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INTRODUCTION:Stock exchange operations are peculiar in nature and most of the Investors feel insecure in managing their investment on the stock market because it is difficult for an individual to identify companies which have growth prospects for investment. Further due to volatile nature of the markets, its require constant reshuffling of portfolios to capitalized on the growth opportunities. Even after identifying the growth oriented companies and their securities, the trading practices are also complicated, making it a difficult task for investors to trade in all the exchange and follow up on post trading formalities. That is why professional investment advice through portfolio management service can help the investors to make an intelligent and informed choice between alternative investments opportunities without the worry of loosing their invested money.Hence this is very much important to the stock dealers specially who are new to the market.
2. MEANING OF PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT:Portfolio management in common parlance refers to the selection of securities and their continuous shifting in the portfolio to optimize returns to suit the objectives of an investor. In India, as well as in a number of western countries, portfolio management service has assumed the role of a specialized service now a days and a number of professional merchant bankers compete aggressively to provide the best to high networth clients, who have little time to manage their investments. The idea is catching on with the boom in the capital market and an increasing number of people are inclined to make profits out of their hard-earned savings. Portfolio management service is one of the merchant banking activities recognized by Securities and Exchange Board of India(SEBI). The service can be rendered either by merchant bankers or portfolio managers or discretionary portfolio manager as define in clause (e) and (f) of Rule 2 of Securities and Exchang Board of India(Portfolio Managers)Rules, 1993 and their functioning are guided by the SEBI.
3. OBJECTIVES OF PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT:The major objectives of portfolio management are summarized as below:i. Keep the security, safety of Principal sum intact both in terms of money as well as its purchasing power. ii. Stability of the flow of income so as to facilitate planning more accurately and systematically the re-investment or consumption of income. iii. To attain capital growth by re-investing in growth securities or through purchase of growth securities.
iv. Marketability of the security which is essential for providing flexibility to investment portfolio. v. Liquidity i.e.nearness to money which is desirable for the investor so as to take advantage of attractive opportunities upcoming in the market. vi. Diversification: The basic objective of building a portfolio is to reduce the risk of loss of capital and income by investing in various types of securities and over a wide range of industries. vii. Favourable tax status : The effective yield an investor gets from his investment depends on tax to which it is subject. By minimizing the tax burden, yield can be effectively improved.
4. BASIC PRINCIPLES OF PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT:There are two basic principles for effective portfolio management which are given below:1. Effective investment planning for the investment in securities by considering the following factorsa. Fiscal,financial and monetary policies of the Govt.of India and the Reserve Bank of India. b. Industrial and economic environment and its impact on industry Prospect in terms of prospective technological changes, competition in the market, capacity utilization with industry and demand prospects etc. II. Constant review of investment: Its require to review the investment in securities and to continue the selling and purchasing of investment in more profitable manner. For this purpose they have to carry the following analysis: a. To assess the quality of the management of the companies in which investment has been made or proposed to be made. b. To assess the financial and trend analysis of companies balance sheet and profit&loss Accounts to identify the optimum capital structure and better performance for the purpose of withholding the investment from poor companies. c. To analysis the security market and its trend in continuous basis to arrive at a conclusion as to whether the securities already in possession should be disinvested and new securities be purchased. If so the timing for investment or dis-investment is also revealed.
Dow Jones theory: According to this theory of Charles H. Dow , purchase should be made when bull trend started i.e. when price of the share are on the rise and sells them when they are on the fall i.e. at the time when bearish trend started.
Randam walk theory: Basically stock prices can never be predicted because they are not a result of any underlying factors but are mere statistical ups and downs. This hypothesis is known as Randam walk hypothesis. In the Laymans language it may be said that prices on the stock exchange behave exactly the way a drunk would behave while walking in a blind lane, i.e. up and down, with an unsteady way going in any direction he likes, bending on the side once and on the other side the second time.
Capital Assets Pricing Model(CAPM): CAPM provides a conceptual framework for evaluating any investment decision. It is used to estimate the expected return of any portfolio with the following formula:
E(Rp) = Rf+Bp(E(Rm)-Rf) Where, E(Rp) = Expected return of the portfolio Rf = Risk free rate of return Bp = Beta portfolio i.e. market sensitivity index E(Rm)= Expected return on market portfolio (E(Rm)-Rf)= Market risk premium
The above model of portfolio management can be used effectively to:*Estimate the required rate of return to investors on companys common stock. **Evalute risky investment projects involving real Assets. ***Explain why the use of borrowed fund increases the risk and increases the rate of return. ****Reduce the risk of the firm by diversifying its project portfolio. Moving Average: It refers to the mean of the closing price which changes constantly and moves ahead in time, there by encompasses the most recent days and deletes the old one.
CONCLUSION
From the above discussion it is clear that portfolio functioning is based on market risk, so one can get the help from the professional portfolio manager or the Merchant banker if required before investment. Because applicability of practical knowledge through technical analysis can help an investor to reduce risk. In other words Security prices are determined by money manager and home managers, students and strikers, doctors and dog catchers, lawyers and landscapers, the wealthy and the wanting. This breadth of market participants guarantees an element of unpredictability and excitement. If we were all totally logical and could separate our emotions from our investment decisions then, the determination of price based on future earnings would work magnificently. And since we would all have the same completely logical expectations, price would only change when quarterly reports or relevant news was released. I believe the future is only the past again, entered through another gate Sir Arthur wing Pinero. 1893.
If price are based on investors expectations, then knowing what a security should sell for become less important than knowing what other investors expect it to sell for. There are two times of a mans life when he should not speculate; when he cant afford it and when he can Mark Twin,1897.
A Casino make money on a roulette wheel , not by knowing what number will come up next, but by slightly improving their odds with the addition of a 0 and 00. Yet many investors buy securities without attempting to control the odds. If we believe that this dealings is not a Gambling we have to start up it with intelligent way. Through it is basically a future estimation or expectation , one should know the standard norms and related rules for lowering the risk.
Concept
The fundamental concept behind MPT is that the assets in an investment portfolio should not be selected individually, each on their own merits. Rather, it is important to consider how each asset changes in price relative to how every other asset in the portfolio changes in price. Investing is a tradeoff between risk and expected return. In general, assets with higher expected returns are riskier. For a given amount of risk, MPT describes how to select a
portfolio with the highest possible expected return. Or, for a given expected return, MPT explains how to select a portfolio with the lowest possible risk (the targeted expected return cannot be more than the highest-returning available security, of course, unless negative holdings of assets are possible.) MPT is therefore a form of diversification. Under certain assumptions and for specific quantitative definitions of risk and return, MPT explains how to find the best possible diversification strategy.
History
Harry Markowitz introduced MPT in a 1952 article[6] and a 1959 book.[7] Markowitz classifies it simply as "Portfolio Theory," because "There's nothing modern about it." See also this[5] survey of the history.
Mathematical model
In some sense the mathematical derivation below is MPT, although the basic concepts behind the model have also been very influential.[5] This section develops the "classic" MPT model. There have been many extensions since.
Portfolio return is the proportion-weighted combination of the constituent assets' returns. Portfolio volatility is a function of the correlations ij of the component assets, for all asset pairs (i, j).
In general:
Expected return:
where Rp is the return on the portfolio, Ri is the return on asset i and wi is the weighting of component asset i (that is, the share of asset i in the portfolio).
where ij is the correlation coefficient between the returns on assets i and j. Alternatively the expression can be written as: , where ij = 1 for i=j.
Diversification
An investor can reduce portfolio risk simply by holding combinations of instruments which are not perfectly positively correlated (correlation coefficient )). In other words, investors can reduce their exposure to individual asset risk by holding a diversified portfolio of assets. Diversification may allow for the same portfolio expected return with reduced risk. If all the asset pairs have correlations of 0they are perfectly uncorrelatedthe portfolio's return variance is the sum over all assets of the square of the fraction held in the asset times the asset's return variance (and the portfolio standard deviation is the square root of this sum).
Efficient Frontier. The hyperbola is sometimes referred to as the 'Markowitz Bullet', and is the efficient frontier if no risk-free asset is available. With a risk-free asset, the straight line is the efficient frontier. As shown in this graph, every possible combination of the risky assets, without including any holdings of the risk-free asset, can be plotted in risk-expected return space, and the collection of all such possible portfolios defines a region in this space. The left boundary of this region is a hyperbola,[8] and the upper edge of this region is the efficient frontier in the absence of a risk-free asset (sometimes called "the Markowitz bullet"). Combinations along this upper edge represent portfolios (including no holdings of the risk-free asset) for which there is lowest risk for a given level of expected return. Equivalently, a portfolio lying on the efficient frontier represents the combination offering the best possible expected return for given risk level. Matrices are preferred for calculations of the efficient frontier. In matrix form, for a given "risk tolerance" , the efficient frontier is found by minimizing the following expression: wTw q * RTw where
w = 1.
i
(The weights can be negative, which means investors can short a security.); is the covariance matrix for the returns on the assets in the portfolio; is a "risk tolerance" factor, where 0 results in the portfolio with minimal risk and results in the portfolio infinitely far out on the frontier with both expected return and risk unbounded; and R is a vector of expected returns. wTw is the variance of portfolio return. RTw is the expected return on the portfolio.
The above optimization finds the point on the frontier at which the inverse of the slope of the frontier would be q if portfolio return variance instead of standard deviation were plotted horizontally. The frontier in its entirety is parametric on q. Many software packages, including Microsoft Excel, MATLAB, Mathematica and R, provide optimization routines suitable for the above problem. An alternative approach to specifying the efficient frontier is to do so parametrically on expected portfolio return RTw. This version of the problem requires that we minimize wTw subject to RTw = for parameter . This problem is easily solved using a Lagrange multiplier.
asset; and points on the half-line beyond the tangency point are leveraged portfolios involving negative holdings of the risk-free asset (the latter has been sold shortin other words, the investor has borrowed at the risk-free rate) and an amount invested in the tangency portfolio equal to more than 100% of the investor's initial capital. This efficient half-line is called the capital allocation line (CAL), and its formula can be shown to be
In this formula P is the sub-portfolio of risky assets at the tangency with the Markowitz bullet, F is the risk-free asset, and C is a combination of portfolios P and F. By the diagram, the introduction of the risk-free asset as a possible component of the portfolio has improved the range of risk-expected return combinations available, because everywhere except at the tangency portfolio the half-line gives a higher expected return than the hyperbola does at every possible risk level. The fact that all points on the linear efficient locus can be achieved by a combination of holdings of the risk-free asset and the tangency portfolio is known as the one mutual fund theorem,[8] where the mutual fund referred to is the tangency portfolio.
Systematic risks within one market can be managed through a strategy of using both long and short positions within one portfolio, creating a "market neutral" portfolio.
, Beta, is the measure of asset sensitivity to a movement in the overall market; Beta is usually found via regression on historical data. Betas exceeding one signify more than average "riskiness" in the sense of the asset's contribution to overall portfolio risk; betas below one indicate a lower than average risk contribution. is the market premium, the expected excess return of the market portfolio's expected return over the risk-free rate.
This equation can be statistically estimated using the following regression equation:
where i is called the asset's alpha , i is the asset's beta coefficient and SCL is the Security Characteristic Line. Once an asset's expected return, E(Ri), is calculated using CAPM, the future cash flows of the asset can be discounted to their present value using this rate to establish the correct price for the asset. A riskier stock will have a higher beta and will be discounted at a higher rate; less sensitive stocks will have lower betas and be discounted at a lower rate. In theory, an asset is correctly priced when its observed price is the same as its value calculated using the CAPM derived discount rate. If the observed price is higher than the valuation, then the asset is overvalued; it is undervalued for a too low price. (1) The incremental impact on risk and expected return when an additional risky asset, a, is added to the market portfolio, m, follows from the formulae for a two-asset portfolio. These results are used to derive the asset-appropriate discount rate.
Market portfolio's risk = Hence, risk added to portfolio = but since the weight of the asset will be relatively low, i.e. additional risk =
Hence additional expected return = (2) If an asset, a, is correctly priced, the improvement in its risk-to-expected return ratio achieved by adding it to the market portfolio, m, will at least match the gains of spending that money on an increased stake in the market portfolio. The assumption is that the investor will purchase the asset with funds borrowed at the risk-free rate, Rf; this is rational if . Thus: i.e. : i.e. : is the beta, return the covariance between the asset's return and the market's return divided by the variance of the market return i.e. the sensitivity of the asset price to movement in the market portfolio's value.
[edit] Criticism
Despite its theoretical importance, critics of MPT question whether it is an ideal investing strategy, because its model of financial markets does not match the real world in many ways. Efforts to translate the theoretical foundation into a viable portfolio construction algorithm have been plagued by technical difficulties stemming from the instability of the original optimization problem with respect to the available data. Recent research has shown that instabilities of this type disappear when a regularizing constraint or penalty term is incorporated in the optimization procedure.[9]
[edit] Assumptions
The framework of MPT makes many assumptions about investors and markets. Some are explicit in the equations, such as the use of Normal distributions to model returns. Others are implicit, such as the neglect of taxes and transaction fees. None of these assumptions are entirely true, and each of them compromises MPT to some degree.
Asset returns are (jointly) normally distributed random variables. In fact, it is frequently observed that returns in equity and other markets are not normally distributed. Large swings (3 to 6 standard deviations from the mean) occur in the market far more frequently than the normal distribution assumption would predict.[10] While the model can also be justified by assuming any return distribution which is jointly elliptical,[11][12] all the joint elliptical distributions are symmetrical whereas asset returns empirically are not.
Correlations between assets are fixed and constant forever. Correlations depend on systemic relationships between the underlying assets, and change when these relationships change. Examples include one country declaring war on another, or a general market crash. During times of financial crisis all assets tend to become positively correlated, because they all move (down) together. In other words, MPT breaks down precisely when investors are most in need of protection from risk. All investors aim to maximize economic utility (in other words, to make as much money as possible, regardless of any other considerations). This is a key assumption of the efficient market hypothesis, upon which MPT relies. All investors are rational and risk-averse. This is another assumption of the efficient market hypothesis, but we now know from behavioral economics that market participants are not rational. It does not allow for "herd behavior" or investors who will accept lower returns for higher risk. Casino gamblers clearly pay for risk, and it is possible that some stock traders will pay for risk as well. All investors have access to the same information at the same time. This also comes from the efficient market hypothesis. In fact, real markets contain information asymmetry, insider trading, and those who are simply better informed than others. Investors have an accurate conception of possible returns, i.e., the probability beliefs of investors match the true distribution of returns. A different possibility is that investors' expectations are biased, causing market prices to be informationally inefficient. This possibility is studied in the field of behavioral finance, which uses psychological assumptions to provide alternatives to the CAPM such as the overconfidence-based asset pricing model of Kent Daniel, David Hirshleifer, and Avanidhar Subrahmanyam (2001).[13] There are no taxes or transaction costs. Real financial products are subject both to taxes and transaction costs (such as broker fees), and taking these into account will alter the composition of the optimum portfolio. These assumptions can be relaxed with more complicated versions of the model.[citation needed] All investors are price takers, i.e., their actions do not influence prices. In reality, sufficiently large sales or purchases of individual assets can shift market prices for that asset and others (via cross-elasticity of demand.) An investor may not even be able to assemble the theoretically optimal portfolio if the market moves too much while they are buying the required securities. Any investor can lend and borrow an unlimited amount at the risk free rate of interest. In reality, every investor has a credit limit. All securities can be divided into parcels of any size. In reality, fractional shares usually cannot be bought or sold, and some assets have minimum orders sizes.
More complex versions of MPT can take into account a more sophisticated model of the world (such as one with non-normal distributions and taxes) but all mathematical models of finance still rely on many unrealistic premises.
returns. According to this view, our intuitive concept of risk is fundamentally asymmetric in nature. MPT does not account for the personal, environmental, strategic, or social dimensions of investment decisions. It only attempts to maximize risk-adjusted returns, without regard to other consequences. In a narrow sense, its complete reliance on asset prices makes it vulnerable to all the standard market failures such as those arising from information asymmetry, externalities, and public goods. It also rewards corporate fraud and dishonest accounting. More broadly, a firm may have strategic or social goals that shape its investment decisions, and an individual investor might have personal goals. In either case, information other than historical returns is relevant. Financial economist Nassim Nicholas Taleb has also criticized modern portfolio theory because it assumes a Gaussian distribution: After the stock market crash (in 1987), they rewarded two theoreticians, Harry Markowitz and William Sharpe, who built beautifully Platonic models on a Gaussian base, contributing to what is called Modern Portfolio Theory. Simply, if you remove their Gaussian assumptions and treat prices as scalable, you are left with hot air. The Nobel Committee could have tested the Sharpe and Markowitz models they work like quack remedies sold on the Internet but nobody in Stockholm seems to have thought about it.[14]:p.279
[edit] The MPT does not take its own effect on asset prices into account
Diversification eliminates non-systematic risk, but at the cost of increasing the systematic risk. Diversification forces the portfolio manager to invest in assets without analyzing their fundamentals, solely for the benefit of eliminating the portfolios non-systematic risk (the CAPM assumes investment in all available assets). This artificially increased demand pushes up the price of assets that, when analyzed individually, would be of little fundamental value. The result is that the whole portfolio becomes more expensive and, as a result, the probability of a positive return decreases (i.e. the risk of the portfolio increases). Empirical evidence for this is the price hike that stocks typically experience once they are included in major indices like the S&P 500.[citation needed]
[edit] Extensions
Since MPT's introduction in 1952, many attempts have been made to improve the model, especially by using more realistic assumptions. Post-modern portfolio theory extends MPT by adopting non-normally distributed, asymmetric measures of risk. This helps with some of these problems, but not others. Black-Litterman model optimization is an extension of unconstrained Markowitz optimization which incorporates relative and absolute `views' on inputs of risk and returns.
maximize the overall relevance of a ranked list of documents and at the same time minimize the overall uncertainty of the ranked list.[19]
Treynor ratio
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The Treynor ratio (sometimes called the reward-to-volatility ratio or Treynor measure[1]), named after Jack L. Treynor,[2] is a measurement of the returns earned in excess of that which could have been earned on an investment that has no diversifiable risk (e.g., Treasury Bills or a completely diversified portfolio), per each unit of market risk assumed.
Formula
where: Treynor ratio, portfolio i's return, risk free rate portfolio i's beta
[edit] Limitations
Like the Sharpe ratio, the Treynor ratio (T) does not quantify the value added, if any, of active portfolio management. It is a ranking criterion only. A ranking of portfolios based on the Treynor Ratio is only useful if the portfolios under consideration are sub-portfolios of a broader, fully diversified portfolio. If this is not the case, portfolios with identical systematic risk, but different total risk, will be rated the same. But the portfolio with a higher total risk is less diversified and therefore has a higher unsystematic risk which is not priced in the market.
The Sharpe ratio or Sharpe index or Sharpe measure or reward-to-variability ratio is a measure of the excess return (or risk premium) per unit of risk in an investment asset or a trading strategy, named after William Forsyth Sharpe. Since its revision by the original author in 1994, it is defined as:
where R is the asset return, Rf is the return on a benchmark asset, such as the risk free rate of return, E[R Rf] is the expected value of the excess of the asset return over the benchmark return, and is the standard deviation of the excess of the asset return. (This is often confused with the excess return over the benchmark return; the Sharpe ratio utilizes the asset standard deviation whereas the information ratio utilizes standard deviation of excess return over the benchmark, i.e. the tracking error, as the denominator.) Note, if Rf is a constant risk free return throughout the period,
The Sharpe ratio is used to characterize how well the return of an asset compensates the investor for the risk taken, the higher the Sharpe ratio number the better. When comparing two assets each with the expected return E[R] against the same benchmark with return Rf, the asset with the higher Sharpe ratio gives more return for the same risk. Investors are often advised to pick investments with high Sharpe ratios. However like any mathematical model it relies on the data being correct. Pyramid schemes with a long duration of operation would typically provide a high Sharpe ratio when derived from reported returns but the inputs are false. When examining the investment performance of assets with smoothing of returns (such as with-profits funds) the Sharpe ratio should be derived from the performance of the underlying assets rather than the fund returns. Sharpe ratios, along with Treynor ratios and Jensen's alphas, are often used to rank the performance of portfolio or mutual fund managers.
[edit] History
In 1952, A. D. Roy suggested maximizing the ratio "(m-d)/", where m is expected gross return, d is some "disaster level" (a.k.a., minimum acceptable return) and is standard deviation of returns.[1] This ratio is just the Sharpe Ratio, only using minimum acceptable return instead of risk-free return in the numerator, and using standard deviation of returns instead of standard deviation of excess returns in the denominator. In 1966, William Forsyth Sharpe developed what is now known as the Sharpe ratio.[2] Sharpe originally called it the "reward-to-variability" ratio before it began being called the Sharpe Ratio by later academics and financial operators.
Sharpe's 1994 revision acknowledged that the risk free rate changes with time. Prior to this revision the definition was assuming a constant Rf . Recently, the (original) Sharpe ratio has often been challenged with regard to its appropriateness as a fund performance measure during evaluation periods of declining markets.[3]
[edit] Examples
Suppose the asset has an expected return of 15% in excess of the risk free rate. We typically do not know if the asset will have this return; suppose we assess the risk of the asset, defined as standard deviation of the asset's excess return, as 10%. The risk-free return is constant. Then the Sharpe ratio (using a new definition) will be 1.5 (R Rf = 0.15 and = 0.10). As a guide post, one could substitute in the longer term return of the S&P500 as 10%. Assume the risk-free return is 3.5%. And the average standard deviation of the S&P500 is about 16%. Doing the math, we get that the average, long-term Sharpe ratio of the US market is about 0.4 ((10%-3.5%)/16%). But we should note that if one were to calculate the ratio over, for example, three-year rolling periods, then the Sharpe ratio could vary dramatically.
development of the Modigliani Risk-Adjusted Performance measure, which is in units of percent return universally understandable by virtually all investors.
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