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Artificial Lift Overview

1. For a given reservoir pressure and productivity index, which of these variables determines a well's flowing production potential? (A) Flowing bottomhole pressure 2. Which of these statements is TRUE? (D) Plunger lift combines elements of both gas lift and pump-assisted lift methods. 3. Which of these gas lift methods would be most applicable to a low-productivity well? (B) Intermittent gas lift 4. Which one of these pump-assisted artificial lift methods does NOT employ a positive displacment pump? (D) Electrical submersible pumping. 5. When is the best time to begin the process of selecting and designing an artificial lift method? (A) During the well planning and design process. 6. What effect does a high gas-liquid ratio (GLR) tend to have on pump-assisted lift methods? (B) A high GLR tends to decrease pump efficiency. 7. Based on depth considerations alone, which of these artificial lift methods would you be LEAST likely to consider for a well depth of 10,000 ft? (A) Progressive cavity pumping. 8. Overall, what category of artificial lift tends to exhibit the highest system operating efficiency? (A) Positive displacement pumping 9. Which of these artificial lift methods would you be LEAST likely to use in a high-temperature well? (B) Progressive cavity pumping 10. Which of these economic consderations would tend to reduce the attractiveness of gas lift as an artificial lift method? (C) Increase in gas prices

Gas Lift
1. Which of these statements about gas lift is TRUE? (A) Although continuous and intermittent gas lift installations are similar in the equipment that they use, their principles of operation are completly different.

2. Why should a standing valve always be used in intermittent gas lift installations? (C) (a) and (b) 3. What type of installation would enable you to produce dual zones using gas lift? (C) (a) or (b) 4. What type of gas lift valve does NOT respond to changes in production pressure? (A) Balanced IPO valve. 5. Which of these terms refers to the difference between a gas lift valve's actual opening pressure and its opening pressure at a production pressure of zero? (D) Production pressure effect (PPE) 6. What gas injection rate would be required to attain a production rate of 900 B/D at a well where the current GLR is 300 SCF/Bbl and the calculated optimal GLR is 800 SCF/Bbl? (B) 450 MCF/D

7. For a particular set of well conditions, which of these gas lift designs requires less compression horsepower? (A) High gas injection pressure, low injection rate 8. In a continuous gas lift installation, where should the operating valve be placed? (C) At a depth where the flowing production pressure is equal to the gas injection pressure, minus the differential pressure across the valve.

9. In a continuous gas lift installation, what is the main benefit of using an operating valve that has throttling characteristics? (C) Allows system to maintain a constant GLR even if the production rate fluctuates. 10. A new gas lift installation contains a string of unloading valves and an operating valve. Just before the well is unloaded, which of these valves are in the closed position? (D) None of the above; all of the valves are open. 11. In an intermittent gas lift design, what is a typical range for the starting load factor? (B) 50 to 75 percent 12. In an intermittent gas lift design, what type of valve is the best choice to use as an operating valve? (D) Pilot valve 13. Which of these statements reflects good operating practices for unloading a gas lift well? (B) Begin the unloading process by injecting gas at a low pressure, and then gradually increase the pressure in increments.

14. In a two-stage compressor, the absolute compression ratio per stage is equal to ___________ the overall absolute compression ratio. (A) the square root of

Reciprocating Rod Pumps

1. In a sucker rod pumping cycle, what are the positions of the standing valve and the traveling valve when the plunger is just approaching the bottom of its downstroke? (B) Standing valve is closed; traveling valve is open. 2. Which of these pumping unit types are Class I lever systems? (B) Conventional crank-balanced 3. An air-balanced pumping unit has the API designation A-128D-305-168. What is its maximum stroke length? (C) 168 inches 4. Which of these is NOT a standard API sucker rod diameter? (E) All of the above are standard API diameters. 5. What is the bore of a subsurface pump with the API designation 20-125 RHBC 10-4-2? (A) 1.25 inch 6. Because of rod stretch and contraction, acceleration and inertial effects, the effective stroke length of a subsurface pump is _____________ the stroke length of the polished rod. (A) shorter than 7. Which of these factors is NOT considered when calculating the optimal plunger size for a pump? (D) Length of sucker rod string 8. What grade of API steel sucker rod would be most appropriate for light-to-medium load applications in corrosive wells?

(C) Grade K 9. A tapered rod string consists of 3/4-inch, 7/8-inch and 1-inch diameter rods. Which rods are at the top of the string? (C) 1-inch 10. The API RP11L design procedure for sucker rod pumping systems assumes what type of pumping unit geometry? (B) Beam-balanced 11. What purpose do counterweights serve on a beam pumping unit? (B) They reduce the load variation between the upstroke and downstroke. 12. The measured area enclosed within a dynamometer card shape is used in calculating which of these loads? (C) Polished rod horsepower 13. Which of these dynamometer test results would indicate a leaking standing valve? (A) Increasing polished rod load 14. What does a dynagraph record? (B) Rod load measured just above the pump

1. The first commercial application of Moineau's progressive cavity pump principle involved ____________. (A) pumping liquids at the surface. 2. Which of these statements about progressive cavity pump (PCP) systems is TRUE? (C) PCP installations are well-suited for pumping fluids with high solids contents. 3. The flow rate through a progressive cavity pump is proportional to which of these quantities? (D) (A), (B) and (C) 4. Which of these does NOT represent an advantage of PCP systems over other artificial lift methods? (A) System design is relatively unaffected by the presence of H2S. 5. Which of these PCP components is generally coated with an elastomer? (B) Stator 6. Which of these components is used to impart hardness and tensile strength to elastomer compounds? (B) Acrylonitrile (ACN) 7. Which of these elastomers would be more likely to provide high resistance to H2S degradation? (B) Hydrogenated nitrile elastomer with an ultra-high ACN concentration. 8. What is the main difference between designing a rod string for a beam pumping system and a PCP system? (A) Rod torque is a primary design issue in designing PCP systems, whereas in beam pumping systems, axial loads are the major concern.

9. What is the benefit of a hollow shaft drivehead design? (E) (A), (B) and (C) 10. What would be the most likely setting depth for a PCP in a typical oil well?

(C) Below the perforations 11. Which of these conditions is evidence that gas permeation has occurred in a PCP eleastomer? (B) Blisters or bubbles on the elastomer surface 12. What is the primary cause of rotor breakage in PCPs? (C) High torque

Hydraulic Pump System

1. In a reciprocating hydraulic pump system, the downhole pump is driven_____________ (A) directly from the surface, similar to a beam pumping system. (B) by a downhole electric motor. (C) by an engine connected to the pump and driven by the power fluid.

2. Which of these benefits do hydraulic pumping systems offer? (A) They can be designed for a wide range of production rates. (B) They can be used in relatively deep wells. (C) They can be retrieved from the well without having to pull the tubing string. (D) (A) and (B) (E) (A), (B) and (C)

3. Which of these advantages do hydraulic jet pumps offer over positive displacement pumps? (A) They are better able to handle abrasive or corrosive fluids. (B) They are better able to handle free gas. (C) They are generally more efficient than positive displacment pumps. (D) (A) and (B) (E) (A), (B) and (C)

4. What type of power fluid system may be used with a casing free hydraulic pump? (A) Open power fluid system only (B) Closed power fluid system only (C) Either an open or a closed power fluid system (D) Cannot determine; need more information

5. What type of power fluid system is used with a hydraulic jet pump? (A) Open power fluid system only (B) Closed power fluid system only (C) Either an open or a closed power fluid system (D) Cannot determine

6. What type of power fluid system should be used when surface space limitations and environmental considerations are primary concerns in the design of a hydrulic pump system? (A) Open power fluid system (B) Closed power fluid system (C) Either (A) or (B) would be acceptable. Space limitations and environmental considerations do not figure into the selection of a power fluid system. 7. Where do the majority of downhole failures occur in reciprocating hydraulic pumps? (A) Engine end (B) Pump end (C) Power fluid line

8. Inlet engine pressure is defined as__________, where: a = Pump Setting Depth, ft b = Pump Submergence, ft c = Surface Operating Pressure d = Frictional Losses of power fluid e = Frictional Losses of produced fluid f = Power Fluid Gradient, psi/ft g = Produced Fluid Gradient, psi/ft h = Outlet Engine Pressure (A) c + bf + d (B) h + bg -e (C) c + af -d (D) h + af -d (E) bf - d (F) af + e

9. What characteristic of a hydraulic jet pump defines the relationship between production pressure and flow rate? (A) Diameter of the nozzle (B) Diameter of the throat

(C) Ratio of the nozzle diameter to the throat diameter (D) Ratio of the nozzle area to the throat area

10. What condition causes cavitation to take place in a hydraulic jet pump? (A) The pressure at the head of the throat is higher than the vapor pressure of the fluid. (B) The pressure at the head of the throat is equal to the vapor pressure of the fluid. (C) The pressure at the head of the throat is lower than the vapor pressure of the fluid (D) None of the above

1. Starting at the bottom and working toward the surface, what are the main components of an ESP assembly? (A) Motor, seal, gas separator, intake and pump (B) Motor, seal, intake, pump and gas separator (C) Intake, gas separator, pump, seal and motor (D) Intake, pump, seal, gas separator and motor

2. Starting from the main electrical power source, what are the major surface components of an ESP system? (A) Junction box, transformer, switchboard, wellhead and power cable. (B) Transformer, switchboard, junction box, wellhead and power cable. (C) Switchboard, transformer, junction box, wellhead and power cable. (D) Switchboard, junction box, transformer, wellhead and power cable.

3. Which of these statements about ESP systems is FALSE? (A) ESP systems can be designed to lift large fluid volumes at relatively low lifting costs. (B) ESP systems can be used in crooked or deviated wells. (C) Once installed, an ESP is relatively simple to operate. (D) ESP systems are excellent for handling gas and produced solids.

4. Which of these ESP system components is designed to protect against underload or overload conditions? (A) Transformer

(B) Switchboard (C) Junction box (D) Power cable

5. What characteristic(s) of an ESP determines how much fluid it can produce? (A) Type of stage (B) Number of stages (C) Type and number of stages

6. When an ESP is operating within its recommended range, what should be the position of the impeller in each stage with respect to the diffuser? (A) The impeller should be in a downthrusted position, resting on the lower section of the diffuser. (B) The impeller should be in an upthrusted position, resting on the upper section of the diffuser. (C) The impeller should be floating freely.

7. What factors limit the number of stages that can be added to an electrical submersible pump? (A) Horsepower rating of the shaft that turns the pump (B) Pressure rating of the pump housing (C) Capacity of the thrust bearing (D) (A) and (B) (E) (A), (B) and (C)

8. What is the standard fluid used to derive pump performance curves for ESP pumps? (A) Fresh water. (B) Salt water of some specified density. (C) Crude oil from the field where the pump will be used. (D) There is no "standard fluid" used in generating ESP performance curves.

9. Total Dynamic Head (TDH) is defined as: (A) The total head required when pumping at the desired rate. (B) The difference between the head at the pump discharge and the head at the pump intake (C) (A) and (B)

10. What units are used to express the size of a transformer? (A) Kilovolt-amps (kVA) (B) Kilowatt-amps (kWA) (C) Kilowatt-hours (kWH)

11. What is the preferred method of improving ESP system performance when a well's inflow performance is decreasing? (A) Replace the pump (B) Increase the backpressure on the wellhead (C) Cycle the pump and motor (D) Reduce the motor speed

12. Variable frequency generators may be used in ESP systems to: (A) Increase or decrease the capacity of an electrial submersible pump, within certain limits (B) Provide soft-start protection (C) (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

Plunger Lift System

1. How does plunger lift differ from other artificial lift methods? (A) It is the only artificial lift method that can be used with high-GLR wells. (B) It can be used in deviated wellbores. (C) It does not require specialized equipment at the wellhead. (D) It is the only artificial lift method that relies solely on the natural energy of the reservoir to lift fluid. 2. At what stage of the plunger cycle is the casing pressure allowed to build? (A) Shut-in (B) Unloading (C) Afterflow (D) All of the above

3. For what type of producing condition would you be LEAST likely to consider plunger lift as an artificial lift option?

(A) High-GOR oil production (B) Heavy oil production (C) Gas well dewatering (D) Unloading of gas lift wells

4. In general, what is the optimal velocity range for a plunger? (A) 350-400 feet per minute (B) 800-1000 feet per minute (C) 1250 to 1500 feet per minute

5. What is the most common type of plunger lift installation? (A) Plunger lift without a packer (B) Intermittent gas lift using a plunger (C) Plunger lift with a packer

6. Which of these plunger lift system components are located at the surface, in the lubricator above the master valve? (A) Flow outlet (B) Bumper spring and striker pad (C) Catcher (D) (A) and (B) (E) (A), (B) and (C)

7. What is the purpose of the internal bypass valve in a plunger? (A) To allow the plunger to fall to bottom more quickly (B) To allow the plunger to rise more slowly (C) To allow venting of gas (D) To prevent plunger wear

8. What would be the best type of plunger to use in a well with paraffin or scale problems? (A) Brush plunger (B) Spiral plunger

(C) Either of these plunger types would work equally well for cleaning paraffin or scale.

9. How are surface controllers activated in a plunger lift installation? (A) Pressure controllers (B) Timers (C) Either (A) or (B)

10. Which of these conditions would make a well a poor candidate for plunger lift? (A) Tubing bends or restrictions (B) High sand production (C) Presence of emulsions (D) (A) and (B) (E) (A), (B) and (C)