Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 14

Government CP Final

Matching IDENTIFYING KEY TERMS Match each item with the correct statement below. You will not use all the terms. a. indictment b. probable cause c. bill of attainder d. double jeopardy e. Miranda Rule ____ ____ ____ ____ 1. 2. 3. 4. A(n) ____ is a formal complaint that the prosecutor lays before a grand jury. Neither Congress nor the States can pass a(n) ____ that inflicts punishment without a court trial. The ____ begins with these words: "You have the right to remain silent." In order to obtain a warrant, police must have ____.

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. MAIN IDEAS ____ 5. Among the broad purposes of the United States government spelled out in the Preamble to the Constitution is the obligation to a. keep the executive and legislative branches of government separate. b. create an autocratic form of government. c. defend the country against Americans who oppose its policies. d. provide for justice and the people's general welfare. 6. Locke, Harrington, Hobbes, and Rousseau would most likely agree that a. the state developed out of force. b. those of royal birth should rule the state. c. the state exists to serve the will of the people. d. government should be eliminated. 7. A federal government is one in which a. all power is concentrated in the central government. b. limited powers are assigned to a central agency by independent states. c. power is divided between a central government and local governments. d. powers are divided between a legislative branch and an executive branch. 8. Which of the following statements is NOT true of parliamentary government? a. The executive is chosen by the legislature. b. The legislature is subject to the direct control of the executive. c. The prime minister and cabinet are part of the legislative branch. d. The prime minister and cabinet must resign if they lose the support of a majority of the legislature. 9. The individual 50 States lack which basic characteristic of a state? a. government b. sovereignty c. Constitution d. defined population

____

____

____

____

____ 10. The Internet seems especially suited to satisfy which of these needs in a democracy? a. to control the lives of citizens b. to be informed about the many different institutions and policies of the government c. the need for accurate, and always reliable, information on which to base decisions d. the need for an uneducated elite to run the government ____ 11. Which idea is NOT included in the Declaration of Independence? a. People have certain natural rights. b. God gives certain people the right to govern. c. Government can exist only with the people's permission. d. The people may change or abolish the government. ____ 12. The government set up by the Articles of Confederation had a. no legislative or judicial branch. b. only a legislative and an executive branch. c. only a legislative branch, consisting of a unicameral Congress. d. only a legislative branch, consisting of a bicameral Congress. ____ 13. Which was an achievement of the Second Continental Congress? a. preparing a Declaration of Rights b. raising an American army c. establishing a strong central government d. passing the Intolerable Acts ____ 14. With the words, "We the People," the Constitution establishes its authority on the basis of a. popular sovereignty. b. the rule of law. c. the separation of powers. d. limited government. ____ 15. Which statement about the Bill of Rights is NOT true? a. The amendments arose from the controversy over ratification of the Constitution. b. The amendments were ratified at the same time as the Constitution. c. The amendments guarantee such basic rights as freedom of expression and fair and equal treatment before the law. d. The amendments are the first ten of the Constitution. ____ 16. The President's Cabinet is an example of constitutional change by a. unwritten custom. b. court decision. c. State action. d. basic legislation. ____ 17. Which of the following is a method of formal amendment? a. proposal by three-fourths of the House of Representatives and ratification by conventions in three-fourths of State legislatures b. proposal by two-thirds of the Senate and ratification by two-thirds of State legislatures c. proposal by two-thirds of Congress and ratification by three-fourths of State legislatures d. all of the above ____ 18. The legislative branch can check the judicial branch by its power to a. name federal judges. b. remove judges through impeachment. c. declare executive actions unconstitutional. d. override a presidential veto. ____ 19. Which of the following is the subject of a constitutional amendment? a. the prohibition of alcohol

____ 20.

____ 21.

____ 22.

____ 23.

____ 24.

____ 25.

____ 26.

____ 27.

____ 28.

b. repeal of a previous amendment c. presidential term limits d. all of the above The system of federalism provides for all of the following EXCEPT a. local action in matters of local concern. b. a dual system of government. c. uniform laws among the States. d. strength through unity. Concurrent powers are those that are a. exercised simultaneously by the National and the State governments. b. exercised by State governments alone. c. exercised by the National Government alone. d. denied to both the National and the State governments. States must honor the legality of one another's civil laws because of the a. Necessary and Proper Clause. b. Full Faith and Credit Clause. c. Supremacy Clause. d. Interstate Compacts Clause. Citizens who commit a crime in one State and then flee to another State to escape prosecution are to be returned to the original State under a. the Full Faith and Credit Clause. b. the Privileges and Immunities Clause. c. extradition. d. any interstate compact involving all 50 States. In the United States, a political party is made up of a group of people who a. disagree on how to resolve the basic issues affecting the country. b. work to get candidates elected to political offices. c. work separately to support one major program or policy. d. support split-ticket voting. People belong to a particular political party a. according to regulations of State law. b. voluntarily, because they made a personal choice. c. based on the location of the State in which they live. d. according to regulations of federal law. Which of the following is NOT a major function of either of the two major parties in the United States? a. To keep the general public informed about key issues. b. To monitor the conduct of its candidates in office. c. To assure the qualifications of candidates for office. d. To unite people and concentrate solely on one public policy matter. In the past, some States limited voting rights by a. passing political socialization laws. b. charging a poll tax. c. eliminating the literacy test. d. overruling grandfather clauses. The phenomenon in which fewer votes are cast for offices farther down the ballot is called a. voter alienation. b. straight-ticket voting. c. split-ticket voting. d. ballot fatigue.

____ 29. All of the following are significant reasons for nonvoting in United States elections today EXCEPT a. long-term mental or physical illness or illness on an election day. b. rules and regulations that make registration and voting cumbersome. c. widespread use of religious and literacy tests. d. apathy or distrust of politics. ____ 30. The term political socialization can be defined as the a. process in which individual initiative is abandoned in favor of party politics. b. belief that one's vote does not count. c. process by which people formulate their political attitudes and opinions. d. practice of voting for candidates of only one specific party in any given election. ____ 31. People with no sense of political efficacy a. are also known as "cannot-voters." b. only vote in off-year elections. c. display a strong sense of party identification. d. feel that any choice they make will have no effect. ____ 32. Which of the following is the earliest and one of the most significant agents in the political socialization process? a. family b. place of residence c. group affiliation d. gender ____ 33. Polls are taken to a. guarantee the constitutional rights of all people. b. determine people's attitudes and viewpoints. c. further the political socialization of individuals. d. provide a system of checks and balances. ____ 34. The impact of the mass media on the public agenda can best be described as its ability to a. tell people whom to vote for. b. focus the public's attention on specific issues. c. tell people what opinions to have about those issues. d. focus the public's attention on how to vote. ____ 35. Attitudes held by a significant number of people concerning governmental and political questions are known as a. the mass media. b. public opinion. c. interest groups. d. public policies. ____ 36. The lawmaking function of Congress is central to democracy because a. it enables elected representatives to do the daily work of government. b. legislative powers are necessary to check the power of the President. c. it frees members of Congress from the pressures of public opinion. d. it is the means by which the public will becomes public policy. ____ 37. Which qualification for House members is NOT in the Constitution? a. must be at least 25 years old b. must have been a citizen for at least seven years c. must live in the district being represented d. must live in the State from which chosen ____ 38. Which statement about the Senate is true? a. It has two members from each State.

____ 39.

____ 40.

____ 41.

____ 42.

____ 43.

____ 44.

____ 45.

____ 46.

____ 47.

b. Its members are chosen by State legislatures. c. Each member represents one congressional district. d. Seats are apportioned among the States according to their populations. Which fact disqualifies a person from representing Utah in the Senate? a. The candidate was born in Guatemala. b. The candidate is 43 years old. c. The candidate lives in Utah but works in Idaho. d. The candidate has been a citizen for eight years. The fact that all congressional districts in a State must have about the same number of people so that one person's vote is equal to another's, is due to the a. Reapportionment Act of 1929. b. Wesberry v. Sanders ruling. c. 17th Amendment. d. Census Bureau. The regular period of time during which Congress conducts its business is called a a. prorogue. b. session. c. special session. d. congressional meeting. Members of Congress fill all of the following roles EXCEPT that of a. legislator. b. committee member. c. Cabinet member. d. servant to constituents. In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court a. ruled the doctrine of implied powers to be unconstitutional. b. upheld the doctrine of implied powers. c. upheld the right of the State of Maryland to tax a federal agency. d. ruled the creation of a bank by Congress to be unconstitutional. The level of the nation's debt a. is limited by the Constitution. b. is always limited by Congress. c. is not limited by any government agency. d. may not exceed $10 billion. According to the Constitution, who has the sole power to impeach the President? a. The House of Representatives b. the Vice President c. the Supreme Court d. State courts Under the Constitution, Congress has the sole power to a. act as the commander in chief. b. meet with foreign leaders. c. declare war. d. none of the above. When the Senate's Republican caucus wants party members to vote for a bill, the person who determines how many votes can be counted on is the a. senior senator. b. policy-committee chairperson. c. floor leader.

____ 48.

____ 49.

____ 50.

____ 51.

____ 52.

____ 53.

____ 54.

____ 55.

____ 56.

____ 57.

d. whip. The main reason that Congress creates committees is to a. divide the workload. b. educate new members. c. introduce new bills. d. create party power bases. Which of the following is a way a bill can become a law without the President's signature? a. The President delegates the signing of a bill to the Vice President. b. The President waits until the Congress is not in session. c. The President fails to act on the bill within 10 days of receiving it while Congress is in session. d. The President leaves the country. Committee chairpersons usually are chosen a. by the presiding officers. b. by the whips. c. on the basis of ability. d. on the basis of seniority. Unlike the House, the Senate has a legislative process with a. few limits on debate. b. strict limits on debate. c. no roll-call voting. d. no voice voting. In the Vice President's absence, the presiding officer of the Senate is the a. Dean of the Senate. b. majority floor leader. c. president pro tempore. d. Speaker of the Senate. The main way to end a filibuster is by a. a two-thirds vote of the Senate. b. invoking the Cloture Rule. c. convening a conference committee. d. voting the filibusterer out of office. In order to prevent a bill passed by Congress from becoming law, the President may a. sign it and attach a veto message. b. refuse to sign it and attach a veto message. c. sign it after ten days if Congress is in session. d. negotiate a compromise bill with Congress. According to the Constitution, the President must a. be a man who owns property. b. be at least 35 years of age. c. have held one major public office. d. have lived in the U. S. for at least 20 years. As of January 20, 2001, the President receives a yearly salary of a. $50,000. b. $99,500. c. $400,000. d. $900,000. The electoral system broke down in the election of 1800 because of the a. rise of political parties.

____ 58.

____ 59.

____ 60.

____ 61.

____ 62.

____ 63.

____ 64.

____ 65.

____ 66.

b. 12th Amendment. c. use of the national convention as a nominating device. d. appearance of a presidential primary. If an incumbent President is seeking another term in office, who will his party likely nominate? a. the Vice President b. the President c. the Speaker of the House d. the House majority leader A President can serve no more than _____ years in office. a. 8 b. 4 c. 10 d. 12 According to the Presidential Succession Act of 1947, which of these officers follows the Vice President in the line of presidential succession? a. Speaker of the House b. secretary of state c. president pro tempore of the Senate d. secretary of the treasury The least number of presidential electors a State can have is a. one. b. two. c. three. d. four. Which of the following statements is NOT an argument against the electoral college system? a. A candidate who loses the popular vote may still be elected President. b. An elector may vote for someone other than the voter-selected candidate. c. A strong third-party effort might throw the election into the House. d. The results depend upon how State congressional districts are drawn. The power of the presidency has been cause for debate MAINLY because a. the presidency is the most powerful office in the world. b. the Constitution provided a loose definition of executive power. c. the presidency is an office that operates in full view of the public. d. leaders wanted to prevent the President from becoming a tyrant. Which of the following has NOT worked to strengthen the powers of the presidency? a. the influence of strong Presidents b. the demands of the American people for strong leadership c. the constitutional system of checks and balances d. the need for decisive action during national emergencies Which of the following statements about the President's power of removal is TRUE? a. For those offices for which Senate approval is required for appointment, Senate consent is also required for removal. b. Any person holding office by presidential appointment with Senate consent must remain in that office until the Senate confirms a successor. c. Any person holding office by presidential appointment with Senate consent may be removed only for incompetence. d. As a general rule, the President may remove any officeholders he or she has appointed. The President's military powers a. are strictly limited to times of war.

____ 67.

____ 68.

____ 69.

____ 70.

____ 71.

____ 72.

____ 73.

____ 74.

b. are shared with Congress. c. only apply to the use of the United States Army and its weapons. d. may never be used to keep the domestic peace. In essence, the ordinance power gives the President the right to a. organize the judicial branch. b. set up offices. c. administer laws. d. appoint federal employees. The difference between a treaty and an executive agreement is that a. a treaty is with a foreign state but an executive agreement is domestic. b. a treaty must begin in the Senate but an executive agreement is made wholly by the President. c. the President needs Senate approval for a treaty but not for an executive agreement. d. a treaty ends or prevents a war but an executive agreement does not. Upon receipt of a bill, the President can take all of the following actions EXCEPT a. call on a special session of congressional committees to revise the bill. b. veto the bill. c. decide to neither sign nor veto the bill, allowing it to become a law. d. sign the bill to make it a law. Which of the following federal courts exercises both original and appellate jurisdiction? a. the Supreme Court b. court of appeals c. district court d. the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit Which of the following statements about federal judges is TRUE? a. They must have had previous service as State court judges or attorneys. b. They serve a fixed term of office, set by Congress. c. They are appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate. d. All of the above are true. Most importantly, the Supreme Court is called the High Court because it is the a. best court in the country. b. only court established by the Constitution. c. first court in which most of the important federal cases are heard. d. last court in which federal questions can be decided. The Supreme Court's decision in Marbury v. Madison a. enabled William Marbury to become a justice of the peace. b. stripped the President of his power to appoint federal judges. c. established the Court's power of judicial review. d. none of the above. A federal court has jurisdiction over a case if a. a citizen of one State is suing a citizen from another State. b. a State is suing a resident of another State. c. a State is suing another State. d. all of the above. INTERPRETING DIAGRAMS Use the diagram to answer the following questions.

____ 75. What label should appear at the place marked by the letter D? a. Concurrent Powers b. Powers reserved to the States c. Powers denied both the National Government and the States d. Powers denied the National Government ____ 76. What label should appear at the place marked by the letter B? a. Concurrent Powers b. Powers denied the National Government c. Powers reserved to the States d. Powers denied both the National Government and the States ____ 77. What label should appear at the place marked by the letter C? a. Concurrent Powers b. Powers denied the National Government c. Powers reserved to the States d. Powers denied both the National Government and the States IDENTIFYING KEY TERMS ____ 78. The court that first hears a case is said to have a. appellate jurisdiction. b. exclusive jurisdiction. c. original jurisdiction. d. concurrent jurisdiction. ____ 79. The list of cases to be heard by a court is called a a. civil case list. b. certificate. c. writ of certiorari. d. docket. MAIN IDEAS ____ 80. The Free Exercise Clause gives people the right to a. assemble and express their views on public matters. b. hold meetings and parades on public streets without permits. c. believe whatever they choose to believe in matters of religion. d. exercise anywhere they choose. ____ 81. Seditious speech is speech that urges others to

____ 82.

____ 83.

____ 84.

____ 85.

a. disagree with the government in public. b. vote against the government. c. overthrow the government. d. support the party out of power. Under the Establishment Clause, the government still has the power to do all of the following EXCEPT a. use tax money to pay for busing students to parochial schools. b. provide public funds for some uses in church-related schools. c. establish an acceptable voluntary prayer for use in public schools. d. exercise control over public, seasonal displays. In deciding cases involving laws against sedition, the Supreme Court has a. developed the "clear and present danger" rule. b. established the excessive entanglement standard. c. upheld the Alien and Sedition acts of 1798. d. upheld the constitutionality of all such laws. Under the 2nd Amendment, a. there is no limitation on the free flow of guns within the United States. b. the States cannot limit a person's right to own a gun. c. each State has the right to have a militia. d. no citizen may own a gun. Which is the MOST accurate description of the way minority groups historically have been treated in the United States? a. with complete equality b. with reluctance to accept their equality c. with a sincere recognition of their cultural differences d. with willing acceptance of immigrants, but only forced acceptance of those minorities already residing in the United States

Government CP Final Answer Section


MATCHING 1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: A 20.3.2 C 20.3.1 E 20.3.5 B 20.2.3 PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: 1 DIF: Grand Juries 1 DIF: Bill of Attainder 1 DIF: Miranda Rule 1 DIF: Probable Cause Easy Easy Easy Easy REF: 578 REF: 577 REF: 582 REF: 572

MULTIPLE CHOICE 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: D 1.1.4 C 1.1.3 C 1.2.3 B 1.2.4 B 1.1.2 B 1.3.3 B 2.2.4 C 2.3.1 B 2.2.3 A 3.1.2 B 3.2.3 A 3.3.3 C 3.2.1 B 3.1.2 D 3.2.3 C PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: 1 DIF: Average REF: Government 1 DIF: Average REF: Origins of State 1 DIF: Average REF: Federal Government 1 DIF: Average REF: Parliamentary Government 1 DIF: Average REF: Sovereignty 1 DIF: Average REF: Internet 1 DIF: Average REF: Declaration of Independence 1 DIF: Average REF: Articles of Confederation 1 DIF: Average REF: Second Continental Congress 1 DIF: Average REF: Popular Sovereignty 1 DIF: Average REF: Bill of Rights 1 DIF: Average REF: Constitutional Change by Other Means 1 DIF: Average REF: Formal Amendment 1 DIF: Average REF: Checks and Balances 1 DIF: Average REF: Formal Amendment 1 DIF: Average REF: 5 8 14 16 6 22 38 44 37 73 76 81 72 67 72 88

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS:

4.1.1 A 4.1.3 B 4.3.2 C 4.3.3 B 5.1.1 B 5.2.3 D 5.1.2 B 6.1.2 | 6.2.2 D 6.4.1 C 6.4.2 C 6.4.3 D 6.4.2 A 8.1.2 B 8.2.2 B 8.3.2 B 8.1.1 D 10.1.1 C 10.2.4 A 10.3.2 D 10.3.4 B 10.2.3 B 10.1.3 C 10.4.2 B 11.4.2 C

TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:

Federalism 1 DIF: Average Concurrent Powers 1 DIF: Average Full Faith and Credit Clause 1 DIF: Average Extradition 1 DIF: Average Political Party 1 DIF: Average Political Parties 1 DIF: Average Major Parties 1 DIF: Average Poll Tax 1 DIF: Average Ballot Fatigue 1 DIF: Average Non-Voting 1 DIF: Average Political Socialization 1 DIF: Average Political Efficacy 1 DIF: Average Political Socialization 1 DIF: Average Public Opinion Polls 1 DIF: Average Mass Media 1 DIF: Average Public Opinion 1 DIF: Average Congress 1 DIF: Average Qualifications for House Members 1 DIF: Average The Senate 1 DIF: Average Qualifications for Senate Members 1 DIF: Average Wesberry v. Sanders 1 DIF: Average Session 1 DIF: Average Congress 1 DIF: Average McCulloch v. Maryland 1 DIF: Average

REF: 93 REF: 106 REF: 107 REF: 116 REF: 116 REF: 116 REF: 157 REF: 165 REF: 165 REF: 168 REF: 166 REF: 210 REF: 217 REF: 211 REF: 209 REF: 262 REF: 272 REF: 275 REF: 277 REF: 271 REF: 264 REF: 262 REF: 306 REF: 296

45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68.

OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS:

11.1.1 A 11.5.2 C 11.3.2 D 12.1.3 A 12.2.1 C 12.4.4 D 12.1.4 A 12.4.2 C 12.1.2 B 12.4.3 B 12.4.4 B 13.1.2 C 13.1.4 A 13.3.1 B 13.4.5 C 13.1.3 A 13.2.1 C 13.5.1 D 13.5.3 B 14.1.1 | 14.2.1 C 14.1.2 D 14.2.4 B 14.3.4 C 14.2.2 C

TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:

Public Debt 1 DIF: Average REF: Impeachment 1 DIF: Average REF: Expressed Powers of Congress 1 DIF: Average REF: Whips 1 DIF: Average REF: Committees in Congress 1 DIF: Average REF: How a Bill Becomes a Law 1 DIF: Average REF: Seniority Rule 1 DIF: Average REF: Senate Rules for Debate 1 DIF: Average REF: President pro tempore 1 DIF: Average REF: Cloture Rule 1 DIF: Average REF: Veto 1 DIF: Average REF: Presidential Qualifications 1 DIF: Average REF: Presidential Pay and Benefits 1 DIF: Average REF: Election of 1800 1 DIF: Average REF: Incumbent 1 DIF: Average REF: President's Term 1 DIF: Average REF: Presidential Succession Act of 1947 1 DIF: Average REF: Presidential Electors 1 DIF: Average REF: Electoral College 1 DIF: Average REF: TOP: Executive Powers 1 DIF: Average REF: Executive Powers 1 DIF: Average REF: Removal Power 1 DIF: Average REF: Military Power 1 DIF: Average REF: Ordinance Power 1 DIF: Average REF:

311 301 325 329 346 326 342 323 343 346 356 358 366 374 357 360 365 366 393 393 396 401 394 399 | 400

69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:

14.3.1 | 14.3.2 A 14.4.1 A 18.1.2 | 18.3.2 C 18.1.3 | 18.1.4 D 18.3.1 C 18.3.1 D 18.1.2 D 4.1.2 C 4.1.2 A 4.1.3 C 18.1.2 D 18.4.1 C 19.2.4 C 19.3.2 C 19.2.2 A 19.3.2 C 20.2.2 B 21.1.2

PTS: TOP: PTS: PTS: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

TOP: Treaty | Executive Agreement 1 DIF: Average REF: 405 Legislative Powers 1 DIF: Average REF: 517 TOP: Supreme Court 1 DIF: Average REF: 509 TOP: Appointment of Federal Judges 1 DIF: Average REF: 517 Supreme Court 1 DIF: Average REF: 518 Marbury v. Madison 1 DIF: Average REF: 508 Federal Jurisdiction 1 DIF: Average REF: 89 Division of Powers 1 DIF: Average REF: 89 Division of Powers 1 DIF: Average REF: 89 Division of Powers 1 DIF: Average REF: 509 Original Jurisdiction 1 DIF: Average REF: 513 Docket 1 DIF: Average REF: 542 Free Exercise Clause 1 DIF: Average REF: 547 Seditious Speech 1 DIF: Average REF: 537 Establishment Clause 1 DIF: Average REF: 547 Sedition 1 DIF: Average REF: 571 Right to Keep and Bear Arms 1 DIF: Average REF: 594 Discrimination in American Society