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An Hfr bacterium is one that has Which of the following statements regarding transposons is not true?

An R plasmid can All of the following are made up of nucleic acid except a Which of the following statements about operons is (are) true? Of the following, which is least related to the others?

A) a plasmid that has become integrated into its chromosome. D) Transposons are genes that encode sex pili and enable plasmid transfers between bacteria. a. facilitate bacterial resistance to antibiotics. C) repressor. b. Tryptophan itself can bind to the trp operator and shut down production of tryptophan pathway enzymes. C) transposon

This protein is produced by a regulatory gene repressor A mutation in this section of dna could influence the binding of rna polymerase to dna- promoter A lack of this nonprotein molecule would result in the inability of the cell to turn off genes corepressor When this is taken up by the cell it binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator-inducer A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in-continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when -the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell. Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon - starts when the pathway's substrate is present. How does active CAP induce expression of the genes of the lactose operon?- It stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. 12) For a repressible oPEron to be transcribed, which of the following must occur? C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive. synthesis of the enzyme lactase. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell? -Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways? C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following? B) alter the level of production of various enzymes If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase gene and the permease gene, which of the following would be likely? C) The operon will no longer be inducible. If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? D) The structural genes will be transcribed continuously. If she moves the repressor gene (lac I), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which will you expect to occur? E) The lac operon will function normally. If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect would then be a measurable effect? E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell Muscle cells and nerve cells in one species of animal owe their differences in structure to D) having different genes expressed. Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinately control the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A) organization of the genes into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the genes at once If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of D) epigenetic phenomena. Approximately what proportion of the DNA in the human genome codes for proteins or functional RNA? E) 1.5% 25) Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are A) DNA methylation and histone amplification. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of A) transcription.

27) In eukaryotes, transcription is generally associated with . E) both euchromatin and histone acetylation. What does the operon model attempt to explain? A) the coordinated control of gene expression in bacteria The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it. The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium. Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of D. epigenetic phenomena In eukaryotes, transcription is generally associated with D. both euchromatin and histone acetylation. During DNA replication, D. methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication. Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by -binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes. Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? B. Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? C. a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2 Which of the following best describes siRNA? C. a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that B. differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote. Which of the following serve as sources of developmental information? E. cytoplasmic determinants such as mRNAs and proteins produced before fertilization Mutations in these genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts: E. homeotic genes

These genes are expressed by the mother, and their products are deposited into the developing egg: D. egg-polarity genes These genes form gradients and help establish the axes and other features of an embryo: B. morphogens The incidence of cancer increases dramatically in older humans because -longer we live, the more mutations we accumulate. Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome? E. the proteins on its surface and that of the host. Why are viruses referred to as obligate parasites? They cannot reproduce outside of a host cell. Which of the following molecules make up the viral envelope? A. glycoproteins Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda () phage? D. The phage genome replicates along with the host genome. Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation? A. Replication of their genomes does not involve the proofreading steps of DNA replication. Most molecular biologists think that viruses originated from fragments of cellular nucleic acid. Which of the following observations supports this theory? D. Viral genomes are usually more similar to the genome of the host cell than to the genomes of viruses that infect other cell types. What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? C. It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. -Refer to the treatments listed below to answer the following questions. You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determining whether it is still infectious II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether it is still infectious

-Which treatment could definitively determine whether or not the component is a viroid? Student Response Correct Answer A. I Refer to the treatments listed below to answer the following questions. You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determining whether it is still infectious II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether it is still infectious Which treatment would you use to determine if the agent is a prion? D. IV The difference between verticaland horizontal transmission of plant viruses is that E. vertical transmission is transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant. What are prions? D. misfolded versions of normal brain protein Viruses can vary with respect to all of the following characteristics except _____. (Overview) -the presence or absence of metabolic machinery A microbiologist analyzes chemicals obtained from an enveloped RNA virus that infects monkeys. He finds that the viral envelope contains a protein characteristic of monkey cells. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? ( Concept 19.1) -The viral envelope forms as the virus leaves the host cell. Which of the following, if any, may be a component of a virus? (Concept 19.1) -protein double-stranded (ds) DNA phospholipid bilayer single-stranded (ss) RNA All of the listed responses are correct. Viruses that infect bacteria are called _____. ( Concept 19.1) -bacteriophages HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, only infects certain cells within the immune system. This is because _____. ( Concept 19.2) -the virus binds to specific receptors that are only present on certain immune cells

Cancer cells often have protein receptor molecules on their surfaces that differ from those on normal body cells. Given this fact, how might viruses be used to treat cancer? ( Concept 19.2) -Viruses could be engineered to infect only cancer cells by altering viral surface proteins to recognize only the receptors on cancer cells. Which of the following can a virus do without a host cell? ( Concept 19.2) -None of the listed responses is correct. When a virus infects an E. coli cell, what part of the virus enters the bacterial cytoplasm? (Concept 19.2) -only the nucleic acid The phage reproductive cycle that kills the bacterial host cell is a _____ cycle, and a phage that always reproduces this way is a _____ phage. ( Concept 19.2) -lytic ... virulent In the lytic life cycle of phages _____. ( Concept 19.2) -the cell typically dies, releasing many copies of the virus Restriction enzymes help defend bacteria against viral infections by _____. (Concept 19.2) -cutting viral DNA once it has entered the cell A phage that inserts itself into the host DNA is called _____. ( Concept 19.2) -lysogenic A prophage is a(n) _____. ( Concept 19.2) -viral genome that has been incorporated into a bacterial cell's chromosome In the lysogenic cycle of phages _____. ( Concept 19.2) -the viral nucleic acid is replicated along with the host DNA only a small number of the viral genes are expressed the viral nucleic acid inserts itself into the host chromosome the nucleic acid core of the phage is all that enters the host cell All of the listed responses are correct. What is the origin of the phospholipid membrane that envelops many animal viruses? ( Concept 19.2)-It is "stolen" from the host cell, but it contains some proteins encoded by the viral genome. Why can flare-ups of herpesvirus infection recur throughout a person's life? ( Concept 19.2) -Herpesvirus can leave its DNA behind as minichromosomes in nerve cell nuclei. Stress can trigger another round of virus production, producing characteristic blisters and sores. How do retroviruses, such as HIV, differ from other viruses? ( Concept 19.2) -They can transcribe a DNA copy from a RNA template. Reverse transcription, carried out by retroviruses, is the process by which _____. ( Concept 19.2)

-RNA information is copied into DNA Which statement below is a correct comparison of a "regular" RNA virus and an RNA retrovirus? ( Concept 19.2) -Both produce protein coats via translation of mRNA. When comparing DNA and RNA viruses, which mutate more quickly, and why? ( Concept 19.2) -RNA viruses, because no proofreading is done on RNA molecules The symptoms of a viral infection in a person can be caused by _____. ( Concept 19.3) -the production of toxins by infected cells toxic viral components, such as envelope proteins the death of infected cells the reaction of the individual's immune system to the infection All of the listed responses are correct. Vaccines for viral diseases are _____ and help prevent infection by _____. ( Concept 19.3) -harmless derivatives of pathogenic viruses ... stimulating the immune system to mount a defense against the actual pathogen Emerging viruses can originate from which of the following sources? ( Concept 19.3) -animal viruses the mutation of existing human viruses viruses previously confined to small, isolated populations that can now spread due to technological or social changes such as the development of affordable international travel All of the listed responses are correct.\ What is the function of hemagglutinin in the influenza virus? -Hemagglutinin is the protein that helps the influenza virus attach to host cells. Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission of a virus in plants? ( Concept 19.3) -An infected plant produces seeds that contain the virus, giving rise to infected progeny. Plant viruses spread throughout the plant by way of _____. ( Concept 19.3) -plasmodesmata Circular RNA molecules that function like a virus in plants are termed _____. ( Concept 19.3) -viroid Prions are _____ that are thought to cause disease by _____. ( Concept 19.3) -abnormally shaped proteins ... inducing similar but normally shaped proteins in the brain to adopt the abnormal form

This chapter contains a lengthy discussion of the trp operon involved in regulating the synthesis of tryptophan. In the case of E. coli, the bacterium may need to synthesize tryptophan, or its host, a human, may supply all the tryptophan it needs. Think back to Chapter 17. Why do both bacteria and humans need tryptophan? -d.It is one of the 20 amino acids used by all organisms to synthesize proteins. Which statement about feedback inhibition is true? ( Concept 18.1) -e.All of the listed responses are correct. In prokaryotic genomes, groups of functionally related genes along with their promoters and operators are found together in _____. ( Concept 18.1) c.an operon A bacterium can make the amino acid glycine or absorb it from its surroundings. A biochemist finds that glycine binds to a repressor protein and causes the repressor to bind to the bacterial chromosome, turning off an operon. If it is like other similar operons, the presence of glycine will result in the _____. ( Concept 18.1) c.cessation of the synthesis of glycine In general, operons that encode the enzymes of a biosynthetic (anabolic) pathway (such as the trp operon) are _____, and those encoding the enzymes of a catabolic pathway (such as the lac operon) are _____. ( Concept 18.1) a.repressible ... inducible In an inducible operon, the inducer is often the _____ in the pathway being regulated; the inducer binds to the _____, thus rendering it _____. ( Concept 18.1) -c.substrate ... repressor ... inactive You have inserted the gene for human growth factor into the E. coli lactose operon, replacing the structural genes with the gene for human growth factor. What substance must you add to your culture of bacteria to cause them to produce human growth factor for you? ( Concept 18.1) a.allolactose Both repressible and inducible operons control gene expression at the level of _____. -transcription Gene expression in bacteria is regulated primarily by _____. (Concept 18.1) -controlling the transcription of genes into mRNA The control of gene expression is more complex in multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because _____. ( Concept 18.2) -in a multicellular eukaryote, different cells are specialized for different functions in some cases DNA methylation and histone deacetylation combine to _____. (Concept 18.2) -silence certain gene

In eukaryotes, DNA packing seems to affect gene expression primarily by _____. (Concept 18.2) -controlling access to DNA In a eukaryote, activating transcription factors may stimulate gene expression by binding to a DNA site called a(n) _____. ( Concept 18.2) enhancer Enhancers _____. ( Concept 18.2) All of the listed responses are correct. What is the evolutionary significance of alternative RNA splicing? ( Concept 18.2) -It expands the number of proteins that can be coded for by one gene, increasing an organism's ability to produce novel proteins. What is the role of proteasomes? ( Concept 18.2) They are giant protein complexes that recognize ubiquitin and degrade the tagged proteins. What determines how long a particular mRNA molecule will persist in a eukaryotic cell? -nucleotide sequences in the poly-A tail The expression of a gene located in a tightly coiled region of DNA can be promoted by _____. ( Concept 18.2) -histone deacetylation Although the number of genes in the human genome is surprisingly low compared to less complex organisms, the number of possible products from those genes is greatly amplified by _____. -alternate arrangements of exons from a primary transcript MyoD promotes muscle cell development by _____. turning on the expression of multiple muscle-related genes Cell differentiation is first observable when _____. ( Concept 18.4) -mRNAs for tissue-specific proteins appear in a cell In the human genome, oncogenes _____. ( Concept 18.5) -stimulate cell division In what way can cancer be hereditary? ( Concept 18.5) -One or two of several mutations necessary for full cancer development can be inherited, giving a person a predisposition to developing cancer. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of? -transcription A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments she succeeded in decreasing methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments she succeeded in decreasing methylation of histone tails. Which of the following results

would she most likely see? b. decreased chromatin condensation

Suppose an experimenter becomes b) Beta galactosidase will proficient with a technique that allows be produced her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase gene and the permease gene, which of the following would be likely? In eukaryotes, general transcription factors are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes. This binds to a site in the DNA far from the promoter to stimulate transcription: bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box. activator

Transcription factors in eukaryotes other transcription factors usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind?

Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell? enzymatic shortening of the poly(A) tail methylation of C nucleotides removal of one or more exons methylation of histones removal of the 5' cap

removal of the 5' cap

In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than that of adults. This is due to

nonidentical genes that produce different versions of globins during development

A cell that remains entirely flexible in its developmental possibilities is said to be In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells. Differentiation of cells is not easily reversible because it involves

totipotent.

embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent

chemical modifications of histones and DNA methylation can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cellcell adhesion. growth factor signaling to be hyperactive

Tumor suppressor genes

Forms of the ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following?

How is a physical map of the genome using restriction enzyme of an organism achieved? cutting sites

Which of the following most correctly describes a shotgun technique for sequencing a genome?

cloning several sizes of fragments into various size vectors, ordering the clones, and then sequencing them a method that uses very large national and international databases to access and work with sequence information

What is bioinformatics?

Bioinformatics can be used to scan expressed sequence tags. sequences for probable genes looking for start and stop sites for transcription and for translation, for probable splice sites, and for sequences known to be found in other known genes. Such sequences containing these elements are called Why is it unwise to try to relate an organism's complexity with its size or number of cells? A single-celled organism, such as a bacterium or a protist, still has to conduct all the complex life functions of a large multicellular organism.

Fragments of DNA have been understand the evolutionary extracted from the remnants of extinct relationships among wooly mammoths, amplified, and members of related taxa. sequenced. Which of the following is a representation of gene density? Humans have ~25,000 genes in 2,900 Mb.

Which of the following is a major A transposon moves via a distinction between a transposon and DNA intermediate and a a retrotransposon? retrotransposon via an RNA intermediate.

How might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome to another?

by chromosomal translocation

When does exon shuffling occur?

as an alternative splicing pattern in posttranscriptional processing to cleave nucleic acids at

What is the enzymatic function of

restriction enzymes? How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?

specific sites adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines

What is the most logical sequence of III, II, IV, V, I steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? I. Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule. II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in How does a genomic library differ from a cDNA library? reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.

recombinant plasmids of bacteria

A genomic library can be made using a restriction enzyme and DNA ligase only, whereas a cDNA library requires both of these as well as reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase reverse transcriptase

Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA? Which of the following separates

gel electrophoresis

molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge? Dideoxyribonucleotide chaintermination is a method of sequencing DNA.

Which of the following is most closely organismal cloning identical to the formation of twins? In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. fusion of an adult cell's Which of the following processes was nucleus with an enucleated used? sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate Genetically engineered plants include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.

which of the following molecules make up the viral envelope?

glycoproteins

Which of the following can be effective in preventing viral infection in humans? E) getting vaccinated