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Final Exam CCNA Discovery 3 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise English FormI-1a DRSEnt v4.

0 Final =================================================== What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge? faster communication with server farms * stronger security against malicious attacks faster communication with Internet destinations enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network e ngineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extr anet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.) * define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets * add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts connect remote locations directly to the intranet configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecess ary broadcasts deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table? * R [120/1] via, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1 R [120/1] via, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0 R [120/2] via, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0 R [120/3] via, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0 R [120/1] via, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0 Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the net work have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On wh ich router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Intern et access for all hosts in the network? R1 * R2 R3 ISP Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the c ompany networks. Where should the ACL shown in the exhibit be placed to meet the se requirements? R2: Fa0/0 inbound * R1: S0/1/0 outbound R1: S0/0/1 inbound R2: S0/0/1 outbound R2: Fa0/0 outbound Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.) to set the duplex mode of a redundant link to activate looped paths throughout the network * to determine the root bridge to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches * to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 i

s the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the borde r router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. H owever, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Inter net traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes: BorderR(config)# ip route 200 BorderR(config)# ip route However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the c onfiguration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing? The first configuration command overwrites the second command. The first default route will be installed into the routing table if the re is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the network. * This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to IS P1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing ta ble. The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unle ss the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip r oute command. Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the network? a child route that is defined a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface * a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path the result of the no auto-summary command on a router Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR? * C, B, A, D D, C, B, A A, B, C, D A, C, B, D B, C, A, D A network administrator at headquarters is configuring an ACL for a remote route r in the branch office. The administrator issues the command reload in 20 before the ACL is placed for testing. What is the purpose of this command? If remote access to the router is blocked, the router will reload in 20 seconds. * The router will automatically reload in 20 minutes even if remote conn ectivity is lost. If a remote connection to the router lasts for 20 minutes, the router w ill save the configuration to NVRAM and reload. If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where t he ACL is applied, the router will reload in 20 seconds. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A netwo rk administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true? RB has the lowest priority value. RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network. * RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers. RA and RB can not form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state. How does CHAP secure connectivity on a PPP link? It uses a two-way handshake to send the username and password. It encrypts user data that is sent across the link.

It designates the remote node to control the frequency and timing of th e login attempts. * It authenticates the username and password during initial link establi shment and repeatedly during the time the link is active. Which element of the hierarchical design model provides a connection point for e nd-user devices to the network? core layer edge device * access layer enterprise edge distribution layer Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be assigned to the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access host B? * Refer to the exhibit. A router has learned the six routes that are shown in the exhibit. Which two routes will be installed in the routing table? (Choose two.) 1 * 2 3 4 5 * 6 What are three correct host addresses in the network? (Choose thre e.) * * * What are two features of an extended IP ACL? (Choose two.) It uses numbers 1 through 99 for identification. * It can permit or deny traffic based on source or destination address. It detects malicious attacks against the network and logs them on a ser ver. * It can filter traffic based on the protocol and port numbers. It encrypts traffic between hosts. What are two advantages of using dynamic routing protocols in a network? (Choose two.) * They adapt to topological changes. They are more secure than static routes. They eliminate the need for default routes. They have lower administrative distances than static routes. * They enable routers to share information about the reachability and st atus of remote networks. Refer to the exhibit. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the di splayed commands? the session from host A to host B the session from host B to hosts C and D * the session from host B to hosts E and F

the session from host E and host F to host A and host B Which two statements correctly describe RSTP? (Choose two.) It is a Cisco proprietary protocol. * It recalculates the spanning tree in less than 1 second. It requires the PortFast and UplinkFast features on switch ports. It supports four states: blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding. * It requires a full-duplex, point-to-point connection between switches to achieve the highest recalculation speed. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses? (Choose two.) * * Where are EIGRP successor routes stored? only in the routing table only in the neighbor table * in the routing table and the topology table in the routing table and the neighbor table Refer to the exhibit. Users on the network are unable to access a ny of the servers located on the network. Given the network topol ogy and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two .) There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers. * There is a network statement missing. * Network has an incorrect wildcard mask. The OSPF area configuration is incorrect. /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the network. Which routing protocol is unable to support discontiguous networks? * RIPv1 RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed? D is a summary, Null0 * D is a summary, Null0 D [90/203010] via, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0 D [90/203010] via, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0 What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table? Routes that are passive are never updated. Routes that are active are used to forward data. * Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL. Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to complete. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers. What is the DR/BD R status immediately after all routers have converged? R1 is the DR. R3 is the BDR. R2 is the DR. R5 is the BDR. R3 is the DR. R4 is the BDR.

R4 is the DR. R5 is the BDR. * R5 is the DR. R2 is the BDR. A RIPv2 enabled router has been configured with the redistribute static command. What function does this command serve? creates a default route * propagates a default route to neighboring routers allows the default administrative distance for static routes to be alte red establishes a backup static route which can be used if the dynamic rout ing protocol fails A Frame Relay service provider is reviewing a contract with a potential customer . Which term would be used when referencing the minimum guaranteed bandwidth tha t is provided on each virtual circuit? EIR * CIR Tc Bc DE How can a network administrator determine if network traffic has matched an ACL if there is no syslog server configured on the network? * Issue the show access-lists command. Delete the ACL and add it back, noting changes in traffic flow. Remove the ACL from any configured interface and note traffic changes. Verify the counters on the router interface and see if they are increme nting. In order for a VLAN to be created on a switch, what configuration parameter is r equired? VTP domain name * VLAN number VLAN IP address VLAN database name Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this error message after entering co mmands to configure a router interface. Which command could the administrator en ter that would avoid the error? Router(config-if)# ip address * Router(config-if)# ip address Router(config-if)# ip address Router(config-if)# ip address What should be considered when designing an addressing scheme that uses private IP address space? Private IP addresses are globally routable. Address summarization is not recommended. * Hierarchical design principles should be utilized. Discontiguous networks are no longer problematic. Which statement is true about the difference between CHAP and PAP in PPP authent ication? PAP and CHAP provide equivalent protection against replay attacks. PAP sends the password encrypted and CHAP does not send the password at all. * PAP uses a two-way handshake method and CHAP uses a three-way handshak e method. PAP sends the password once and CHAP sends the password repeatedly unti l acknowledgement of authentication is received.

Which subprotocol does PPP use to establish, maintain, test, and terminate a poi nt-to-point link? * LCP NCP IPCP IPXCP Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 cannot communicate. What could be the ca use of the problem? * Usernames on both routers R1 and R2 are misconfigured. The passwords are identical on both routers. The encapsulation command is entered incorrectly. The IP addressing scheme has incorrect subnet masks. What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a Layer 2 switch? * to allow in-band management to provide inter-VLAN connectivity to facilitate election of a root bridge to configure a default gateway for the network Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a Cisco router for inte r-VLAN routing. The router is connected to port Fa0/24 on the switch using a str aight-through cable and all switchports are configured as access ports. What wil l be the result of the configuration? * Inter-VLAN traffic will not be routed. The switch will add VLAN tags and forward them to the router. The router subinterfaces will add the appropriate VLAN tags and route b etween VLANs. The switch port will auto-negotiate to a trunk port and will allow for inter-VLAN routing. What will allow a LAN switched network to maintain VLAN configuration consistenc y across the network? Enable CDP on all switch access ports. Configure DTP on all trunk ports. Enable STP on all switches. * Configure VTP on all switches. What is a feature of UDP that makes it the preferred transport protocol for VoIP communications? * minimizes delay and latency prioritizes and sorts traffic into queues classifies packets by the use of quality of service uses acknowledgments to guarantee delivery of packets Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. W hat is the reason for the route in the last line of the routing table to be mark ed as D EX? The route is configured as a static route on router R1. The route is a feasible successor to the destination net work. * The route is learned from another routing protocol or from outside the EIGRP network. The route is in the Active state and will be removed from the routing tab le in 4 minutes and 23 seconds. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured as a routing protocol on all rout ers in OSPF area 0. Based on the cost value of the links, which path will be sel ected by the SPF algorithm to forward traffic from router R4 to network A?

R4-R2-R1 R4-R3-R1 R4-R2-R3-R1 * R4-R3-R2-R1 Which routing protocol uses RTP for reliable route update delivery? RIPv1 RIPv2 OSPF * EIGRP Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are included in the failure domain of SW2? SW4, HUB1 HUB1, D, E * SW4, HUB1, C, D, E RTRA, SW1, SW3, SW4, HUB1, A, B, C, D, E A network administrator is creating an addressing scheme and has determined that the company network will require 8 subnets with at least 25 host s on each subnet. Which subnet mask will meet these requirements? /25 /26 * /27 /28 /29 Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the address translation configuratio n for traffic that exits interface s0/0/0? All hosts on the inside network will have their addresses translated to All hosts that connect to interface s0/0/0 will have their addresses tr anslated to addresses. * All hosts on the network will have their addresses tra nslated to All hosts on the inside network will have their addresses translated to any one of the addresses from the subnet. What is a limitation of RIPv1? RIPv1 cannot run on networks that are using RIPv2. * RIPv1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates. RIPv1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors. RIPv1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function eff ectively. RIPv1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates usin g a Class D address. What is the function of mutilink PPP? It allows VLAN ID information to be forwarded between multiple routers on the WAN. * It allows multiple physical links to be used as a single logical link. It allows multiple remote users to share the same VPN tunnel. It allows an enterprise to connect to multiple ISPs Refer to the exhibit. An enterprise web server has a private IP address. To allo w access to the web server from external users, a static NAT statement is config ured on the Border router. In an attempt to manage traffic that is bound for the server, the network administrator creates an inbound ACL on the outside NAT int erface of the router. What address will be used in the ACL as the destination IP address? the inside interface address of the router

the external interface address of the router the private address of the web server * the translated public address of the web server What are two characteristics of a static route? (Choose two.) * A static route can be used by border routers to provide secure and sta ble paths to the ISP. * By default, a static route is more secure than dynamic routing. A static route automatically adapts to topology changes. A static route can only be used with classful addressing schemes. A static route creates processing overhead in a large network.