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Refer to the exhibit. R3 is announcing all displayed internal networks as a summary address to R4. Which summary address will be most specific? 172.16.0.0/21 172.16.4.0/21 172.16.0.0/22 172.16.4.0/22 2

What occurs when frames are received at the destination with the FECN bit set on a Frame Relay circuit? The sending station is notified that it should reduce transmissions because of congestion. The sending and receiving station are notified that all frames are being marked as discard eligible. The receiving station is notified that the path from the frame source to the destination is experiencing congestion. The service provider is notified that it should drop the transfer rate on the circuit below the CIR until the congestion clears. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.) manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs. associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

Which two statements correctly describe RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.) Both broadcast their entire routing table from all participating interfaces to 255.255.255.255. Both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30 seconds. Both have the same administrative distance value of 120. Both can turn off automatic summarization. Both support VLSM and CIDR.

Which two statements are correct about a single area OSPF network? (Choose two.) The DR and BDR reduce the number of updates that are sent on a broadcast network. The BDR is responsible for distributing changes to all other OSPF routers. Routers use hello packets to establish and maintain neighbor adjacencies. All OSPF routers receive updates on multicast address 224.0.0.6. There must always be an area 1. Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.) The size of the collision domain is reduced. The number of required switches in a network decreases. VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location. The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information. Devices in one VLAN do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another VLAN.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the command displayed? D 192.168.0.0/24 is a summary, Null0 D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0 D 192.168.0.0/24 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0 D 192.168.0.0/22 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0 8 What are two features of an extended IP ACL? (Choose two.) It uses numbers 1 through 99 for identification. It can permit or deny traffic based on source or destination address. It detects malicious attacks against the network and logs them on a server. It can filter traffic based on the protocol and port numbers. It encrypts traffic between hosts. 9

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be used at the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access the Internet? 192.168.1.65/27 192.168.1.32/27 192.168.1.63/27 192.168.1.61/27 10

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible c of the problem? VTP V2 mode is disabled. SW3 is configured as transparent mode. The number of existing VLANs does not match. The configuration revision number does not match. 11

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the command that is shown in the exhibit and then issu the show ip route command. The route added by the network administrator is missing from the routing table What is the reason for this? This static route is providing a backup to the existing route to 192.168.1.0 /24. The route is incorrectly configured. Dynamic updates are always preferred over static routes. The FastEthernet0/0 interface is administratively down. 12

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has used classless routing in the network. What is the result o running the displayed command? All packets that are destined for address 10.12.0.1/22 will be forwarded via serial0/0/0. All packets that are destined for address 10.12.14.0/22 will be forwarded via serial0/0/0. All packets that are destined for address 10.12.16.1/22 will be forwarded via serial0/0/0. All packets that are destined for address 10.12.15.255/22 will be forwarded via serial0/0/0. 13

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured as a routing protocol on all routers in the network. How wou traffic from the 10.1.1.0/24 network and that is destined to the 192.168.4.64/26 network be handled by route R2? All traffic will be sent to the 192.168.4.64/26 network. The traffic will be dropped on R2 because of the duplicate entries in the routing table. The traffic will be load balanced over the 172.30.100.4/30 and 172.30.100.8/30 networks. The traffic will be broadcast to the 192.168.4.0/26, 192.168.4.64/26, and 192.168.4.128/26 networks.

14 How can a network administrator determine if network traffic has matched an ACL if there is no syslog serve configured on the network? Issue the show access-lists command. Delete the ACL and add it back, noting changes in traffic flow. Remove the ACL from any configured interface and note traffic changes. Verify the counters on the router interface and see if they are incrementing.

15 A Frame Relay service provider is reviewing a contract with a potential customer. Which term would be used when referencing the minimum guaranteed bandwidth that is provided on each virtual circuit? EIR CIR Tc Bc DE

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Refer to the exhibit. A network technician tries to telnet to SW_2 from router R1 but is unsuccessful. What configuration change would be required on SW_2 to allow the technician to access the switch remotely? Configure a login password on the console line. Create VLAN 10 and assign interface Fa0/24 to it. Move IP address 10.1.20.20 from VLAN1 to VLAN 20. Configure a default gateway that points to the Fa0/1 interface on R1. Configure interface VLAN 1 with the IP address from the 10.1.10.0/24 subnet. 17 What are two advantages of using dynamic routing protocols in a network? (Choose two.) They adapt to topological changes. They are more secure than static routes. They eliminate the need for default routes. They have lower administrative distances than static routes. They enable routers to share information about the reachability and status of remote networks. 18 What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a Layer 2 switch? to allow in-band management to provide inter-VLAN connectivity to facilitate election of a root bridge

to configure a default gateway for the network 19

Refer to the exhibit. A technician wishes to return a switch to its default state. What additional action should taken before reloading the switch? The vlan.dat file should be deleted. The native VLAN should be changed. The MAC address table should be cleared. The running configuration should be deleted. 20

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the routers using the displayed commands, but the network fails to converge. What can the network administrator do to solve this problem? Issue the network commands correctly on both routers. Configure the wildcard masks correctly on both routers. Issue the no auto-summary command. Configure both routers with different autonomous numbers. 21

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are both running RIPv2 with autosummarization disabled. Which subnet mask will Router1 associate with network 192.168.4.16/28? 255.255.0.0 255.255.240.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248 22

Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed wh selecting the DR? C, B, A, D D, C, B, A A, B, C, D A, C, B, D B, C, A, D

23 Which type of distance vector routing mechanism helps prevent the formation of loops by preventing routing

information from exiting a router interface through the same interface on which it was received? split horizon hold-down timer poisoned reverse setting maximum hop count 24

Refer to the exhibit. How will the access control list impact the operation of the network? Users on the 192.168.64.32 network will be able to telnet into RTA. Users on the 192.168.32.0/27 network will be able to telnet into RTA. Users on the 192.168.64.0/27 network will be able to telnet into RTA. Users on the 192.168.32.0/27 network will not be able to console into RTA. 25

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from which network will be translated into a single public IP address? 10.0.0.0/24 192.168.0.0/23

192.168.1.0/24 192.168.2.0/24 192.168.3.0/24 26

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a PPP connection between two routers. All attem fail that use PPP to establish the serial link between the routers. The administrator issues the command show interface serial 0/0/0 on router RA and it indicates that the line protocol is down. What could be a cause of t problem? Both routers should use interface S0/0/0. The usernames are misconfigured on both routers. The password should be configured to match the hostname. The IP address on interface S0/0/1 on router RC is incorrect.

27 In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN informatio other VTP domain members? client server pruning transparent 28 What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)

A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table. A successor route can only be found in the routing table. The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state. The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed. The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices. Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table. 29 What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table? Routes that are passive are never updated. Routes that are active are used to forward data. Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL. Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to complete. 30

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table? R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1 R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0 R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0 R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0 R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator at a school with a network address of 128.107.0.0/16 is plann an IP addressing scheme based on the number of hosts in each network. Which combination of subnet masks will support the number of hosts on each network while wasting the fewest addresses? Student - /22 Staff - /27 Admin - /28 Faculty - /26 Student - /21 Staff - /28 Admin - /29 Faculty - /25 Student - /21 Staff - /27 Admin - /28 Faculty - /25 Student - /22 Staff - /27 Admin - /27 Faculty - /26 32

Refer to the exhibit. Which VTP function will this switch perform?

It will create, change, and delete VLANs. It will send VTP messages to other attached switches. It will ignore information that is contained in the VTP message. It will retain its original database when it receives updates from the server. 33

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true? RB has the lowest priority value. RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network. RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers. RA and RB can not form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state. 34 What is a feature of UDP that makes it the preferred transport protocol for VoIP communications? minimizes delay and latency prioritizes and sorts traffic into queues classifies packets by the use of quality of service uses acknowledgments to guarantee delivery of packets 35 What should be considered when designing an addressing scheme that uses private IP address space? Private IP addresses are globally routable. Address summarization is not recommended.

Hierarchical design principles should be utilized. Discontiguous networks are no longer problematic. 36

What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command? feasible distance of the successor reported distance of the successor feasible distance of the feasible successor reported distance of the feasible successor 37

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What is the reason for the rout the last line of the routing table to be marked as D EX? The route is configured as a static route on router R1. The route is a feasible successor to the destination 192.168.2.0/24 network. The route is learned from another routing protocol or from outside the EIGRP network. The route is in the Active state and will be removed from the routing table in 4 minutes and 23 second

38 Which statement describes an ABR in OSPF networks? An ABR is a router inside an OSPF area. It is a router inside the OSPF backbone area. It is a router that connects an OSPF area to the backbone area. It is a router that connects a non-backbone OSPF area to another area. 39

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined from the output? (Choose two.) The router ID of R2 is 192.168.100.65. R2 has established adjacencies with three routers. R2 is not receiving hellos from neighbor 192.168.100.66. R2 is connected to an Ethernet network that consists of two routers. Neighbor 192.168.100.3 will become the DR if the current DR becomes unavailable. 40

Refer to the exhibit. When following best practices for ACL placement, where should the ACL 101 be placed order to minimize traffic and router overhead? inbound on R1 Fa0/0 inbound on R3 Fa0/0 inbound on R3 Fa0/1 outbound on R1 Fa0/0 outbound on R1 Fa0/1 outbound on R3 Fa0/0 41

Refer to the exhibit. What is the lowest cost OSPF path for traffic that is sourced from H2 and destined for H R3 to R5 R3 to R2 to R5 R3 to R4 to R5 R3 to R2 to R1 to R5 42 Why is UDP preferred for transmission of video traffic? It is a reliable protocol. It retransmits lost packets. It is a three-way handshake protocol. It has low overhead.

43 When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about key? (Choose two.) The key passes between routers in plain text. The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication. The key passes between routers in encrypted form. The key is never transmitted. The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer. 44

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct description of the highlighted address? It is the address of the destination network. It is the routerID of the neighboring router. It is the next hop address of the feasible successor. It is the IP address of the serial0/0/0 interface of RouterC. 45

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 connects to the Internet as shown and is configured with a static default route network administrator is currently configuring OSPF on R1 and wants the static default route to propagate to neighbors of R1. What must be configured on R1 in order for it to propagate the route to its neighbors once OSPF is configured? Issue the network 10.0.0.0 command. Enter the default-information originate command. Configure the 0.0.0.0/0 network in area 0. OSPF will automatically advertise the default route because it is a directly connected route.

46 What is the function of mutilink PPP? It allows VLAN ID information to be forwarded between multiple routers on the WAN. It allows multiple physical links to be used as a single logical link. It allows multiple remote users to share the same VPN tunnel. It allows an enterprise to connect to multiple ISPs 47 What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.) 0.0.0.0 255.255.240.0 255.255.255.255 0.0.31.255 255.255.255.240 0.0.0.31 48 A company is trying to decide whether to use a PVC or an SVC for the company WAN connection. Which statement best describes a benefit of using a PVC? A PVC is dynamically established between two points when a router requests a transmission. A PVC eliminates the need for call setup and clearing for each transmission session. A PVC is best suited for small companies with sporadic data flows. A PVC does not require preconfiguration by a service provider. 49

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the South router with one summary route to advertise to the HQ router. Which network address and subnet mask summarizes all LANs that are accessed through the South router? 128.107.128.0 255.255.224.0 128.107.128.0 255.255.240.0 128.107.128.0 255.255.248.0 128.107.130.0 255.255.224.0 128.107.130.0 255.255.240.0 128.107.120.0 255.255.248.0 50

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are connected by a crossover cable that is plugged into Fa0/1 on ea switch. However, the link between the switches is down. What is the problem? Flow control has been disabled. The keepalive timer is set too low. The management VLAN has been shut down. There is a duplex mismatch on the interfaces. 51

Refer to the exhibit. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands? the session from host A to host B the session from host B to hosts C and D the session from host B to hosts E and F the session from host E and host F to host A and host B 52

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses? (Choose two.) 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.2 198.133.219.1 198.133.219.102 198.133.219.103