot UIDAI project). It envisaged the close linkage that the UIDAI would have to the electoral database. The Committee also appreciated the need of a UIDAI Authority to be created by an executive order under the aegis of the Planning Commission to ensure a pan-departmental and neutral identity for the authority and at the same time enable a focused approach to attaining the goals set for the XI Plan. The Seventh Meeting of the Process Committee on 30 August 2007 decided to furnish to the Planning commission a detailed proposal based on the resource model for seeking its "in principle" approval. c) At the same time, the Registrar General of India was engaged in the creation of the National Population Register and issuance of Multi-purpose National Identity Cards to citizens of India. d) Therefore, it was decided, with the approval of the Prime Minister, to constitute an empowered group of Ministers (EGoM) to collate the two schemes the National Population Register under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Unique Identification Number project

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of the Department of Information Technology. The EGoM was also empowered to look into the methodology and specific milestones for early and effective completion of the Project and take a final view on these. The EGoM was constituted on 04 December 2006. The first meeting of the EGoM was held on 27 November 2007. It recognised the need for creating an identity related resident database, regardless of whether the database is created based on a de-novo collection of individual data or is based on already existing data such as the voter list, there is a crucial and imperative need to identify and establish an institutional mechanism that will "own" the database and will be responsible for its maintenance and updating on an ongoing basis post its creation. The second meeting of the EGoM was held on 28 January 2008. It decided on the strategy for the collation of NPR and UIDAI. Inter-alia, the proposal to establish UIDAI Authority under the Planning Commission was approved. The third meeting of the EGoM was held on 07 August 2008. The Planning Commission had placed before the EGoM a detailed proposal for setting up UIDAI. The meeting decided that certain issues raised by the members with relation to the UIDAI (Annexure to the EGoM meeting proceedings) would need to be examined by an official level committee. It referred the matter to a Committee of Secretaries to examine and give its recommendations to the EGoM to facilitate a final decision.
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Subsequent to the Committee of Secretaries recommendations, the fourth meeting of the EGoM was held on 04 November 2008. The recommendations of the Committee of Secretaries were presented to the EGoM and the following decisions were taken. a) Initially the UIDAI may be notified as an executive authority and investing it with statutory authority could be taken up for consideration later at an appropriate time. b) UIDAI may limit its activities to creation of the initial database from the electoral roll/EPIC data. UIDAI may however additionally issue instructions to agencies that undertake creation of databases to ensure standardization of data elements. c) UIDAI will take its own decision as to how to build the database. d) UIDAI would be anchored in the Planning Commission for five years after which a view would be taken as to where the UIDAI would be located within Government. e) Constitution of the UIDAI with a core team of 10 personnel at the central level and directed the Planning Commission to separately place a detailed proposal with the complete structure, rest of staff and organizational structure of UIDAI before the Cabinet Secretary for his consideration prior to seeking approval under normal procedure through the DoE/CCEA. f) Approval to the constitution of the State UIDAI Authorities simultaneously with the Central UIDAI with a core team of 3 personnel. g) December 2009 was given as the target date for UIDAI to be made available for usage by an initial set of authorized users. h) Prior to seeking approval for the complete organizational structure and full component of staff through DoE and CCEA as per existing procedure, the Cabinet Secretary should convene a meeting to finalize the detailed organizational structure, staff and

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other requirements. 1.1: Subsequently, on 22 January 2009 the Cabinet Secretary in pursuance of the decisions of the Empowered Group of Ministers considered the proposal submitted by the Department of Information Technology regarding the governance structure and recommended that a) The notification for constitution of the UIDAI should be issued immediately. b) A High Level Advisory, Monitoring and Review Committee headed by Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission to be constituted to oversee the work of the authority. c) A Member, Planning Commission or the Secretary, Planning Commission may also be assigned the task of looking after the work proposed for the Chief UIDAI Commissioner. d) Core Team to be put in place. 1.2: In pursuance of the Empowered group of Ministers' fourth meeting dated 04 November 2008, the Unique Identification Authority of India was constituted and notified by the Planning Commission on 28 January 2009 as an attached office under the aegis of Planning Commission with an initial core team of 115 officials. The role and responsibilities of the UIDAI was laid down in this notification. The UIDAI was given the responsibility to lay down plan and policies to implement UIDAI scheme and shall own and operate the UIDAI database and be responsible for its updation and maintenance on an ongoing basis. Concept
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Aadhaar: The UID brand The brand name of the Unique Identification number (UID) will be Aadhaar. The name and logo for the unique numbers to be issued by the UIDAI have been developed keeping in mind the transformational potential of the program. Together, they communicate the essence and spirit of the UIDAI's mandate to people across the country. The UIDAI's mandate is to issue every resident a unique identification number linked to the resident's demographic and biometric information, which they can use to identify themselves anywhere in India, and to access a host of benefits and services. The number (referred to until now as the 'UID') has been named Aadhaar, which translates into 'foundation', or 'support'. This word is present across most Indian languages and can therefore be used in branding and communication of the UIDAI program across the country. As Mr. Nandan Nilekani, Chairman of the UIDAI notes, "The name Aadhaar communicates the fundamental role of the number issued by the UIDAI the number as a universal identity infrastructure, a foundation over which public and private agencies can build services and applications that benefit residents across India." Aadhaar's guarantee of uniqueness and centralised, online identity verification would be the basis for building these multiple services and applications, and facilitating greater connectivity to markets Aadhaar would also give any resident the ability to access these services and resources, anytime, anywhere in the country Aadhaar can for example, provide the identity infrastructure for ensuring financial inclusion across the country banks can link the unique number to a bank account for every resident, and use the online identity authentication to allow residents to access the account from anywhere in the country Aadhaar would also be a foundation for the effective enforcement of

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individual rights. A clear registration and recognition of the individual's identity with the state is necessary to implement their rights to employment, education, food, etc. The number, by ensuring such registration and recognition of individuals, would help the state deliver these rights. The Logo The design, which has been selected as the logo for Aadhaar, is a sun in red and yellow, with a fingerprint traced across its centre. The logo effectively communicates the vision for Aadhaar. It represents a new dawn of equal opportunity for each individual, a dawn which emerges from the unique identity the number guarantees for each individual. You might also like:

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1. Consider the following with respect to the Union of India: A. Formation of the State of Nagaland. B. States Reorganization Act. C. Formation of the State of Haryana. D. Formation of the State of Gujarat. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above? (a) D, B, C, A (b) B, D, C, A (c) D, B, A, C (d) B, D, A, C Ans. (d) 2. Consider the following pairs in respect of the General Elections 2004 to the 14th Lok Sabha: A. Constituencies for : 80% (Approximately), of the total 543 seats General Candidates: B. Constituencies reserved for : 13.33% (Approximately), of the total 543 seats Scheduled Castes Candidates C. Constituencies reserved for : 6.66% (Approximately), of the total 543 seats Scheduled Tribe Candidates Which of the above pairs is/are not correctly matched? (a) A only (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) A, B and C Ans. (d) 3. The judgment in the S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India case pertained broadly to which Article of the Constitution of India? (a) Article 29 (b) Article 32 (c) Article 353 (d) Article 356 Ans. (d) 4. Consider the following statements: A. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted under the Constitution (Eighty -ninth Amendment) Act. B. The first National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted on October 2, 2000. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B Ans. (d) 5. What is the minimum population below which Panchayats at the intermediate level are not constituted as per provision of the Constitution (Seventy-third

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Amendment) Act? (a) 20 lakh (b) 25 lakh (c) 30 lakh (d) 35 lakh Ans. (a) 6. Consider the following statements: A. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at district level is elected in such manner as the Legislature of the State may, by law, provide. B. Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for representation of members of the Legislative Assembly of the State representing constituencies which comprise wholly or partly a Panchayat area at a level other than the village level, in such Panchayat. C. The Lok Sabha may, by law, provide for the representation of its members representing constituencies which comprise wholly or partly a Panchayat area at a level other than the village level, in such Panchayat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) A and B (b) B only (c) C only (d) B and C Ans. (b) 7. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List- I List-II (Subject in the (Similarity with which Constitution of India) other Constitution) A. Provisions relating to Emergencies 1. American Constitution B. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Constitution of the German Reich C. Fundamental Rights 3. United Kingdom D. Parliamentary System Government of 4. Constitution of Eire Code: ABCD (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 42 1 3 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 4 2 3 1 Ans. (c) 8. Who among the following was not a member of the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000? (a) Soli J. Sorabjee (b).C. R. Irani (d) P A. Sangma (d) Sonmath Chatterjee Ans. (d) 9. Which of the following were the main areas of concern for the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000? A. Electoral Reforms. B. Union-State Relations. C. Enlargement of Fundamental Rights. D. Administrative System and Standards in Public Life. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) A and B (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) A, B, C and D

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Ans. (d) The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the Assertion A and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly: Codes: (a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 10. Assertion (A): The Commission on Centre-State Relations has been constituted by the Government of India by amending the Constitution of India, and thus a constitutional status has been bestowed on it. Reason (R): Issues like role of Governors, economic and social planning which are a part of the terms of reference of the Commission are very important issues in the governance of India. Ans. (d) 11. Assertion (A) : Not contented with merely laying down the fundamental principles of governance, the authors of the Indian Constitution followed the Government of India Act, 1919 in providing matters of administrative details. Reason (R): The authors of the Indian Constitution had the apprehension that in the prevailing conditions of the country at that time, the Constitution might be subverted unless the form of administration was also included. Ans. (d) 12. Consider the following commissions: A. Kaka Kalelkar Commission on Backward Classes. B. Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations. C. Shah Commission on emergency excesses. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above? (a) B, C, A (b) A, B, C (c) B, A, C (d) A, C, B Ans. (d) 13. Consider the following statements: A. The first National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled was constituted in the year 1992. B. The First National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was constituted under the Constitution (Sixty-fifth Amendment) Act. C. H. Hanumanthappa was the Chairman of the first National Commission for Scheduled castes and Scheduled Tribes. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) A and B (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) A, B and C Ans. (a) 14. Which of the following terms was not included in a Union of Trinity by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly? (a) Liberty (b) Flexibility (c) Equality (d) Fraternity Ans. (b) 15. In which one of the following countries, do units of the federation not have equal representation in the Upper House of the Central Legislature?

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(a) India (b) Switzerland (c) Australia (d) United States of America Ans. (a) 16. In the United States of America, who among the following uses/use filibuster? (a) The Congress to pressurize the President (b) The President to prevent the introduction of a bill in the Congress (c) Members of the Senate to obstruct the passage of a bill (d) Employers to break up an employees strike Ans. (c) 17. Who among the following is vested with power to recall or remove officials such as the President and the Vice-President of peoples Republic of China? (a) The Standing Committee of the National Peoples Congress (b) Chairman of the Central Military Commission (c) The National Peoples Congress (d) The President of the Supreme Peoples Court Ans. (c) 18. The President of South Africa is elected by whom among the following? (a) National Assembly (b)National Assembly and National Council of Provinces (c) President of Constitutional Court (d) Citizens of the country in a direct election Ans. (a) 19. Regional devolution in Britain falls short of federalism because of the supremacy of which one of the following? (a) British Constitution (b) British Parliament (c) British Supreme Court (d) European Commission Ans.(b) 20. According to the Conservatives, the British Parliamentary institutions cannot be transplanted into India for which of the following reasons? (a) These institutions are the cultural expressions of British society (b) India is a homogeneous society conducive to a Presidential System of Government (c) A bi-party system is absolutely necessary for the effective functioning of British Parliamentary System (d) The role of British Monarch is critical for the smooth functioning of its parliamentary institutions Ans. (a) 21. Who among the following has/have identified rule-making, rule application and rule adjudication as three authoritative governmental functions? (a) Almond and Coleman (b) Robert Dahl (c) Harold J. Laswell (d) David Easton Ans. (a) 22. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) Structural functional approach : Bosanquet (b) Behavioral approach : Charles Merriam (c) Conflict approach : Seymour Lipset (d) Marxist approach : Jacques Derrida Ans. (b)

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23. Partial responsible governments in the provinces had been established under which one of the following Acts? (a) The Government of India Act, 1919 (b) The Government of India Act, 1935 (c) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (d) Indian Councils Act, 1892 Ans. (a) 24. According to the Cabinet Mission Plan, which one of the following was the method of electing the Constituent Assembly? (a) Universal Adult Franchise (b) Partly elected by the Provincial Assemblies and partly nominated by the Governor-General (c) Nominated by the Princely States (d) Partly elected by the Provincial Assemblies and partly nominated by the Princes Ans.(d) 25. What were the salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935? A. Provincial Autonomy. B. Dyarchy at the Centre. C. Abolition of Dyarchy in the States. D. Retention of Excluded Areas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) B and C (b) A, B and D (c) A, C and D (d) A, B, C and D Ans. (d) 26. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State for which of the following? A. To secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. B. Separation of judiciary from executive. C. To improve public health. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) A and B (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) A, B and C Ans. (d) 27. Which of the following is not included in Article 19 of the Constitution of India, pertaining to the Right to freedom? (a) Right to reside and settle any part of the territory of India (b) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (c) Right to form associations of unions (d) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms Ans. (b) 28. Which one of the following writs is issued by the courts for release of a person unlawfully detained? (a) Qua Warranto (b) Prohibition (c) Habeas Ct (d) Certiorari Ans. (c) 29. Which one of following is not correctly matched? Subject Article of the Constitution of India (a) Abolition of Untouchability Article 17 (b) Reservation of appointments Article 16(4) or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens (c) Prohibition of discrimination Article 18 on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (d) Laws inconsistent with or in Article 13 derogation of the fundamental rights Ans. (c)

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30. What is the main object of protective discrimination? (a) To give special advantage to a particular group (b) To raise a disadvantaged group to a level where they can compete with other sections of society on equal footing (c) To give financial assistance to the poor (d) To promote class interest Axis. (b) 31. Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to make effective provision for securing the Right to work? (a) Article 16 (b) Article 38 (c) Article 41 (d) Article 43 Ans. (c) 32. Before giving any decision on questions as to disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament, the President of India shall obtain the opinion of which one of the following? (a) Supreme Court (b) Election Commission (c) Attorney-General of India (d) Solicitor-General of India Ans. (b) 33. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Proclamation of Emergency in a State under Article 356 can continue beyond one year if: (a) The High Court of the State certifies that the situation in the State in very serious (b) The Governor of the State certifies that the law and order situation is not under control (c) The Election Commission certifies that it is difficult to hold elections to the Assembly (d)The President is satisfied about the grave situation in the State through independent investigation Ans. (c) 34. Consider the following statements: A. No Proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President of India unless the Union Ministers of Cabinet rank, headed by the Prime Minister, recommended to him, in writing, that such, a Proclamation should be issued. B. The President of India must issue a Proclamation of Revocation of Emergency ar time that the Lok Sabha passes a resolution .disapproving the proclamation or its continuance. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B Ans.(c) 35. Which of the following statements dose not reflect the jurisdiction of the Committee on Estimates? (a) It suggests alternative policies in order to bring efficiency and economy in administration (b) It examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates (c) It suggests the form in which estimates are to be presented to Parliament (d) It helps in checking Governmental extravagance in making demands as its report is debated in the Houses Arts. (d) 36. Consider the following statements: A. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted for the first time after formation of the Fourteenth Lok Sabha.

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B. Margaret Alva was appointed as the Chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women after the formation of the Fourteenth Lok Sabha. C. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women consists of 20 members of the Lok Sabha and 10 members of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is correct? (a) A only (b) B only (c) C Only (d) None of these Ans. (c) 37. Which one of the following is the correct sequence through which an Ordinary Bill passes through in the Parliament ? (a) Authentication, Discussion of Principles, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Post-introduction motion, Assert (b) Post-introduction motion, Discussion of Principles, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Authentication, Assent (c) Discussion of Principles, Authentication, Post-introduction motion, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Assent (d) Discussion of Principles, Post-introduction motion, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Authentication, Assent Ans. (b) 38. Consider the following statements: A. The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India. B. A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A and B Ans. (a) 39. Consider the following statements: A. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shill lapse on a dissolution of the Lok Sabha. B. A Bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A or B Ans. (d) 40. Assertion (A) : Recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, after a Money Bills is passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha within 14 days from receipt of the recommendations and then get them incorporated in the Bill. Reason (R) Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Ans. (B)
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General Studies
Mains General Studies (Papers I and II) 2003 General Studies (Papers I and II) 2000 General Studies (Papers I and II) 1999 General Studies (Papers I and II) 1998 General Studies (Papers I and II) 1997 Prelims

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General Studies Paper 2004 with Answers General Studies Paper 2000 General Studies Paper 1998 General Studies Paper 1997

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Public Administration
Mains Public Administration Question Paper of year 2003 Public Administration Question Paper of year 2002 Public Administration Question Paper of year 2000 Public Administration Question Paper of year 1999 Public Administration Question Paper of year 1998 Public Administration Question Paper of year 1997 Prelims Question Paper of year 2003 (Solved) Question Paper of year 2000 Question Paper of year 1999 Question Paper of year 1998 Question Paper of year 1997

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Geography Question Paper of year 2000 Geography Question Paper of year 1999 Geography Question Paper of year 1998 Geography Question Paper of year 1997 Prelims Question Paper of year 2003 (Solved)

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Mains Psychology Question Paper of year 2000 Psychology Question Paper of year 1999 Psychology Question Paper of year 1998 Psychology Question Paper of year 1997

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