CISCO IMPLEMENTING

Q.1 A. C. Q.2 A. C. Q.3 A. B. C. D. Q.4 A. B. C. Q.5 A. C. Q.6 A. C. Q.7 A. C. Q.8 A. C. Q.9 A. C. In _______ topology all the devices are connected together to a singe bus. Bus B. Star Mesh D. Ring ________ is used to connect the computers in a building. LAN B. WAN MAN D. SAN In half duplex mode, _______________. All stations can only transmit the data at a time All stations can only receive the data at a time All the stations in the network may transmit or receive but at different times All the stations in the network may transmit or receive at the same time The core layer ________. Manipulates the packet by querying Reduces the latency time in the delivery of packets Ensures that packets are properly routed between the subnets The component of the distribution layer includes ______ . Multiplexer B. Hub Router D. Repeater The function of presentation layer is to _______. Encrypt data B. Validate and establish connection Close the session D. Flow control Network layer is responsible for ________ delivery of a packer. source-to-destination B. end-to-end point-to-point D. error free Access control is achieved at the ______layer. Physical B. Presentation Session D. Data link The ARP protocol is a part of the ________ layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Application B. Network Transport D. Physical

Q.10 ________ allows you to upload web pages.

A. C.

HTTP HTML

B. D.

TCP UDP 16 4

Q.11 An IP address is a _______ bit number. A. 32 B. C. 8 D.

Q.12 The bit ________ in the subnet mask represents the host number. A. 1 B. 0 C. 255 D. 156 Q.13 The class A has ________ network bits. A. 16 B. C. 8 D. 24 32

Q.14 ________ hubs do not require electricity to run. A. Active B. Hybrid C. Passive D. Intelligent Q.15 The ________ indicator denotes the transmission time of data in a hub. A. COL B. JAB C. BNC D. LAN Q.16 __________ reduce collision domains using micro segmentation. A. Bridges B. Routers C. Hubs D. Switches Q.17 The _________ type of switches ensures speed of data packets across the network. A. Cut through B. Store and Forward C. Fragment Free Switches D. Active Q.18 Fragment free switching check ______ bytes of data. A. 4 B. 16 C. 24 D. 64 Q.19 The _________ device provides a digital interface for connection routers and digital circuits. A. Channel services unit B. Modem C. Terminal D. Router Q.20 The POST is a series of _______ tests. A. 14 B. C. 12 D. 13 11

Q.21 The _______ component is not present in every router. A. POST B. Bootstrap program

C.

Mini-IOS

D.

DRAM

Q.22 The _______ mode enables you to change the security settings. A. User exec mode B. Privileged exec mode C. Configuration mode D. Boot mode Q.23 The _______ command enables you to switch from the user mode to privileged mode. A. enables B. disables C. config D. switches Q.24 A. B. C. D. CTRL+F in the CLI enable you to _________. Moves the cursor back by one character Moves the cursor forward by one word Moves the cursor back by one word Moves the cursor forward one character at a time

Q.25 The ________ option saves the configuration file that is created and uses it as the active configuration file. A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 Q.26 The _________ command enables you to change the name for the router. A. hostname B. name C. banner D. router Q.27 The _______ command enables you to set encrypted passwords for the privilege mode. A. line console B. line vty C. enable password D. enable secret Q.28 The ________ command enables you to display summarized information about the interfaces. A. show ip route B. show ip interface brief C. show ip interface D. show interface Q.29 The _______ command enables you to view the physical connection of router interface. A. show ip route B. show ip route C. show ip interface D. show interface Q.30 You can bring up a router interface using the ________ command. A. enables B. shutdown C. no shutdown D. show interface Q.31 The IGRP protocol is a ________ protocol.

A. C.

Routing Non-routable

B. D.

Routed Routable Routed Routable

Q.32 DLC is an example of _______ protocol. A. Routing B. C. Non-routable D.

Q.33 The _______metric measures traffic over the network. A. Hops B. Load C. Delay D. Bandwidth Q.34 The ________ metric specifies the amount of data that can travel over the network segment. A. Hops B. Load C. Delay D. Bandwidth Q.35 The _______ design goal refers to the ability of the routers to agree on optimal routers. A. Robustness B. Convergence C. Flexibility D. Optimal Route Q.36 The _______ is an interior Gateway Protocol that manages the exchange of routing table information among routers. A. RIP B. OSPF C. IGRP D. EIGRP Q.37 ________ uses the Diffusing Updates Algorithm to update the routing table. A. RIP B. OSPF C. IGRP D. EIGRP Q.38 ________ is a routing protocol to determine the right path over which the data can be transferred. A. Routing Algorithm B. Routing protocol C. Metrics D. Link-state protocol Q.39 The _________ is a link-state routing protocol, used to handle routing for Internet Protocol traffic. A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. VLSM Q.40 The OSPF was created to overcome the drawbacks that _______ faced. A. IGRP B. EIRP C. RIP D. VLSM Q.41 The Area ID is a _______ bit digit number that uses dotted decimal notation of the IP address.

A. C.

8 32

B. D.

16 64

Q.42 The area created in an OSPF area is a _______ area. A. Normal B. Stub C. Totally stubby D. Not-so-stubby Q.43 The OSPF maintains a two-layer hierarchy consisting of _________ and ________. A. Common area B. Backbone area C. Totally stubby area D. Off-backbone area Q.44 A ________ was created to conserve addressing space make it possible to define subnets of varying sizes. A. RIP B. VLSM C. EIGRP D. OSPF Q.45 A 0 in a bit position of a wildcard mask means that the ________ in the wildcard mask in order to execute the ACLs action. A. Same bit position in the condition address must match the same bit position B. Same bit position in the IP address must match the same bit position C. Both the bit position in the IP and condition address must match the same bit position D. Any of the bit position in the IP and condition address must match the same bit position Q.46 A. B. C. D. Q.47 A. B. C. D. Q.48 A. B. C. D. The value 0.0.0.0 is a wildcard mask that implies matching _________. None of the bit position in the address Every bit position in an address Some of the bit position in the address Alternate bit positions in the address Standard IP ACLs can match on ________. Either the source or the destinations IP address Source as well as destination IP addresses Source IP address Destination IP address Extended IP ACLs must be placed ________. Between the source and destination device Either closes to the source or destination device Close to the destination device Close to the source device as possible

Q.49 The Cisco HDLC protocol consists of _______ fields. A. 6 B. 7 C. 5 D. 9

Q.50 The ________ protocol is based on the HDLC protocol. A. POP B. PPP C. PAP D. SLIP Q.51 The PPP replaced ________. A. HDLC C. SLIP B. D. OSPF PAP 5 8 OSPF POP3 HDLC SLIP

Q.52 The PPP frame consists of ________ fields. A. 7 B. C. 6 D. Q.53 ________ is a component of PPP. A. LCP C. SLIP B. D.

Q.54 ________ is a better authentication protocol. A. PAP B. C. CHAP D.

Q.55 The _______ protocol is used to check for errors. A. CHAP B. PAP C. FCS D. HDLC Q.56 The _______ interface is a two-wire interface that connects to the NT1 device. A. T B. R C. U D. S Q.57 The PRI transmits data at a bit rate of ________. A. 1.544 Mbps B. 15.00 MBps C. 1.544 MBps D. 15.44 Mbps Q.58 The T1 channel provides a group of _______ DSOs. A. 16 B. 24 C. 32 D. 64 Q.59 The _______ channels transmit data at a speed of 64kb/s. A. R B. D C. S D. B Q.60 PRIs consist of ______ B and 1 D channel. A. 24 B. C. 64 D. Q.61 The _______ framing is used for E1 channels. 30 12

A. C.

crc4 crc

B. D.

esf esf4

Q.62 _________ represents the digital signal on a transmission line using 1s and 0s. A. Framing B. Line code C. Clock source D. Timeslots Q.63 A. B. C. D. The address of a Frame Relay VC is called ________. Data link communication identifier Data link connector identifier Data link connection identifier Data link communication identification

Q.64 The _______ defines how Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other. A. LMI B. DLCI C. PVC D. SVC Q.65 A. B. C. D. Q.66 A. B. C. D. The _________ is a network in which broadcasts are not supported. Nonbroadcast multiple access Nonbroadcast multi-access Nonbroadcast single access Nonbroadcast multi-point access The _______ is used to perform keep alive messages. Nonbroadcast multiple access Nonbroadcast multi-access Nonbroadcast single access Nonbroadcast multi-point access

Q.67 Users can configure _______ to the port level and use the remainder of the IP address for other translations. A. Dynamic address translations B. Static address translations C. NAT D. Dynamic NAT Q.68 While configuring NAT, you can use the _______ command that defines as IP NAT pool for inside network. A. access-list B. ip nat inside source list pool C. ip nat outside source pool D. ip nat pool Q.69 The _______ command displays the translation statistics while verifying NAT operations. A. show ip nat statistics B. show ip nat translation (verbose) C. Dynamic NAT D. Static NAT

Q.70 The _______ feature can also be used to translate to only one or a few external addresses. A. NAT B. PAT C. Dynamic NAT D. Static NAT Q.71 The ________ Catalyst 1900 series switches has a capacity to support ______ MAC addresses. A. 1064 B. 1024 C. 1204 D. 2064 Q.72 The command used to display the default configuration of the Catalyst 1900 series switches is __________. A. show running-config B. show default-config C. run config D. default config Q.73 The _______ duplex mode is the default mode for 10 Mbps TX connections. A. Auto B. Full C. Half D. Full-flow control Q.74 The ________ is a hardware that identifies each node in a network uniquely. A. Duplex B. Switch C. Attachment Unit Interface D. Media Access Control Q.75 The Catalyst 2900 series switches are available in ________ or ________ bytes of memory sizes. A. 4 or 8 B. 6 or 12 C. 3 or 9 D. 2 or 4 Q.76 The ________ feature limits the number of MAC addresses associated with the port in the MAC address table. A. Dynamic Address B. Permanent Address C. Restricted-static-entries D. Port Security Q.77 The 2900 series switches have the capacity to support _______ ports. A. 6124 B. 8214 C. 8124 D. 4218 Q.78 ________ is used to connect the computers in a building. A. LAN B. MAN C. VLAN D. WAN Q.79 To work with a VLAN, you require a layer of _______ switches that supports them. A. Two B. Three C. Six D. Eight

Q.80 Cisco switches supports two different trunking protocols ________ and ________ both providing basic trunking. A. VLAN1and VLAN2 B. Cisco 2950 and Cisco 1900 C. ISL and 802.1Q D. Client and Transparent Q.81 Each time a VTP server modifies its VLAN information, it increments the configuration revision number by ______ . A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 Q.82 VLAN _______ provides a method of transferring VLAN information between VLAN groups. A. Trunking B. Pruning C. Tagging D. Linking Q.83 In the ________ mode you cannot create, change or delete VLANs on a VTP client. A. Client B. Server C. Transparent D. Privileged Q.84 The ________ protocol allows tagging of the data frame before transferring it to a VLAN. A. Inter-switch link B. 802.1Q C. Frame Check Sequence D. Inter-state link Q.85 The changes made in a ________ mode will affect only to that switch. A. Client B. Server C. Transparent D. 2950 Q.86 VTP _______ is a Cisco VTP feature that allows your switch to dynamically delete or add VLANs to its trunk, creating more efficient switching network. A. Pruning B. Trunking C. Configuring D. Switching Q.87 A private network that connects remote users using a public network is referred to as ________. A. LAN B. VPN C. MAN D. WAN Q.88 The key length for the DH-5 option is _______. A. 786-bit B. 1024-bit C. 1536-bit D. 1080-bit Q.89 ________ is not the other name for encryption key. A. Shared Session key B. Tunnel secret key C. Session key D. Shared key

Q.90 A. C. Q.91 A. C.

Which is not a VPN tunneling protocol? L2F B. L2TP GRE D. VTP What is the key length of DFS encryption algorithm? 64 B. 128 56 D. 256

Q.92 The IPv6 address AA00:0023:0001:CCA0:0000:0000:0000:0056 can be abbreviated as ________. A. C. AA00:0023:1:CCA0::56 AA00:23:0001:CCA0::56 B. D. AA00:0023:0001:CCA0::56 AA00:23:1:CCA0::56

Q.93 The prefix length of the IPv6 address 2000:2795:5400:0562:AD35:98AD:1234:9ABC/64 is _________. A. 48 B. 64 C. 128 D. 96 Q.95 The _________ protocol does not support IPv6. A. RIPng B. OSPFv3 C. EIGRP D. ICMPv4 Q.96 A. B. C. D. The stateful DHCP does not _________. Remember IPv6 address according to the client request Assign IPv6 address to the client Supply useful information such as DNS server IP address Combine with stateless auto configuration FE AC

Q.97 Link local addresses start from ________. A. AB B. C. FD D. Q.98 A. B. C. D.

The _______ command is used to enable IPv6 packet forwarding in a router. ipv6 address address/prefix-length (eui-64) ipv6 router rip name ipv6 unicast-routing show ipv6 route

Q.99 _________ is not a WLAN standard defined by IEEE. A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11w Q.100 _______ is used to send and receive data in a WLAN. A. Access point B. Switch C. Router D. Protocols

Q.101 SSID Cloaking feature is used to _________ . A. Stop AP from sending the periodic Beacon frames B. Stop AP from sending the acknowledgement frames C. Stop AP from sending the probe message D. Stop AP from sending the exchange keys Q.102 For sending data successfully through WLAN, the SNR must be _______. A. High B. Low C. Medium D. Null Q.103 Which mode is used in implementing wireless network in organizations? A. Ad hoc B. Infrastructure C. AWPP D. LWAPP