INTRODUCTION, THERAPEUTIC DRUG MONITORING & PATIENT COUNCELLING 1.

The application of pharmacokinetic principles for the rational drug design of an

individualized dosage regimen is called a) Clinical practice b) Clinical pharmacokinetics c) Clinical therapy d) Pharmacodynamics

2. The concentration range between Minimum Effective concentration to

Maximum Tolerable Concentration is called a) Therapy b) Therapeutic window c) Therapeutic door d) Therapeutic practice

3. What is the main objective of Therapeutic Drug Monitoring?

a) To keep Serum Drug Concentration in Therapeutic window b) To identify patient specific pharmacokinetics & individualize dosage regimen c) To identify patient risk for Adverse reactions d) All the above

4. Which of the following drugs should be under TDM?

a) Amikacin c) Pheniramine a) Indinavir c) Both a & b a) Theophylline c) Thioxanthine a) Therapeutic Drug Monitoring c)Both a & b a) Insulin c) Phenytoin a) Indinavir c) Diazepam b) Paracetamol d) Ibuprofen b) Lidocaine d) Nifedipine b) Theoxanthine d) Thioridazine b) Pharmacokinetics d) None of the above b) Methotrexate d) None of the above b) Penicillin d) Benzocaine

5. Which of the following is under TDM for special conditions?

6. Which drug has to be Therapeutically monitored in Asthma?

7. Drug assay is important component of what

8. Radio Immune Assayin conjunction to TDM is employed for

9. The following drug should be under TDM in hepatic condition

10. Which of the following drug does not require TDM

a) Netilmicin c) Both a & b 1) Phenobarbital 2) Carbamazepine a) 1 & 3 c) 4

b) Phenytoin d) None of the above 3) Phenytoin 4) Ethosuximide b) 3 & 4 d) None of the above b) Digitalis heart d) Paracetamol kidney

11. Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs does not require TDM

12. Hypokalemia increased toxicity of

a) Paracetamol liver c) Salicylates liver

13. Hypo albunimia means

a) b) c) d) Increases free drug concentration in plasma Decreases free drug concentration in plasma No change of free drug concentration in plasma Depends on drug or cant say

14. Kaolin Pectin mixture

a) Decreases absorption of Digoxin b) Increases absorption of Digoxin c) No change on absorption of Digoxin d) None of the above

15. For how much percentage compliance, patient compliance is passed

a) 90% b) 85 90% c) 85% d) 80%

16. TDM is essential for

a) Low therapeutic index drugs b) Long term drugs c) Drug poisoning & Toxicity studies d) All the above

17. Which of the following has faster elimination rate?

a) Gentamicin c) Paracetamol of a) Amino glycosides c) Methotrexate TDM of a) Sulphones c) Sulfonylureas 2 b) Digoxine d) Ethosuximide b) Penicillin d) Ibuprofen

18. Differentiate blood count, Liver function tests should be associated with TDM

19. Fasting glucose and Glycosylated haemoglobin levels should be included in

b) Sulphonamides d) Digoxin

20. What is the formula for percentage compliance

a) % complience = (NDD - NME) x 100 NDP b) % complience = (NDP - NME) x 100 NDD c) % complience = (NDD - NME) x 100 NDD d) % complience = (NDP - NME) x 100 NDP

ANSWERS: 1.B 7.C 13.A 19.C 2.B 8.A 14.A 20.D 3.D 9.A 15.A 4.A 10.D 16.D 5.C 11.D 17.A 6.A 12.C 18.C

DRUG DRUG INTERACTIONS 1. What is the interaction between Penicillin and Probenacid? a) Absorption, Beneficial b) Absorption, Harmful c) Excretion, Beneficial d) Metabolism, Benificial 2. Which of the following reason can cause drug-drug interaction? a) Drug potency b) Consultation of several physicians c) Patient Non-compliance d) All the above 3. Which of the following statements about OTC medications is true? a) They can be procured without prescription b) They can cause drug-drug interaction c) Only pharmacist can avoid the drug-drug interactions by OTCs d) All the above 4. When is Cheese reaction observed? a) Pressoramines and Yeast c) MAO inhibitors b) MAO inhibitors and beef d) Tetracyclins and Chicken

5. What type of DDI is observed between Asprin & Anticoagulants? a) Absorption b) Distribution c) Metabolism d) Excretion 6. Alcohol increases metabolism of a) Warfarin c) Tolbutamide b) Phenytoin d) All the above

7. Which of the following is an auto inducer? a) Warfarin b) Rifampicin c) Aspirin d) Phenacetin 8. What is homergic effect? a) When two drugs belongs to same chemical class are administered together b) When two drugs produce same effect c) Both a & b d) None of the above 9. Which of the following drugs absorption is reduced or delayed by antacids? a) Phenobarbital b) Pseudoephedrine c) Both a & b d) None of the above

10. Which of the following drugs absorption is increased by antacids? a) Phenobarbital b) Pseudoephedrine c) Both a & b d) None of the above 11. Antacids, when administered with Bisacodyl; causes a) GI irritation b) Vomiting c) Both a & b d) None of the above 12. The absorption of tetracyclines is hampered by a) Milk b) Metal ions c) Antacids d) All the above 13. Compared to Tetracycline, Doxycycline is devoid of a) Absorption related DDI b) Distribution related DDI c) Metabolism related DDI d) Excretion related DDI 14. What is the effect of Alluminium Hydroxide gel on the absorption of Doxycycline / Minocycline? a) Decreased b) Increased c) Largely unaffected d) Increased in presence of food 15. Prolonged usage of Cholestyramine causes a) Decreased absorption of vit. A,D,E,K b) Decreased absorption of vit. B & C c) Increased absorption of vit. A,D,E,K d) Increased absorption of vit. B & C 16. Which of the following drugs absorption is increased by food? a) Penicillin b) Tetracyclines c) Rifampicin d) Riboflavin 17. Which of the following drugs absorption is decreased by food? a) Penicillin b) Tetracyclines c) Rifampicin d) All the above 18. Food increases the bioavailability of a) Propranolol c) Spironolactone 19. Propanthelin causes DDIs by a) Delayed gastric emptying c) No effect b) Metaprolol d) All the above b) Enhanced GI emptying d) Enhanced excretion

20. Phenytoin causes gingivitis because of altered absorption of a) Vit. A b) Vit. K

c) Folic acid

d) Thiamine

21. Kernicterus is caused by Sulphonamides because of a) Displacement of bilirubin b) Excretion of Phenobarbitone c) Displacement of Phenylbutazone d) None of the above 22. The interaction between Allopurinol and Azathioprin is related to a) Absorption b) Metabolism c) Excretion d) Distribution 23. MAO inhibitors can a. Inhibit microsomal enzymes b. Induce microsomal enzymes c. No effect on microsomal enzymes d. Cause no reaction with cheese 24. Frusemide increases the toxicity of which drug a) Aspirin b) Paracetamol c) Ibuprofen d) Doclofenac 25. Quinidine increases the toxicity of which drug a) Digoxine b) Digitonin c) Both a & b d) None of the above 26. Digoxin can be prescribed with a) Frusemide c) Ethacrynic acid b) Bumetanide d) Triampterene

27. Lithium carbonate should not be prescribed with which drug a) Frusemide b) Bumetanide c) Ethacrynic acid d) All the above 28. Which of the following drugs produce Atropine like symptoms? a) MAO I & Amphetamine b) MAO I & TCAs c)MAO I & Tyramine d) None of the above 29. Guanethidine shows less effect in presence of which drugs a) Amphetamine b) TCAs c) Antipsychotics d) All the above 30. Which of the following combinations show synergism? a) Trimethoprim & Sulphamethoxazole b) Ibuprofen & Paracetamol c) Pheneramine & Aspirin d) All the above

31. What are the classifications of drug interactions? i) Pharmacokinetic interactions ii) Pharmacodynamic interactions iii) Pharmaceutic interactions iv) All the above a) i only is correct b) iii only is correct c) i&ii are correct d) ii&iii are correct e) All are correct 32. P) Aminophylline I.V + Cephalothin sodium Q) Antagonism / Addition / Synergism R) Absorption / Distribution / Metabolism / Excretion a) P - 2 b) P - 1 c) P - 1 Q - 3 Q - 2 Q - 3 Q -1 R - 1 R - 3 R - 2 R2 33. Match the following P) Tetracyclines Q) Warfarin R) Salicylates S) Phenobarbital a) P 4 b) P 3 Q2 Q2 R3 R-1 S1 S4 34. Match the following P) Laxatives Q) Anti diarrhoeals R) Antacids S) Antibiotics a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-1 S4 1) Pharmacokinetics 2) Pharmaceutic 3) Pharmacodynamics d) P - 3

1) Metabolism 2) Distribution 3) Absorption 4) Excretion c) P 3 Q-2 R4 S1 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4

1) Adsorption 2) PH 3) Microbial flora 4) Motility c) P 4 Q-1 R2 S3 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4

35. Match the following P) Cimetidine Q) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons R) MAO Inhibitors S) Probenicid a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-1 S4

1) Penicillin 2) Enzyme inhibition 3) Enzyme induction 4) Cheese reaction c) P 2 Q-3 R4 S1 1) Cl2) Ca++ 3) Na+ 4) K+ c) P 3 Q-2 R4 S1 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4

36. Match the following P) Tetracyclines Q) Digoxin R) Lithium S) Diazepam a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 2 Q3 R4 S1

37. Match the following P) Food x Naproxen(NSAID) Q) Food x Griseofulvin R) Food x Metronidazole a) P 3 Q1 R2 b) P 3 Q2 R-1

1) Delays / decreases 2) Increases 3) No effect c) P 2 Q-3 R1 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3

38. Match the following P) Cholestyramine x Thyroxine

1) Displacement from protein binding site Q) Rifampicin x Oral contraceptives 2)Increased metabolism R) Digoxin x Erythromycin 3) Decreased absorption S) Valproate x Phenytoin 4) Increased absorption a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-1 S4 c) P 3 Q-2 R4 S1 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4

39. Match the following P) Fluconazole X Tolbutamide Q) Phenytoin X Valproate R) Smoking X Theophylline S) Alcohol X Phenytoin a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-1 S4

1) Decreased metabolism 2) Increased metabolism 3) Increased clearance c) P 1 Q-3 R2 S4 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4

40. Match the following P) Fluconazole x Tolbutamide Q) Warfarin x Aspirin R) Alcohol x CNS depressants a) P 1 Q3 R2 b) P 3 Q2 R-1

1) CNS depression 2) Bleeding 3) Hypoglycemia c) P 2 Q-1 R3 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3

41. Which of the following can cause DDI? a) Multiple drug therapy b) Multiple prescribers c) Patient non compliance d) All the above 42. Which of the following drugs can be used in a Diabetic hypertensive patient? a) Propranolol b) Captopril c) Atenolol d) Sotolol 43. P- Glycoprotein (PGP) is of much interest recently because of what a) It acts as pump b) It can affect absorption, distribution & excretion of drugs c) It plays a role in drug-drug interactions d) All the above 44. Which of the following drugs inhibit PGP? a) Cyclosporin A b) Quinidine c) Clarithromycin d) All the above 45. Which of the following induces PGP? a) Rifampicin c) Cyclosporin b) Clarithromycin d) None of the above

46. Acidic drugs bind to which of the following type of plasma proteins? a) Albumin b) -acid glycoprotein c) Prothrombin d) None of the above

47. Basic drugs bind to which of the following type of plasma protein? a) Albumin b) -acid glycoprotein c) Prothrombin d) None of the above 48. Ketoconazole inhibits CYP3A4 and causes interaction with a) Terfanidine b) Bisacodyl c) Aspirin d) None of the above 49. Phenyl butazone has interaction with a) Methotrexate c) Both a & b ANSWERS: 1.C 7.B 13.A 19.A 25.C 31.D 37.D 43.D 49.B 2.D 8.B 14.A 20.C 26.D 32.A 38.C 44.D 3.D 9.A 15.A 21.A 27.D 33.C 39.C 45.A b) Misaprostol d) None of the above 4.B 10.B 16.D 22.B 28.B 34.C 40.B 46.A 5.B 11.C 17.D 23.A 29.D 35.C 41.D 47.B 6.D 12.D 18.D 24.A 30.A 36.B 42.B 48.A

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ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS 1. In patients who are defined to Glucose6Phosphate dehydrogenase, Primaquine causes a) Hemolytic anemia b) Megaloblastic anemia c) Constipation d) Diarrhea 2. Slow acetylators are at more risk of developing peripheral neuritis with a) Rifampicin b) PAS c) Ethambutol d) Isoniazid 3. Hepatic dysfunction increases the toxicity of a) Paracetamol c) Cephalothin b) Rifampicin d) All the above

4. A person who is tolerant to one particular drug is tolerant to that particular class of drugs. What term describes it best? a) True tolerance b)Pseudotolerance c) Intolerance d) Cross tolerance 5. Hypoalbuminimia precipitates adverse drug reaction of a) Warfarin b) Paracetamol c) Ibuprofen d) None of the above 6. Type A / Augmented ADRs occur due to a) Exaggreated pharmacological action b) Unknown pharmacological action c) Exaggreated excretion action d) None of the above 7. Which of the following is Type B / Bizzare ADR? a) Malignant hyperthermia with general anesthetics b) Acute porphyria c) Immunological ADRs d) All the above 8. Which of the following is a dermatological disorder? a) Exfoliative dermatitis with sulphonamides b) Hirsutism with Phenytoin c) Toxic erythematosus with Penicillin d) All the above 9. A patient after taking an anti-tubercular drug complains of blood in urine, tears, saliva & sweat. What could be the drug? a) Pyrazinamide b) Rifampicin

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c) Isoniazid 10. Pancytopenia is the fatal side effect of a) Chloramphenicol c) Tetracycline

d) Ethambutol b) Penicillin d) Streptomycin

11. Which of the following drugs are associated with Jaurisch-Herxheimer reaction? a) Chloramphenicol b) Penicillin c) Tetracycline d) Streptomycin 12. Which of the following is associated with Anaphylax? a) Penicillin b) Erythromycin c) Doxycycline d) Chloramphenicol 13. Fanconi syndrome is associated with a) Chloramphenicol c) Tetracycline b) Penicillin d) Streptomycin

14. Which antibiotic is most likely to cause Ototoxicity a) Chloramphenicol b) Penicillin c) Tetracycline d) Streptomycin 15. Grey Baby syndrome is associated with a) Chloramphenicol b) Penicillin c) Tetracycline d) Streptomycin 16. Which of the following drugs shows Kernicterus as the main side effect a) Sulphonamides b) Phenobarbitone c) Valproate d) None of the above 17. For which of the following drugs, Reyes syndrome is associated? a) Aspirin b) Paracetamol c) Penicillin d) None of the above 18. Which of the following is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome? a) Allopurinol b) Fluconazole c) Sulphonamides d) All the above 19. What is the most common ADR of Ganglionic blocker? a) Dry mouth b) Constipation c) Diarrhea d) Motion sickness 20. Which of the following drugs causes Nephrotoxicity? a) Gentamycin b) Amikacin c) Cisplatin d) All the above

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21. Which of the following anti tubercular drugs causes Optic neuropathy? a) Ethambutol b) PAS c) Pyrazinamide d) Isoniazid 22. Which of the following antitubercular drugs can cause Peripheral neuropathy? a) Ethambutol b) Rifamoicin c) Pyrazinamide d) Isoniazid 23. Iatrogenic pulmonary edema is caused by a) Aspirin c) Plasma expanders b) Paracetamol d) None of the above

24. Gynaecomastia & Galactorrhea are the side effects of a) Major tranquillisers b) Minor tranquillisers c) Anti depressants d) Psychodysleptics 25. Thalidomide causes a) Melia c) Dolomelia b) Phocomelia d) Tocomelia

26. Which of the following drugs produces Peptic ulcer as the common side effect? a) H1 antagonist b) H2 antagonist c) NSAIDs d) All the above 27. Which of the following drugs produces Dry cough? a) ACE inhibitors b) TACE inhibitors c) Aspirin d) Phenacetin 28. Which of the following drugs produces Lactic acidosis as the side effect? a) Rosiglitazone b) Tolbutamide c) Metformin d) None of the above 29. Metallic taste and Nausea are observed with which drugs? a) Clotrimazole b) Levo cetrizine c) Metronidazole d) Miconazole 30. Which of the following anticancer drugs produces pulmonary fibrosis as side effect? a) Anthracyclines b) Bleomycins c) Mitomycin d) Actinomycin D 31. Which of the following anti cancer drugs produces Cardiomyopathy as side effect? a) Anthracyclines b) Bleomycin c) Mitomycin d) Actinomycin D

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32. Crystalluria & Hematuria are associated with which of the following drug? a) Morphine b) Digoxin c) Sulphonamide d) Penicillin 33. Extra pyramidal symptoms are caused by which drugs? a) Antipsychotics b) Antideppressants c) Antianxiety drugs d) Mood elevators 34. Orthoslatic hypotension is seen with which of the following drugs? a) Tricyclic Antidepressants b) MAO Inhibitors c) Ca++ channel blockers d) All the above 35. Postural hypotension is seen with which of the following drugs? a) Vasodilators b) Hydralazine c) Guanethedine d) All the above 36. Impotence & Delayed ejaculation are the side effects of a) Phenothiazines b) Imipramine c) Phenelzine d) All the above 37. Match the following P) Penicillins Q) Tetracyclines R) Gentamycin S) Streptomycin a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-4 S1 c) P 1 Q-3 R2 S4 1) Ototoxicity 2) Yellow discoloration of teeth 3) Anaphylaxis 4) Nephrotoxicity d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4 1) Hemolytic anemia with Penicillin 2) Anaphylaxis with -lactam 3) Contact dermatitis from antihistamine 4) Serum sickness with globulin d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4

38. Match the following P) Type-I (Ig-E mediated) Q) Type-II (Cytotoxic) R) Type-III (Immune complex) S) Type-IV (Delayed, cell mediated) a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-1 S4 c) P 2 Q-1 R4 S3

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39. Which of the following drugs can precipitate bronchospasm? a) Propranolol b) Ibuprofen c) Both a & b d) None of the above 40. Myopathy syndrome is associated with which class of drugs? a) Statins b) Ca++ channel blockers c) Nitrates d) None of the above 41. This drug is a Vitamin. It is used as antihyperlipidimic drug. It causes Flushing & dyspepsia. What is it? a) Pyridoxine b) Riboflavin c) Thiamine d) Niacin 42. Match the following Immune reaction P) Type-I Q) Type-II R) Type-III S) Type-IV a) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-1 S4 c) P 2 Q-1 R4 S3 Timing of reaction 1) Variable 2) Min-hr 3) 2 7 days 4) 1 3 weeks d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4 Laboratory tests 1)serum tryptase, RAST, skin test 2) Coombs test 3) ESR, CRP 4) Patch test, Lymphocyte proliferation c) P 2 Q-1 R4 S3 d) P - 1 Q-2 R-3 S4

43. Match the following Immune reaction P) Type-I Q) Type II R) Type III S) Type IV b) P 4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P 3 Q2 R-1 S4

Answers
1.a 11.b 21.a 31.b 41.d 2.d 12.a 22.d 32.c 42.c 3.d 13.c 23.c 33.a 43.d 4.d 14.d 24.a 34.d 5.a 15.a 25.b 35.b 6.a 16.a 26.c 36.b 7.d 17.a 27.a 37.b 8.d 18.d 28.c 38. c 9.b 19.b 29.c 39.c 10.a 20.d 30.a 40.a

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Drugs in clinical toxicity

1. Which of the following is a universal antidote? a. D-Pencillamine b. Activated charcoal c. Desferroxamine d. Salt water Which of the following is used in morphine poisoning? a. Aspirin b. Antacid c. Naloxone d. None of the above Which of the following is used in barbiturate poisoning? a. Ipecac b. Mannitol c. Sodium bicarbonate d. All of the above Organophosporous compounds can be treated by a. Atropine b. Pralidoxime c. Both a & b d. None of the above Which of the following is used in lead poisoning? a. EDTA b. Charcoal c. BAL d. None of the above Arsenic poisoning can be antagonized by a. EDTA c. BAL Alcohol dependence can be treated with a. Monosulfiram c. Trisulfiram b. Charcoal d. None of the above b. Disulfiram d. All the above

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

Morphine dependence can be maintained by a. Methadone b. Methanol c. Dobutamine d . None of the above

Answers
1.b 2.c 3.d 4.c 5.a 6.c 7.b 8.a

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Drugs in pregnancy and lactation

1. Carbamazepine should not be prescribed in pregnancy because a. Neurological disorder b. Haematological disorder c. GIT disorder d. None of the above Which of the following antibiotic should not be used in breast feeding mother? a. Chloramphenicol b. Tetracyclines c. Quinolones d. All of the above Which of the following drugs can cause jaundice in breast fed infants? a. Sulfonamides b. Sulfones c. Both a & b d. None of the above Which of the following drugs may inhibit lactation? a. Oestrogens b. Thiazides c. Ergometrine d. All of the above Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in breast feeding mother? a. A psycho actives b. Radioactives c. Anticancer d. All of the above Which of the following is compatible with breast feeding? a. General anaesthetics b. Local anaesthetics c. Both a & b d. None of the above Which of the following are compatible with breast feeding? a. Paracetamol b. Ibuprofen c. Both a & b d. None of the above Which of the following is contraindicated in breast feeding? a. Chlorpheniramine b. Dexomethasone c. Adrenaline d. Prednisolone Which of the following is contraindicated in breast feeding? a. Albendazole b. Levamizole c. Oxamniquinine d. None of the above Which of the following is contraindicated in breast feeding? a. lactams b. Erythromycin c. Doxycyclines d. Trimethoprim Which of the following is compatible with breast feeding? a. Fluconazole c. Griseofulvin b. Amphotericin B d. Flucytosine

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

17

12.

Which of the following is compatible with breast feeding? a. Acyclovir b. Nevirapine c. Zudovudine d. None of the above Which of the following should be avoided in breast feeding? a. Atenolol b. Captopril c. Nifedipine d. None of the above Match the following Drug P. Fluoroquinolone Q. Chloramphenicol R. Phenytoin S. Propranolol Abnormality 1. Gray baby syndrome 2. Joint abnormalities 3. Slowed growth 4. Cleft palate

13.

14.

15.

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is caused by a. Nicotine b. Carbon monoxide c. Both a & b d. None of the above Answers: 1.a 2.d 11.a 12.a 3.c 13.a 4.d 14.c 5.d 15.c 6.c 7.c 8.a 9.d 10.c

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DRUGS IN HEPATIC IMPAIRMENT 1. Which of the following is caused by Aspirin in hepatic impairment? a. Increased pain relief b. Increased risk of bleeding c. Increased urination d. None of the above In hepatic disease, which of the following disease can be precipitated? a. Diarrhoea b. Apnea c. Coma d. Asphyxia Augmentin causes what in liver disease a. Cholestatic jaundice b. Constipation c. Vomiting d. None of the above Which of the following drugs can precipitate coma in liver disease? a. Chlorampheniramine b. Clonazepam c. Codeine d. All the above In liver dysfunction, which of the following diuretics is preferred? a. Furosemide b. Acetazolamide c. Bumetanide d. Amiloride Idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity is seen with a. Rifampicin c. Both a & b b. Pyrazinamide d. None of the above

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

Which of the following is high clearance drug? a. Antipsychotics b. Most opioids c. Most -blockers d. All the above Which of the following is high clearance drug? a. Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors b. Ca++ Channel blockers c. Lignocaine d. All the above Tricyclic anti depressants are what clearance drugs a. High b. Low c. Variable d. None of the above All Anti-parkinsonian drugs except Amantadine are what clearance drugs a. High b. Low c. Variable d. None of the above

8.

9.

10.

19

11.

Which of the following is low clearance drug? a. Most anti-consultants b. Amiodarone c. Anti malarials d. All the above Which of the following is a low-clearance drug? a. Rifampicin b. Retinoids c. Steroids d. All the above Which of the following is a low-clearance drug? a. Retinoids b. BZDs c. NSAIDs d. All of the above Which of the following is a low-clearance drug? a. Paracetamol b. Proton pump inhibitors c. Theophylline d. All the above Impaired liver function can be assessed by a. Albumin concentration <30g/L c. Both a & b b. Increased Prothrombin ratio > 1.2 d. None of the above

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

Which of the following -blocker is preferred in liver disease? a. Atenolol b. Propranolol c. Both a & b d. None of the above Which of the following BZD is preferred in liver disease? a. Lorazepam b. Diazepam c. Both a & b d. None of the above Which of the following drugs should be avoided in liver disease? a. Methotrexate b. Carbamazepine c. Both a & b d. None of the above The dose of high clearance drugs should be reduced by how much percentage in liver disease a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 The dose of low clearance drugs should be reduced by how much percentage in liver disease a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100

17.

18.

19.

20.

Answers: 1.b 2.c 3.a 4.d 5.d 6.b 7.d 8.d 9.a 10.b

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11.d 1.

12.d

13.d 14.d 15.d 16.a 17.a 18.c DRUGS IN RENAL DYSFUNCTION

19.b

20.a

Match the following Condition P. Mild renal impairment Q. Moderate renal impairment R. Severe renal impairment a. P - 1 Q2 R3 GFR 1. 20 50 ml/minute 2. 10 20 ml/minute 3. <10ml/minute

b) P 3 c) P 2 d) P - 1 Q2 Q-1 Q-3 R - 1 R 3 R2

2.

Acetazolamide causes what in renal impaired patients a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Rashes d. None of the above In renal impairment, which of the following -blockers is preferred? a. Atenolol b. Propranolol c. Both a & b d. None of the above Match the following P. High clearance, High therapeutic index 1. Penicillin, Cephalosporin Q. High clearance, Narrow therapeutic index 2. Vancomycin, Gentamycin R. Low clearance 3. Theophyllin, Phenytoin a. P - 3 Q2 R1 b) P 3 c) P 2 d) P - 1 Q1 Q-1 Q-2 R-2 R3 R3

3.

4.

5.

What is the equation for creatinine clearance? F( 140 age)( wt in kgs ) a. Creatinine clearance (ml/min) = Serum creatinine ( mol / lit ) 1.23 (140 age)(wt in kgs ) b. Creatinine clearance male (ml/min) = Serum creatinine ( mol / lit ) 1.04 (140 age)( wt in kgs ) c. Creatinine clearance female (ml/min) = Serum creatinine ( mol / lit )

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d. All of the above

Answers
1. a 2. a 3. b 4.d 5.d

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