Gcse Phys Revised Support 7902

GCSE Physics
Specimen Assessment Materials

For first teaching from September 2011
For first assessment from Summer 2012
For first award in Summer 2013
Subject Code: 1210
Foreword
The awarding bodies have prepared new specifications to comply with revised GCSE and subject
criteria. The specimen assessment materials accompanying new specifications are provided to give
centres guidance on the structure and character of the planned assessments in advance of the first
assessment. It is intended that the specimen assessment materials contained in this booklet will help
teachers and students to understand, as fully as possible, the markers expectations of candidates
responses to the types of tasks and questions set at GCSE level. These specimen assessment materials
should be used in conjunction with CCEAs GCSE Physics specification.
BLANK PAGE
GCSE Physics
Specimen Assessment Materials
Contents
Specimen Papers
Unit P1:
Unit P1:
Unit P2:
Unit P2:
Foundation Tier
Higher Tier
Foundation Tier
Higher Tier
Mark Schemes
1
3
21
41
63
89
General Marking Instructions

Unit P1:
Foundation Tier
Unit P1:
Higher Tier
Unit P2:
Foundation Tier
Unit P2:
Higher Tier
91
93
103
113
123
Controlled Assessment
133
Controlled Assessment Task (CAT) and Guidance Notes for Teachers

Controlled Assessment Task: Candidate Response Booklet A
Controlled Assessment Task: Candidate Response Booklet B
Controlled Assessment Mark Scheme
135
139
147
157
Subject Code
QAN
1210
600/1092/7
A CCEA Publication 2011
You may download further copies of this publication from www.ccea.org.uk
SPECIMEN PAPERS
Centre Number
71
Candidate Number
General Certificate of Secondary Education

2012
Science: Physics
Unit P1
Foundation Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN PAPER
TIME
1 hour 15 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Write your Centre Number and Candidate Number in the spaces provided
at the top of this page.
Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper.
Answer all questions.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The total mark for this paper is 80.
Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the
marks awarded to each question or part question.
Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(b) and
3(b).
For Examiners
use only
Question
Marks
Number
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Total
Marks
Answer all questions

1
(a)
A petrol engine converts the chemical energy in the fuel to both useful forms of
energy and unwanted forms of energy. Measurements show that for every 1000J
of input energy only 350J of useful output energy is produced.
Photos.com/Thinkstock
(i)
Using these measurements calculate how much unwanted energy is

produced.
Unwanted energy = ________J [1]

(ii)
Write down the formula used to calculate the efficiency of this petrol
engine.
__________________________ [1]
(iii)
Calculate the efficiency of this petrol engine.

You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.
Efficiency = ________________ [2]

4
(b)
The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a

constant output of electricity.
Discuss, with explanation, the reliability of:
wind farms;
nuclear power stations; and
coal-fired power stations.
In each case give the type of energy which is initially obtained from the energy
resource from which the electricity is finally derived.
In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills
including the use of specialist science terms.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
[6]
(c)
The most common energy resources used in Europe today are:
(i)
oil
natural gas
coal
nuclear energy
hydroelectric
wind energy
Choose one non-renewable energy resource from the list above and
explain why it is non-renewable.
Non-renewable energy resource:
Explanation:
[2]
(ii)
Choose one renewable energy resource from the list above and explain
why it is renewable.
Renewable energy resource:
Explanation:
[2]
(iii)
Global warming in seen by many as a major threat to many countries.

Nuclear power is seen by some as a solution to the energy needs of a
country without causing further global warming.
Explain why this is the case.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(iv)
[2]
Name the fuel used in nuclear power stations.

___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
[1]
(a)
(i)
Mass is measured in kilograms (kg) and weight is measured in

newtons (N).
State what is meant by mass and what is meant by weight.
Mass is
Weight is
[2]
(ii)
State how the weight of an object is calculated when its mass is known.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(b)
(i)
[2]
A car is pulled forward and begins to move along a road in the direction
shown below. After a few seconds the car is moving at a constant speed
of 2m/s.
Label clearly the two horizontal forces acting on the car.
[2]
(ii)
What can you say about the size of these two forces?
___________________________________________________________
[1]
(iii)
The car then accelerates forward along the horizontal road. It takes 3
seconds to increase its speed from 2m/s to 20m/s.
Calculate the acceleration (rate of change of speed).
Acceleration = ________________m/s2 [3]
(c)
The diagram shows an object moving in a circle.
(i) On the diagram draw an arrow to show the direction of the centripetal
force acting on the object. Label this arrow F.
[1]
(ii) On the diagram draw an arrow to show the direction the object would
move if this force were removed. Label this arrow v.
[1]
(iii) What happens to the size of this centripetal force if the mass of the object
moving in the circle is increased?
___________________________________________________________
[1]
(a)
John wants to measure the density of a rock.

He finds the volume of the rock using the apparatus shown below.
(i)
What volume does the smallest division on the scale of the graduated
cylinder show?
Volume =______________ [2]
(ii)
Using data taken from the diagram calculate the volume of rock.
Volume =__________cm3 [2]
(iii)
The mass of the rock was measured and found to be 36g.

Calculate the density of the rock.
Remember to give the correct unit for density.
Density of the rock = _____________ [3]

9
(iv)
John then measures the mass and the volume of a number of rocks.
He then plots his results on a graph as shown below.
Which three rocks are made of the same material?

Explain how you used the graph to arrive at this conclusion.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
10
[3]
(b)
Using the ideas of the kinetic theory, describe and explain how solids change to
liquids and liquids change to gases.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
11
[6]
(a)
Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.
(i)
He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.

Calculate the work done by Kevin as he climbs the rope.
Work done =________________ J [2]
(ii)
He takes 6.0 seconds to climb the 3.0 metres.

Calculate the power generated by Kevin as he climbed the rope.
Power = ________________ W [3]

12
(b)
A nail gun fires a nail of mass 5g with a speed of 20m/s.
Hemera/Thinkstock
Calculate the kinetic energy of the nail as it leaves the gun.

Kinetic energy =________________J [3]
13
To study the motion of a ball down a curved runway the apparatus shown below was
set up. The ball is released at various points along the runway. The height above the
table at each point is H. When it reaches the bottom it travels through the air and the
point where it hits the floor is marked.
The distance S from the bottom of the table to this point of impact is measured.
For each value of H the ball was released three times and the value of S in each case
recorded. The measurements of the height H and the distance S were taken and are
shown in the table below.
(a)
Height (H)
in cm
First value
Second value
Third value
10
20
30
40
60
88
111
120
61
90
110
122
59
92
109
118
Distance (S) in cm
Average
value of S
in cm
60
90
Using the data given in the table calculate the average value of S for each height
H.
Write your answers in the spaces on the table.
You may use the space below for your calculations.
Two values have been calculated for you.
[2]
14
(b)
Plot a graph on the grid below to help you find out if the average distance S is
proportional to the height H.
[5]
(c)
Is the average distance S proportional to the height H?

Explain your answer.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
15
[3]
(a)
The diagram below represents a helium atom.
(i)
(ii)
Name the particles or the part of the atom indicated by the arrows.
Write your answers in the boxes provided.
[1]
Although the atom contains charged particles it is electrically neutral.

Explain why this is so.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(iii)
[2]
Helium has the chemical symbol He.

Complete the symbol for the nucleus of the helium atom above by writing
the appropriate numbers in the smaller boxes.
For each box explain what the number means. Write your answer to this
part in the larger box.
[4]
16
(b)
A radioactive atom decays by emitting a beta () particle.

(i)
What is a beta () particle?

___________________________________________________________
(ii)
[1]
The radioactive material which emitted this beta () particle has a half-life
of 46 days. Explain what this means.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
17
[2]
To measure the range of alpha () particles in air the apparatus shown below was set up.
The number of alpha particles reaching the detector in a 30 second period was measured at
increasing distances from the source of alpha particles.
The graph below shows the results of this investigation.
(a)
When the detector is 6cm from the alpha particle source how many alpha
particles reach the detector every second?
Number of particles per second = ________________
18
[2]
(b)
State the approximate range of particles indicated by the graph.
Range = ________________cm [2]
(c)
Explain why the detector does not give a reading of zero.

_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
[2]
Total [80]
19
___________________________________________
THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
___________________________________________
20
Centre Number
71
Candidate Number

2012
Science: Physics
Unit P1
Higher Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN PAPER
TIME
1 hour 30 minutes

Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(b), 2(b),
3(b) and 7(e).
For Examiners
use only
Question
Marks
Number
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Total
Marks
21

1
(a)
Many countries see global warming as a major threat.

(i)
Some countries see nuclear power stations as a solution to their energy

needs which doesnt cause further global warming. Explain why.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(ii)
[2]
State the main environmental disadvantage of using nuclear power to

generate electricity.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(iii)
[2]
Uranium is used as the fuel in most nuclear power stations.

How does the amount of uranium needed compare with the amount of
coal or oil needed to fuel a power station with the same energy output?
___________________________________________________________
(iv)
[1]
All power stations, when they come to the end of their useful life have to
be de-commissioned. What does this mean?
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(v)
[1]
State one problem of decommissioning a nuclear power station compared

with one that used fossil fuel.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
22
[1]
Using wind energy in the form of wind turbines (wind farms) for
generating electricity is never likely to be a solution to our energy needs.
Explain why.
(vi)
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(vii)
[1]
Many view wind farms as an eyesore on the landscape.

State one other environmental disadvantage they have.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
(b)
[1]
The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a

constant output of electricity.
Discuss, with explanation, the reliability of:
wind farms;
nuclear power stations; and
coal-fired power stations.
In each case give the type of energy which is initially obtained from the energy
resource from which the electricity is finally derived.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
23
[6]
(a)
A car sits at rest at the top of a roller coaster ride as shown in the diagram below.
The brake is released and the car travels down the slope.
(i)
(ii)
On the diagram mark and label two forces acting on the car when it
is moving.
[2]
At the bottom of the slope the car reaches a speed of 27m/s and continues
along a horizontal track in which a braking system is operated.
The deceleration of the car is 6m/s2.
Calculate the time taken to come to rest.
Time taken = ________________seconds [3]
(iii)
The mass of the car is 1000kg.

The force applied to the car by the braking system is 5000N.
Calculate the additional frictional force provided by air resistance which
brings the car to rest.
Additional Frictional Force = ________________N [3]

24
(b)
A sky diver jumps from an aircraft and for a time falls through the air without
her parachute open. After a time she opens the parachute.
The graph below shows how the velocity of a skydiver changes as she falls
through the air. Her parachute opens at the time marked.
Describe and explain how her acceleration changes as she descends.

You should concentrate on the periods OA, BC and DE.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
25
[6]
(a)
John was asked to measure the density of a number of rocks.

He measured the mass and volume of a number of each and plotted his results
on a graph as shown below.
(i)
Which three rocks are made of the same material?

Explain how you used the graph to arrive at this conclusion.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
(ii)
[3]
One of the rocks was found to have a density of 3.5g/cm3.

What would be the mass of this rock if its volume was 4cm3?
Mass = ________________g
26
[1]
(b)
Using the ideas of kinetic theory, describe and explain how solids change to
liquids and liquids change to gases.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
27
[6]
(a)
Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.
(i)
He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.

Calculate the work done by Kevin as he climbs the rope.
Work done = ________________J
(ii)
[2]
Kevin can develop a power of 200 W as he climbs the rope.

Calculate how long it takes him to climb 3.0 metres up the rope.
Time = ________________ s
28
[3]
(b)
A nail gun fires a nail of mass 5g.

The nail leaves the gun with a kinetic energy of 1J.
Hemera/Thinkstock
(i)
Calculate the velocity of the nail as it leaves the gun.

Velocity = ________________ m/s [3]
(ii)
The nail gun is used to fix two pieces of wood together as shown in the
photograph above. The nail penetrates a distance of 0.005m into
the wood.
Calculate the average force opposing the nail as it penetrates into
the wood.
Opposing force = ________________N [4]

29
(c)
An electric motor is used to raise a load.

Describe, in detail, how the apparatus shown below could be used to measure the
output power of the motor.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
30
[4]
To study the motion of a ball down a runway, the apparatus shown below was set up.
The ball is released at various points along the runway. The height above the table at
each point is H. When it reaches the bottom it travels through the air and the point
where it hits the floor is marked. The distance S from the bottom of the table to this
point of impact is measured.
For each value of H the ball was released several times and an average value of S was
calculated. The measurements of the height H and the average value of the distance S
are shown in the table below.
Height (H)
in cm
10
20
30
40
(a)
Average value
of S in cm
60
90
110
120
Give two reasons why repeating the measurements is good

experimental practice.
1 _______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
2 _______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
31
[2]
(b)
Plot a graph on the grid below to help you find out if the distance S is
proportional to height H.
[5]
(c)
Is the distance S proportional to the height H? Explain your answer.

_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
32
[3]
(a)
A large steel beam weighs 20,000N.

A crane is used to raise this large steel beam into a vertical position, pivoting it
about one end. The crane exerts a force F to just lift the end A of the beam off
the ground. The length of the beam is 5m. This arrangement is shown in the
diagram below.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
The beam can be treated as a lever.

Mark clearly with the letter P the pivot.
[1]
On the diagram above, draw an arrow to show where and in what

direction the weight of the beam acts.
Assume the beam is of uniform width.
[2]
By applying the principle of moments, calculate the size of the upward

force F that the crane must exert to just raise end A of the beam off
the ground.
Remember the beam weighs 20,000N.
Upward force F = ________________ N [4]
33
(b)
A car travelling at 20m/s collides with another car. The passenger, who is not
wearing a seatbelt, continues to move forward hitting the dashboard in a
collision that lasts 0.1 seconds.
(i)
Calculate the value of the force that the windscreen exerts on the
passengers head. Assume the mass of the passenger is 50kg.
Force = ________N
(ii)
[4]
Explain how a seat belt would have protected the passenger from serious
injury.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
34
[2]
(iii)
To test springs that might be used in the crumple zone of a car, the
following tests were carried out. A 1kg mass was dropped from different
heights H onto a platform attached to a spring as shown in the diagram
below. The compression of the spring C was measured.
The measurements obtained are shown in the table below.

Height
(H) in m
0
1
2
3
4
Compression
(C) in cm
0
0.45
0.63
0.77
0.89
It is believed that the variables H and C are related by the equation

C2 = kH.
k is a constant that depends on the strength of the spring.
1. Without drawing a graph use the values in the table to show that this
equation is correct.
2. Find the value for k.
Show all calculations in the space below and give values to two
decimal places.
k = ________ [4]
35
(a)
Radioactive substances emit alpha, beta and gamma radiations.

In the table below describe the nature of each of these radiations.
Radiation
Alpha ()
Beta ()
Gamma ()
(b)
Nature
[3]
A radioactive atom of uranium decays by emitting a beta () particle.

(i)
Complete the decay equation for this process by writing the appropriate
numbers in the boxes.
[4]
(ii)
The beta () decay process for this radioactive material has a half-life of
46 days.
How many days pass before the activity falls by 75% of its initial value?
Days passed = ________ [1]
36
(c)
To measure the range of alpha () particles in air the apparatus shown below
was set up. The number of alpha particles reaching the detector in a 30 second
period was measured at increasing distances from the source of alpha particles.
The graph below shows the results of this investigation.
State the approximate range of particles indicated by the graph.
Range = ________cm
37
[2]
(d)
In the oil industry several companies may share the same oil pipeline to
transport their oil.
They need to know when one companys oil stops and another
companys begins.
Each company adds a radioactive substance (radioisotope) to the first part of the
batch of oil. A detector (Geiger counter) and counter will then show when the
oil containing this radioisotope passes.
What type of radiation must be emitted by the radioisotope in the oil for this method
to work? Give a reason for your answer.
Type of radiation ________________
Reason _______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
38
[2]
(e)
In 1910 an historic experiment was carried out. The experiment was designed to
find out more about the structure of the atom. In the experiment alpha ()
particles were directed at a very thin metal foil.
Describe and explain the observations that were made and how each one provides
information on the charge, the size and the mass of the nucleus of the atom.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
[6]
Total [100]
39
___________________________________________
___________________________________________
40
Centre Number
71
Candidate Number

2013
Science: Physics
Unit P2
Foundation Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN PAPER
TIME
1 hour 30 minutes
Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(c)(ii)
and 8(a).
For Examiners
use only
Question
Marks
Number
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Total
Marks
41

1
(a)
Two mirrors, M1 and M2, are placed at right angles to one another.
The diagram below shows a ray of light incident on mirror M1 and at an angle of
27 to its surface.
(i)
(ii)
On the diagram, accurately draw the path of the ray reflected from mirror
M1 and M2.
[2]
Calculate the angle of reflection at mirror M2.

Angle of reflection at mirror M2 = ________________

42
[2]
(b)
The diagram below shows a fish in a pond. A person looking into the pond sees
the fish not at its true position but at the position shown in the diagram.
Complete the diagram to show how the man sees the fish. Draw an arrow on the
given ray to show its direction.
(c)
[2]
The diagram shows a ray of white light being dispersed by a triangular glass
prism.
(i)
On the diagram label the two colours at the top and bottom of the
spectrum.
43
[1]
(ii)
Explain, in detail, how this spectrum is produced by the prism.

In this question you will be assessed on your written communication
skills including the use of specialist science terms.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
44
[6]
(a)
(i)
All waves have a wavelength and a frequency. Electromagnetic waves

have changing electric and magnetic fields.
Name one other property common to all electromagnetic waves.
__________________________________________________________
(ii)
[1]
In the boxes below write the names of the various groups of

electromagnetic waves in order of increasing wavelength (as shown by
the arrow).
Some have been done for you.
[2]
(iii)
Which electromagnetic wave is used for the following:

making toast ____________________________
sterilising plastic syringes _________________?
45
[2]
(b)
Sonar uses ultrasound to detect objects under water.

A pulse of ultrasound is emitted upwards by a submarine deep below the ice
sheet in the Arctic ocean as shown below.
Some time later the submarine detects an echo and a short time after that it
detects a second echo.
(i)
Explain why two echoes are produced in this case.

First echo_________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
Second echo_______________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
46
[2]
(ii)
To measure the distance to the ocean floor the submarine emits a pulse
of ultrasound downwards. The echo of this pulse is detected 0.4s after it
was emitted.
The speed of ultrasound in water is 1500m/s.
Use the equation distance = speed time to help you calculate the
distance from the submarine to the floor of the ocean.
Distance to the ocean floor = ________________m
47
[3]
A length of rope and a slinky coil can be used to demonstrate different types of wave.
The patterns obtained are shown in the diagrams below.
(a)
(i)
On each diagram below add arrows to show the way in which the hand
should be moved to produce each wave. In the space provided state the
type of wave being produced.
________________
________________
(ii)
What do the waves transfer as they move from left to right?

________________
(b)
[4]
[1]
The wave pattern obtained by the rope is shown again below.
(i)
State the amplitude of the wave _________________
[1]
(ii)
State the wavelength of the wave ________________
[1]
48
(iii)
The end of the rope makes 24 vibrations in 8 seconds.

Calculate the frequency of the wave.
Make sure you also give the unit for the frequency in your answer.
Frequency = ________________
(iv)
[2]
Calculate the speed of the wave travelling along the rope.

Speed = ________________m/s
49
[3]
John is carrying out an investigation on the properties of shadows. He places a

wooden object between the source of light and a screen as shown in the diagram
below.
He moves the screen further from the object. The distance between the screen and the
object D, is measured. For each distance D, the height of the shadow on the screen is
measured.
Johns results are shown in the table below.
Distance D in cm
Height of the shadow H in cm
(a)
20
30
40
50
60
10
12
14
11
John has incorrectly recorded one of the values for the height H.
Circle this incorrect value in the table. Write in the space below the correct
value for H.
Correct value for H = ________cm
50
[2]
(b)
(i)
Plot a graph showing Johns measurements on the grid below.

Make sure to use the corrected value of H.
[5]
(ii)
State if the height (H) of the shadow is proportional to distance (D)

between the object and the screen. Give a reason for your answer.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
(iii)
[2]
Use your graph to find the height of the wooden object.

Height of wooden object = ________cm
51
[1]
Two resistors are connected to a 12V battery as shown in the circuit below.
(a)
Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
Total resistance = ________

(b)
[1]
Use the equation I = V/R to calculate the current in the circuit.

Current = ________A
(c)
[2]
Calculate the voltage across the 2 resistor.

Voltage = ________V
(d)
[2]
The current is allowed to flow through the circuit for 30 seconds.

Use the equation Q I t to calculate the electric charge that has moved
around the circuit in this time. Remember to give the unit for charge.
Charge = ________
52
[3]
The diagram below shows the planets in our Solar System.
(a)
(i)
State the names of the planets labelled A, B and C.

A ________________
B ________________
C ________________
(ii)
[3]
What force provides the centripetal force that keeps the planets moving
around the Sun?
__________________________________________________________
53
[1]
(b)
When the planet Mars is observed over a period of many months its path across
the background of stars is at first in one direction. Then its motion reverses
direction for a number of days before resuming its original path.
This movement is shown in the diagram below.
(i)
What is this motion called? ___________________________________
(ii)
Which model of the solar system was able to explain this motion?
State the main feature of this model.
[1]
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
54
[2]
(c)
Observations of light from the stars in distant galaxies tells us that the galaxies
are moving away, in other words space is expanding. The table below gives
some information on the distance to some of our closest galaxies, and the speed
with which they are moving away. Our own galaxy, the Milky Way, is included
in the table.
Galaxy
Distance from the Milk Way

in millions of light years
Speed in km/s
Milky Way (our galaxy)
Virgo
80
1200
Persues
350
5400
Hercules
650
10000
Ursa Major
1000
15000
The astronomer Erwin Hubble, in a law named after him, proposed that the
speed of the galaxy v and the distance d to the galaxy are related by the
equation:
v = Hd
where H is a constant known as Hubbles constant.
(i)
To test the validity of Hubbles Law a graph can be drawn.

What quantity would you plot on:
the x axis ________________
the y axis ________________?
55
[2]
(ii)
Using the measurements in the table and the grid below draw a graph to
test the validity of Hubbles Law.
[4]
(iii)
Does the graph validate Hubbles Law? Explain your answer.

__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
56
[3]
(a)
A bicycle generator uses a magnet rotating near a coil to produce an alternating

current (a.c.).
(i)
Sketch on the axes below how this alternating current varies with time.
[1]
(ii)
Explain how an alternating current differs from a direct current (d.c.).

__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
57
[2]
(b) Power stations use much larger generators to produce electricity. This electricity is
connected to the grid which supplies electricity to homes and businesses.
Transformers play an important role in this distribution of electrical energy. The
diagram below shows how electricity from the power station is distributed to homes.
(i)
Write the names of the types of transformer in the appropriate boxes.
[1]
(ii)
In the appropriate boxes, label the part of the distribution system where
the voltage is high and another part where it is much lower.
[1]
(iii)
Why are high voltages used in the distribution of electricity?

_________________________________________________________
(c)
[1]
An iron core is a major part of the construction of a transformer.
(i)
Complete the diagram to show the other main components.

Label each component.
Mark clearly on your diagram the part that the input voltage is applied to
and the part that provides the output voltage.
(ii)
[3]
Is the output voltage a.c. or d.c?

________________
58
[1]
(a)
Explain fully how the various wires and other components within a three pin
plug protect the user from electric shock should a fault occur.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
59
[6]
(b)
To test the wiring of a three-pin plug connected to a metal kettle the equipment
shown below was set up. C1 and C2 are metal clips. C1 is connected to the
metal body of the kettle.
When clip C2 is connected to the earth pin of the three-pin plug what should be
observed if the wiring of the plug is correct? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
(c)
[3]
An electric fire with a rating of 2kW is left on for 3 hours.

Calculate the cost of this if electricity costs 14 pence per kilowatt-hour.
Cost = ________ pence
[2]
Total [90]
60
___________________________________________
___________________________________________
61
BLANK PAGE
62
Centre Number
71
Candidate Number

2013
Science: Physics
Unit P2
Higher Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN PAPER
TIME
1 hour 45 minutes
at the top of the page.
For Examiners
use only
Question
Marks
Number
1

Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 2(b) and
6(b)(ii).
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Total
Marks
63

1
(a)
The diagram below shows water waves approaching the boundary between deep
water and shallow water. Jack records his observations of the refracted waves.
(i)
What two errors have been made by Jack?

1 __________________________________________________________
2 __________________________________________________________
(ii)
[2]
On the diagram below show how the refracted waves would travel in the
shallow water.
[3]
64
(b)
Jane stands in front of a plane mirror as shown below.

By drawing appropriate rays on the diagram determine the shortest length of
mirror needed to allow Jane is to see all of her face, i.e. from the top of her head
to the bottom of her chin.
Shortest length of mirror = ________________ cm
65
[3]
(c)
A ray of light is shone into a rectangular glass block as shown below.

(i)
The critical angle for the glass is 41. Explain what this means.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
(ii)
[2]
The path of the ray through the glass allows it to strike the shorter side.
The ray meets the shorter side at an angle to the normal of 50.
Complete the diagram to show the path of the ray through and out of the
glass block.
[3]
(iii)
Explain why the light follows the path you have drawn at the side BC.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
66
[2]
(a)
An object O is placed in front of a convex lens as shown below.
(i)
(ii)
On the diagram, using a ruler, draw rays that can be used to locate the
position of the image. The image should be clearly marked.
[4]
The diagram is full scale. How far from the centre of the lens L is the
image formed?
Distance of image from L = ________________cm [2]
(iii)
Which of the properties listed below describe the image formed?

Ring the three that are correct.
Real
Virtual
Magnified
Diminished
Upright
Inverted
67
[3]
(b)
Describe and explain how you would measure the focal length of a convex lens.
State the measurements you would take and how you would improve the
accuracy of your measurement. You may use the space below to illustrate your
answer with a diagram.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
You may draw a diagram here.
[6]
68
(a)
(i)
In the boxes below write the names of the various groups of

electromagnetic waves in order of increasing wavelength (as shown by
the arrow). Some have been done for you.
[3]
(ii)
The microwaves used in a microwave oven have a frequency of

2.45 109Hz. The speed of light is 3 108m/s.
Calculate the wavelength of these microwaves.
Wavelength = ________________ m
69
[3]
(b)
Sonar uses ultrasound to detect objects under water.

To measure the distance to the ocean floor, the submarine emits a pulse of
ultrasound downwards.
(i)
The echo of this pulse is detected 0.4s after it was emitted. The speed of
ultrasound in water is 1500m/s.
Calculate the distance from the submarine to the floor of the ocean.
Distance to the ocean floor = ________________

(ii)
[4]
Radar uses electromagnetic waves to detect the flying aircraft.

Explain why Sonar would not be an appropriate method for this.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
70
[2]
(c)
When an earthquake happens waves are sent out from the site of the quake.
These are known as P waves and S waves. The P waves are longitudinal waves
and the S waves are transverse waves.
Describe how the particles that make up the rocks of the earth move when each
type of wave passes.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
71
[3]
John is carrying out an investigation on the properties of shadows.

He places a wooden object between the source of light and a screen as shown in the
diagram below.
He moves the screen further from the object. The distance between the screen and the
object D, is measured. For each distance D, the height of the shadow on the screen is
measured.
Johns results are shown in the table below.
20
8
Distance D in cm
Height of the shadow H in cm
(a)
30
10
40
12
50
14
60
11
John has incorrectly recorded one of the values for the height H. Circle this
incorrect value in the table. Write in the space below the correct value for H.
Correct value for H = ________________ cm
72
[2]
(b)
(i)
Plot a graph showing Johns measurements on the grid below.

Make sure to use the corrected value of H.
[5]
(ii)
State if the height (H) of the shadow is proportional to distance (D)

between the object and the screen. Give a reason for your answer.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
(iii)
[2]
Use your graph to find the height of the wooden object.

Height of wooden object = ________________cm
73
[1]
(a)
Three resistors are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit below.
(i)
Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.

Resistance = ________________
(ii)
[4]
Calculate the current through the 24resistor.

Current = ________________ A
(iii)
[2]
A piece of wire of negligible resistance is connected between the points X

and Y. Calculate the current that flows through the 24resistor.
Current = ________________
74
[2]
(b)
Complete the circuit diagram below by adding an ammeter, a voltmeter and a

device which will allow a pupil to investigate how the current passing through a
particular component changes as the voltage across it is varied.
[3]
75
(c)
For each of the graphs shown below, state the component that would produce
the graph. Write the name of the component in the space provided.
(i)
________________
[1]
(ii)
________________ [1]
(iii)
________________ [1]
76
(d)
The resistance of a piece of wire depends on its length and its cross-sectional
area.
(i)
On the axes below draw the shape of the graph that would be obtained if
the resistance of different lengths of copper wire was measured, the
cross-sectional area of each wire being the same.
[1]
(ii)
On the axes below draw the shape of the graph that would be obtained if
the resistance of copper wire of different cross-sectional areas was
measured, the length of each being the same.
[1]
77
(a)
An electric fire with a rating of 2kW is left on for 3 hours.

Calculate the cost of this if electricity costs 14 pence per kilowatt-hour.
Cost = ________________ pence [2]
(b)
(i)
A label on an electric motor gives the following information:
Use the information on the label to calculate the fuse which should be
used in the plug connected to the motor.
The available fuses are: 1A, 3A, 5A and 13A.
Fuse = ________________ A [4]
78
(ii)
Explain carefully how the various wires and other components within the
three pin plug protect the user from electric shock should a fault occur
within the motor.
In this question you will be assessed on your written communication
skills including the use of specialist science terms.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
79
[6]
(c)
To test the wiring of a three-pin plug connected to a metal kettle the equipment
shown below was set up. C1 and C2 are metal clips, C1 is connected to the metal
body of the kettle.
When clip C2 is connected to the earth pin of the three-pin plug, what should be
observed if the wiring of the plug is correct? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
80
[3]
(a)
The diagram below shows the Sun.
On the diagram, draw carefully and label the path:

(i)
a planet would take.
[1]
(ii)
a moon would take.
[1]
(iii)
State one property of the motion of the planets that suggests our solar
system was formed from a gas cloud (nebula).
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
81
[1]
(b)
Observations of light from the stars in distant galaxies tell us that the galaxies
are moving away, in other words space is expanding.
How do we know from observations that a galaxy is moving away from us?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
(c)
(i)
[2]
The table below gives some information on distance to some of our

closest galaxies and the speed with which they are moving away.
Our own galaxy, the Milky Way, is included in the table.
Galaxy
Distant from the Milky

Way in millions of light
years
Speed in km/s
Milky Way (our galaxy)
Virgo
80
1200
Persues
350
5400
Hercules
650
10 000
Ursa Major
1000
15 000
The astronomer Erwin Hubble, in a law named after him, proposed that
the speed of the galaxy v and the distance d to the galaxy are related by
the equation:
v = Hd
where H is a constant known as Hubbles constant.
To test the validity of Hubbles Law a graph can be drawn.
What quantity would you plot on:
the xaxis ________________
the yaxis ________________?
82
[2]
(ii)
Using the measurements in the table and grid below, draw a graph to test
the validity of Hubbles Law.
[4]
(iii)
Does the graph validate Hubbles Law? Explain your answer.

___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
83
[3]
(a)
The diagram below shows a wire coil and a strong magnet. The coil is
connected to a sensitive ammeter which has a zero at the centre of its scale.
Describe carefully what you would observe with this apparatus when the
following actions take place.
(i)
The magnet is moved towards the coil.

_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
(ii)
[1]
The magnet is placed at rest inside the coil.

_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
(iii)
[1]
The magnet is then pulled back out of the coil.

_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
84
[2]
(b)
The diagram below shows the layout of a power pack that is found in most
schools. The power pack contains a transformer. There is a moveable switch
which can be turned so it touches the contacts A to K, this allows the output
voltage (secondary voltage) to be varied.
(i)
The input primary voltage is 240V.

The maximum value of the output voltage is 20V.
The primary coil has 6,000 turns of wire.
Calculate the number of turns on the secondary coil.
Number of turns on secondary = ________________
(ii)
[3]
There are 50 turns of wire between consecutive pairs of terminals A to K, i.e.

between A and B there are 50 turns and B and C there are 50 turns and so on.
In what voltage steps can the secondary voltage output be varied?
Voltage step = ________________ V

85
[3]
Michael carries out an investigation into the expansion of a metal as it is heated.

He measures the length of a metal bar at various temperatures.
His results are shown in the table below.
Table 1
Temperature in C
Length of the bar in mm
20
40
60
80
2017.96
2018.42
2018.88
2019.32
2019.77
The expansion of the bar at a particular temperature is defined as:

Expansion of the bar = length at that particular temperature length at 0C
Michael predicts that the expansion of the metal bar is proportional to the rise in
temperature of the bar.
(a)
Complete Table 2 below using values for temperature rise against expansion
of the metal bar.
Table 2
Temperature rise
in C
Expansion of the bar
in mm
[2]
(b)
Michaels prediction is correct. Show how the values given in table 2 support
this.
Do not draw a graph. Show all calculations in the space below.
[3]
Total [115]
86
___________________________________________
___________________________________________
87
BLANK PAGE
88
MARK SCHEMES
89
90
Science: Physics
GENERAL
MARKING
INSTRUCTIONS
91
General Marking Instructions and Mark Grids

Introduction
Mark schemes are intended to ensure that the GCSE examination is marked consistently and fairly.
The mark schemes provide markers with an indication of the nature and range of candidates
responses likely to be worthy of credit. They also set out the criteria that they should apply in
allocating marks to candidates responses. The mark schemes should be read in conjunction with
these marking instructions.
Quality of candidates responses
In marking the examination papers, examiners should be looking for a quality response reflecting
the level of maturity which may reasonably be expected of a 16-year-old which is the age at which
the majority of candidates sit their GCSE examinations.
Flexibility in marking
Mark schemes are not intended to be totally prescriptive. No mark scheme can cover all the
responses which candidates may produce. In the event of unanticipated answers, examiners are
expected to use their professional judgement to assess the validity of answers. If an answer is
particularly problematic, then examiners should seek the guidance of the Supervising Examiner.
Positive marking
Examiners must be positive in their marking, giving appropriate credit for description, explanation
and analysis, using knowledge and understanding and for the appropriate use of evidence and
reasoned argument to express and evaluate personal responses, informed insights and differing
viewpoints. Examiners should make use of the whole of the available mark range of any particular
question and be prepared to award full marks for a response which is as good as might reasonably
be expected of a 16-year-old GCSE candidate.
Awarding zero marks
Marks should only be awarded for valid responses and no marks should be awarded for an answer
which is completely incorrect or inappropriate.
Types of mark scheme
Mark Schemes for questions which require candidates to respond in extended written form are
marked on the basis of levels of response which take account of the quality of written
communication.
Other questions which require only short answers are marked on a point for point basis with marks
awarded for each valid piece of information provided.
92

2012
Science: Physics
Unit P1
Foundation Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
MARK
SCHEME
93
(a)
(i)
650J
[1]
(ii)
Efficiency = useful output energy/input energy

Work and power are alternatives to energy.
Input and output alone are not acceptable.
(iii)
[1]
350/1000 [1] = 0.35 or 35% [1]

The method is not required for full marks.
1 mark may be awarded for correct substitution of values if the final
value is incorrect.
94
[2]
(b)
Indicative content
Wind farms not reliable constant supply of input energy is not constant since
the wind is not constant
Nuclear power station reliable constant supply of input energy in the form of
heat from nuclear fission
Coal fired power station reliable constant supply of input energy in the form
of chemical energy from coal
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to discuss fully with
reasons the reliability and primary source of energy for all three types of
electricity generation. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the
form and style are of a high standard.
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to discuss the reliability of
two types of electricity generation with reasons and they identify clearly the primary
source of energy in only two of the cases. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar
and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
[34]
Candidates discuss the reliability correctly but fail to clearly identify the reasons,
they identify the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. Their spelling,
grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made
of appropriate specialist terms.
[12]
Response not worthy of credit
[0]
[6]
95
(c)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Oil/gas/coal/nuclear [1]
Explanation have a limited supply [1]
[2]
Hydroelectric/wind [1]
Explanation have an infinite supply/will not run out [1]
[2]
Does not release greenhouse gases [1]

Carbon dioxide named in the answer [1]
[2]
Uranium [1]
[1]
[17]
96
(a)
Mass is the amount of matter in an object or a measure of the number of

atoms/molecules in an object or is an unchanging property of
an object.
[1]
Weight is the pull or the force of gravity on an object.
[1]
Multiply the mass in kg [1]

by 10 [1]
[2]
Arrow to the right labelled forward/pulling/engine force [1]

Arrow to the left labelled friction [1]
[2]
(ii)
They are equal
[1]
(iii)
Acceleration = change of speed/time taken [1]

= (20 2)/3 or 18/3 [1]
= 6(m/s2) [1]
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(c)
(i)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

1 mark may be awarded for the recall of the equation.
The second line is worth 2 marks as it is a substituted equation.
[3]
Arrow towards the centre labelled F

No label give [0]
[1]
Arrow up or down the page labelled v

No label give [0]
[1]
Increases
[1]
[13]
97
(a)
(i)
Smallest division = 2cm3

For identifying that 5 divisions = 10cm3 give 1 mark
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
[2]
36 18 [1]
= 18cm3 [1]
[2]
mass
M
or D
[1]
volume
V
36
[1]
18
Density = 2g/cm3 [1]
[3]
A C D [1]
They are on a straight line [1]
That passes through the origin (0,0) [1]
Mark each line independently
[3]
Density =
98
(b)
Indicative content
Solids, liquids and gases are made up of atoms/molecules
In solids the atoms/molecules are vibrating
Heat gives them more kinetic energy
This causes more vigorous vibrating
When some of them overcome the bonds the solid turns to liquid
As more energy is given to the liquid the remaining atoms/molecules
overcome the bonds and a gas is formed
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe and explain
fully all the changes of state and clearly link the energy supplied with increased
vibration and the spacing between atoms/molecules. They use good spelling,
grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe and explain the
changes of state, however, the linking between energy supplied, increased vibration
[34]
and spacing of atoms/molecules is not always present. They use satisfactory spelling,
grammar, punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe the changes of state,
however, linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of
atoms/molecules is not given. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style
are of a limited standard.
Response not worthy of credit.
[12]
[0]
[6]
[16]
99
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(b)
Work = Force Distance or W = F D or 400 3 [1]

Work done = 1200(J) [1]
[2]
Work done
or P W [1]
t
Time Taken
=1200/6 [1]
=200(W) [1]
Allow ecf from (i)
Method not required for full marks
[3]
Power
KE = mv2 [1]
0.005 202 [1]
Kinetic energy = 1(J) [1]
The method is not required for full marks
Failure to convert g to kg will give an answer of 1000(J), gives a
maximum of 2 marks
[3]
[8]
(a)
Average values of S: 110 [1] and 120 [1] cm
(b)
Both axes labelled [2]

4 points correctly plotted [2]
each round down
Smooth curve through the point [1]
[2]
[5]
100
(c)
S is not proportional to H [1]

Explanation a straight line passing through origin cannot be drawn through
the points [2]
or S does not double when H doubles [1]
[3]
[10]
(a)
From the left clockwise: electron, neutron, proton

all needed for 1 mark
[1]
It (the atom) contains the same number of electrons as protons

Allow 1 mark for: Accept equal amounts/numbers of positive and
negative charges
[2]
3 [1] is the number of neutrons and protons/mass number [1]

2 [1] is the number of protons/atomic number [1]
[4]
(i)
Fast moving electron
[1]
(ii)
After 46 days [1]

its activity or number of unstable atoms or nuclei will decrease to half
the initial value [1]
[2]
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
[10]
77
(a)
(b)
(c)
600 [1] 30 =
20 [1] particles per second
[2]
13cm
12 or 14 give 1 mark
[2]
Background activity [1] will be detected [1]
[2]
[6]
Total [80]
101
BLANK PAGE
102

2012
Science: Physics
Unit P1
Higher Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
MARK
SCHEME
103
(a)
It does not release greenhouse gases [1]

Carbon dioxide named in the answer [1]
[2]
Radioactive waste [1]

Requiring storage for thousands of years [1]
[2]
(iii)
Less
[1]
(iv)
Shutting down
[1]
(v)
Special precautions dealing with radioactive materials
[1]
(vi)
Not reliable or wind not always present
[1]
(vii)
Destroys the habitats of animals or noisy
[1]
(i)
(ii)
104
(b)
Indicative content
Wind farms not reliable constant supply of input energy is not constant since
the wind is not constant
Nuclear power station - reliable constant supply of input energy in the form of
heat from nuclear fission
Coal fired power station reliable constant supply of input energy in the form
of chemical energy from coal
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to discuss fully with
reasons the reliability and primary source of energy for all three types of electricity
generation. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and
style are of a high standard.
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to discuss the reliability of
two types of electricity generation with reasons and they identify clearly the
primary source of energy in only two of the cases. They use satisfactory spelling,
grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
[34]
Candidates discuss the reliability correctly but fail to clearly identify the reasons,
they identify the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. Their spelling,
grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made
of appropriate specialist terms.
[12]
Response not worthy of credit
[0]
[6]
[15]
105
(a)
(i)
(ii)
Any two from:

Weight acting vertically down
Friction upwards along the slope
Reaction force acting up at right angles to slope
v = u + at or 0 = 27 at [1]
t = 27/6 [1]
Time taken = 4.5s [1]
(iii)
[2]
[3]
F = ma or F = 1000 6 = 6000N [1]

Additional Force = 6000 5000 [1]
= 1000N [1]
Each step can be awarded 1 mark as shown if full credit cannot be given
106
[3]
(b)
Indicative content
Relating to OA
constant acceleration
resultant force is the weight minus air resistance
Relating to BC
acceleration is zero
weight and the air resistance cancel so resultant force is zero
Relating to DE
constant deceleration
upward resultant force due to the air resistance provided by parachute being
greater than the weight
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe accurately

the accelerations, linking each explicitly with their explanation of resultant force.
They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
high standard.
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe partially at least 2
of the observations, linking each with their explanation of resultant force. They use
satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
satisfactory standard.
[34]
Candidates describe some of the observations but the linking with resultant force is
unclear. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited
standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.
[12]
[0]
[6]
[14]
107
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(b)
A C D [1]
They are on a straight line [1]
That passes through the origin (0,0) [1]
Mark each line independently
[3]
4 3.5 = 14g
[1]
Indicative content
Solids, liquids and gases are made up of atoms/molecules
In solids the atoms/molecules are vibrating
Heat gives them more kinetic energy
This causes more vigorous vibrating
When some of them overcome the bonds the solid turns to liquid
As more energy is given to the liquid the remaining atoms/molecules
overcome the bonds and a gas is formed
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe and explain
fully all the changes of state and clearly link the energy supplied with increased
vibration and the spacing between atoms/molecules. They use good spelling,
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe and explain the
changes of state, however the linking between energy supplied, increased vibration
and spacing of atoms/molecules is not always present. They use satisfactory
spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
[34]
Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe the changes of state,
however linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of
atoms/molecules is not given. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style
are of a limited standard.
[12]
[0]
[6]
[10]
108
(a)
(i)
Work = Force Distance or W = F D or 400 3 [1]

Work done = 1200(J) [1]
(ii)
Time taken = work/power or t = W/P [1]

= 1200/200 [1]
= 6 s [1]
The first mark is for a re-arranged equation only
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(c)
[2]
[3]
v2 = 2Ek/m [1]
= 2 1/0.005 = 400 [1]
v = 20m/s [1]
The first mark is for a re-arranged equation only
Failure to convert g to kg award max of 2 marks
[3]
Work done = kinetic energy [1]

Work done = Force Distance or 1 = 0.005 F [1]
1
[1]
F=
0.005
Force = 200(N) [1]
[4]
Any four from:

Known or measured weight
Measured distance e.g. between two markers or length of string
Switch on motor
Time to move measured distance
Use of the appropriate formula to calculate power
Repeat and find an average
[4]
[16]
109
(a)
(b)
To get a more accurate value [1]

To reduce errors/mistakes [1]
[2]

4 points correctly plotted [2]
each round down
Smooth curve through the point [1]
[5]
(c)
S is not proportional to H [1]

Explanation a straight line passing through origin cannot be drawn through the
points [2]
or S does not double when H doubles, give [1]
[3]
[10]
110
(a)
(i)
P marked in the lower right corner of beam.
[1]
(ii)
Arrow from the centre of the beam (judge by eye) [1]

Acting downwards [1]
[2]
(iii)
Principle of moment given as ACM = CM or implied [1]

20 000 x 2.5 [1] = F x 4 [1]
50000
= 12500(N) [1]
F=
4
(b)
(i)
[4]
Momentum (change) = force x time [1]

50 20 [1] = F 0.1 [1]
1000
F
10000 (N) [1]
0.1
or
(ii)
(iii)
Force = mass acceleration/F=ma [1]

=50 (20/0.1) [1]
=50 200 [1]
=10000(N) [1]
[4]
Seat belts increase the time to come to a stop [1]

This reduces the force [1]
[2]
Calculations to show this: (0.45)2 /1 = 0.20

(0.63)2 /2 = 0.20
(0.77)2 /3 = 0.20
(0.89)2 /4 = 0.20
Each calculation is worth mark round down [2]
C2/H is a constant so the equation is correct [1]
Value of k = 0.20 [1]
Do not penalise values quoted to more than two decimal places.
[4]
[17]
111
(a)
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Alpha He nucleus/2 protons combined with 2 neutrons [1]

Beta electrons [1]
Gamma electromagnetic radiation [1]
[3]
0
U 238
93 Np 1
Give 1 mark to each correct number on the RHS of the equation
[4]
238
92
92 days
[1]
13cm [2]
If answer is 12 or 14, give [1] mark only
[2]
Gamma [1]
The only radiation that can penetrate the metal of the pipeline [1]
The radiation must be correctly identified before the mark for the
explanation can be given
[2]
Indicative content
Repulsion between nucleus and the alpha particles so the nucleus is
positively charged
Most of the alpha particles passed through without deflection so the
nucleus is small
A few alpha were scattered back so the nucleus is more massive
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully all 3
observations, linking each explicitly with its explanation. They use good spelling,
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe at least 2 of the
observations and their explanation. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and
punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
[34]
Candidates describe some of the observations but the explanations are not linked
explicitly to each observation. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation and style are
of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.
[12]
[0]
[6]
[18]
Total [100]
112

2013
Science: Physics
Unit P2
Foundation Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
MARK
SCHEME
113
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(b)
Ray from A to Mirror M2 [1]

Reflected rays from M2 [1]
Judge by eye if the angles of incidence are equal to the angles of
reflection. The ray from M2 should be parallel to the incident ray on M1
[2]
one correct step in calculations [1] e.g. 90 27 = 63; use of alternate

angles = 27 [1]
Correct answer gets full marks
[2]
Refracted ray towards mans head [1]

Arrow in correct direction [1]
Arrow can be on either ray
If the ray from the fish meets the surface perpendicularly and is shown
refracting towards the man award [0]
114
[2]
(c)
(i)
Red above and violet/blue below
(ii)
Indicative content
White light consists of seven (different) colours
Different colours travel at different speeds in glass
They take different paths through the glass
Violet (blue) slowed down most so refracted most
Red slowed down least so refracted least
[1]
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to explain fully the
dispersion of white light. Explanation of refraction in terms of change of speed
must be clearly linked with the amount refraction and the colour. They use good
spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high quality.
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to explain partially the
dispersion of white light. The explanation of refraction in terms of change of speed
may not be clearly linked with amount of refraction and the colour. They use
satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
[34]
Candidates explain some of the observations but fail to link the explanation of
refraction with the change of speed and the colour. Their spelling, grammar,
punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of
appropriate specialist terms.
[12]
[0]
[6]
[13]
115
(a)
(i)
(ii)
Any one from:

EM waves are transverse
EM waves can travel through a vacuum
EM waves travel at the same speed (in a vacuum)
Gamma
Ultra violet
Visible
Infra red
[1]
Radio
[2]
All five in correct order give [2]

Any three neighbouring in the correct order [1]
(iii)
(b)
(i)
(ii)
Infra-red [1]
Gamma [1]
[2]
First echo reflection from the lower surface of the ice [1]
Second echo reflection from the top surface of the ice [1]
[2]
1500 0.4 1
2 1
300(m) [1]
Method is not required for full marks
[3]
[10]
116
(a)
(b)
Top diagram arrow(s) up and down page [1]

Transverse [1]
Bottom diagram arrow(s) left and right [1]
Longitudinal [1]
[4]
(ii)
Energy
[1]
(i)
0.3m
[1]
(ii)
0.8m
[1]
(iii)
3 [1]
Hz [1]
The unit mark may be awarded regardless of the numerical answer even
if no numerical answer shown
[2]
v = f [1]
v = 3 x 0.8 [1]
2.4(m/s) [1]
[3]
(i)
(iv)
Method is not required. Allow full marks for correct answer.

Allow error carried forward (ecf) for wavelength and frequency
[12]
117
(a)
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
H = 11 ringed [1]
Correct value of H = 16 [1]
[2]

5 points correctly plotted each round down [2]
Best fit line (with intercept on H axis) [1]
[5]
Conclusion D and H not proportional [1]

Reason Line not through origin [1]
[2]
Answer consistent with their intercept on the H axis

Typically 4cm 0.2cm
[1]
[10]
(a)
8 ()
[1]
(b)
I=12/8 [1]
1.5(A) [1]
[2]
V=IR or V=1.5 2 [1]

3V [1]
Allow ecf from (ii) for current
[2]
Q = 1.5 x 30 [1]
45 [1] C [1]
Allow ecf from (ii) for current
[3]
(c)
(d)
[8]
118
(a)
(b)
(c)
A = Earth [1]
B = Mars [1]
C = Saturn [1]
[3]
(ii)
Gravity
[1]
(i)
Retrograde motion
[1]
(ii)
Heliocentric [1]
Sun at the centre (planets orbit it) [1]
[2]
X axis: Distance [1]

Y axis: Speed [1]
[2]
(i)
(i)
(ii)

5 points including 0,0 plotted, each round down [2]
Best line fit [1]
[4]
(iii)
Hubbles Law is valid [1]

Straight line [1]
Passing through the origin [1]
[3]
[16]
119
(a)
(i)
The shape is not important as long as the graph cuts the horizontal time
axis.
[1]
Alternating current reverses direction (periodically) [1]

Direct current flows in one direction [1]
[2]
(i)
2 correct labels for [1]
[1]
(ii)
2 correct labels for [1]
[1]
(iii)
To reduce energy losses (in the cables)
[1]
(i)
Two coils wrapped around iron core [1]

Primary labelled and connected to input [1]
Secondary labelled and connected to output [1]
Ignore the number of turns on each coil
[3]
a.c.
[1]
(ii)
(b)
(c)
(ii)
[10]
120
(a)
Indicative content
Live wire in contact with metal case
Metal case connected to earth wire
This offers a low resistance path
The current becomes very large
Blowing the fuse
Disconnecting the appliance from the mains supply
[6]
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to explain fully and in a
logical order how the fuse blows to protect the user. They use good spelling,
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to partially explain how the
fuse blows to protect the user. The points shown above are not all in the correct
sequence. They use satisfactory spelling grammar and punctuation and the form and
style are of a satisfactory standard.
[34]
Candidates explain some of the observations but the sequence is not shown in a
logical order. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited
[12]
(b)
(c)
The bulb should light [1]

There is a conducting path [1]
From the earth pin to the metal kettle [1]
[3]
No of kWh = 6 or 3 2 [1]
84 pence [1]
[2]
[11]
Total [90]
121
BLANK PAGE
122

2013
Science: Physics
Unit P2
Higher Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
MARK
SCHEME
123
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(c)
Angle of refraction is wrong [1]

Too many waves drawn [1]
[2]
At least three waves drawn parallel to each other [1]

Angle of refraction correct [1]
Wavelength smaller [1]
[3]
11cm [1]
Ray from top of head to mid point of 10cm section [1]
Ray from the chin to the mid point of the 12cm section [1]
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
[3]
It is the angle of incidence in the glass [1]

Giving an angle of refraction of 90 [1]
Alternate answer:
If the angle of incidence in the glass is greater than 41 [1]
then total internal reflection TIR occurs [1]
[2]
Ray bent towards the normal as it enters the glass [1]

Ray strikes the side BC and is reflected [1]
Ray travels to side CD, bending away from normal as it enters
the air [1]
[3]
The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle [1]

So total internal reflection occurs [1]
Accept TIR as meaning total internal reflection
[2]
[15]
124
(a)
(i)
Ray from top of O parallel to principal axis refracted through F [1]

Ray from the top of O through centre of lens undeviated [1]
Rays intersect to the right of the lens [1]
Image marked at the intersection of rays [1]
(ii)
(iii)
[4]
2.8 to 3.2cm
Outside this range award only 1 e.g., 2.4 to 2.7 or 3.3 to 3.6
[2]
Rings around:
Real [1]
Inverted [1]
Diminished [1]
Deduct 1 mark for each response greater than three
[3]
125
(b)
Indicative content
Choose a distant object
The light from this object is parallel rays
Arrange lens in front of screen
Move lens until sharp image of object seen on screen
The image is formed at the focus
This is the focal length
Repeat and take average
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to fully describe the
method to measure the focal length, giving a precise explanation for the choice of
[56]
object and the location of the image (using all above points). They use good spelling,
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe the method used to
measure the focal length (using 5-6 of the above points). Reasons for the choice of
object and location of the image are not fully explained. They use satisfactory
[34]
spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory
standard.
Candidates describe the method used to measure the focal length (using some or all
of the above points). Reasons for the choice of object and location of the image are
not explained. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited
[12]
[6]
[15]
126
(a)
(i)
Gamma
Ultra violet
Visible
Infra red
Radio
[3]
All five in the correct order award 3 marks

Any three neighbouring in the correct order award 1 mark
(ii)
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(c)
v = f or = v/f [1]
= 3108/2.45109 [1]
= 0.12(m) [1]
[3]
Distance = speed time [1]

1500 0.4 [1]
2 [1]
= 300(m) [1]
[4]
Sound travels more slowly than em waves [1]

Aircraft would have moved a large distance by time reflected wave
returns [1]
or
Sound is absorbed by atmosphere [1]
Little sound energy would reach aircraft/reflected back to source [1]
[2]
The particles vibrate [1]

In P wave parallel to the direction of propagation [1]
In S waves at right angles in the direction of propagation [1]
vibrate is essentially for the mark, move alone is not
However accept back and forth or up and down
[3]
[15]
127
(a)
(b)
H = 11 ringed [1]
Correct value of H = 16cm [1]
(i)
(ii)
[2]

5 points correctly plotted each round down [2]
Best fit line (with intercept on H axis) [1]
[5]
Conclusion D and H not proportional [1]

Reason Line not through origin [1]
[2]
(iii)
Answer consistent with their intercept on the H axis typically 4cm

0.2cm
[1]
[10]
128
(a)
(i)
1
1
1
[1]
Rt
R1 R 2
1
1
1
Rt
20 30
or
1
30 20
or equivalent
Rt
600
[1]
R t 12 ( ) [1]
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Circuit resistance = 12+24 = 36 [1]

[4]
I = V/R [1]
0.33 or 1/3(A) [1]
Ecf for total resistance from (i)
[2]
For recognising that total resistance is now 24 [1]

0.5A [1]
[2]
Ammeter in series with battery [1]

Variable resistor in series with battery [1]
Voltmeter in parallel with component [1]
[3]
(i)
Wire/resistor at constant temperature
[1]
(ii)
Filament Bulb
[1]
(iii)
Diode
[1]
(i)
Straight line through the origin
[1]
(ii)
Curve of negative slope
[1]
[16]
129
(a)
(b)
No. of kWh = 6 or 3 2 [1]

84 pence [1]
(i)
(ii)
P = IV [1]
800 = I 220 [1]
800
I
3.6 [1]
220
5A [1]
[2]
[4]
Indicative content
Live wire in contact with metal case
Metal case connected to earth wire
This offers a low resistance path
The current becomes very large
Blowing the fuse
Disconnecting the motor from the mains supply
Response
Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to explain fully and in a
logical order how the fuse blows to protect the user (using all of the above points).
They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
high standard.
[56]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to partially explain how the
fuse blows to protect the user (using 4-5 of the above points). The points shown
above are not all in the correct sequence. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar
and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
[34]
Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to explain some or all of the
observations but the sequence is not shown in a logical order. Their spelling,
punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited standard.
[12]
[6]
(c)
The bulb should light [1]

There is a conducting path [1]
From the earth pin to the metal kettle [1]
[3]
[15]
130
(a)
(i)
(ii)
[2]
(iii)
(b)
(c)
Any one from:

Planets orbit the sun in same direction
Planets orbit the sun in the same plane
Light from stars in this galaxy [1]

Is red shifted [1]
(i)
(ii)
[1]
[2]
X axis: Distance [1]

Y axis: Speed [1]
[2]

Points including 0,0 plotted each round down [2]
Best line fit [1]
[4]
(iii)
Hubbles Law is valid [1]

Straight line [1]
Passing through the origin [1]
[3]
[14]
131
(a)
(b)
The needle on the meter momentarily deflects or

The needle deflects and returns to zero
[1]
(ii)
The needle is at rest or no deflection
[1]
(iii)
The needle momentarily deflects [1]

But in the opposite direction [1]
[2]
Np/Ns = Vp/Vs [1]

6,000/Ns = 240/20 [1]
500 turns [1]
[3]
6000/50 = 240/Vs [1]

120 = 240/Vs or Vs = 240/120 [1] for either step
Vs = 2V [1]
Method is not required for full marks. If final answer incorrect, allow
[1] mark for identifying 50 turns as 1/10 of total
[3]
(i)
(i)
(ii)
[10]
(a)
Temperature Rise
Expansion
20
40
60
80
0.46
0.92
1.36
1.81
[2]
each correct column round down

(b)
Ratio of expansion/temp rise = constant [1]

Each value shown mark round down [2]
0.46/20 = 0.23, 0.92/40 = 0.23
1.36/60 = 0.23, 1.81/80 = 0.23
allow marks for inverse approach
[3]
[5]
Total
132
[115]
CONTROLLED ASSESSMENT
133
134
GCSE Physics
SPECIMEN
CONTROLLED
ASSESSMENT TASK (CAT)
AND
GUIDANCE NOTES FOR
TEACHERS
135
Guidance on Controlled Assessment

Controlled Assessment Task (CAT) Efficiency: Electric Motors
An energy efficiency rating must, by law, be shown on all fridges, freezers,
fridge/freezers, washing machines, tumble dryers, washer dryers, dishwashers,
electric ovens and light bulb packaging in the UK. A more energy efficient
product will help you cut down your energy usage, and therefore reduce your
gas and electricity bills.
Many of these products contain electric motors, the efficiency of which
contributes to the overall energy efficiency rating of the product.
Plan and carry out an investigation on one or more of the different factors that
affect the efficiency of an electric motor.
Guidance Notes for Teachers
Candidates must be given the opportunity to carry out an investigation on one of the different
factors which affect the % efficiency of an electric motor.
Candidates should identify the independent variables as either the load (mass) lifted, the height
through which the load is lifted or the voltage supplied.
One possible method might be to measure the total energy input of the motor using the
voltmeter/ammeter method, however joulemeters may be used if available. The useful energy
output is calculated by measuring the load and the vertical distance moved and applying the
equation PE = mgh. The % efficiency can then be found for each load.
Note: This is only one suggested method. Candidates should be encouraged to engage with the
scientific process by making their own planning decisions.
Candidates will be expected to process their results so that they calculate at least five % efficiencies
for a range of the chosen independent variable. This data must be contained within their results
table and will be required for plotting a line graph in the assessed Part C of the controlled
assessment task (CAT).
During the CAT, candidates must complete Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment and Part B:
Data Collection in the Pupil Response Booklet A enclosed with this document. Part A is to be
carried out under a medium level of supervision and is assessed. Part B is to be carried out under a
limited level of supervision and is not assessed.
Candidates must complete Part C: Processing, Analysis and Evaluation in Pupil Response Booklet
B enclosed with this document. Part C of the CAT is carried out under high control and is assessed.
Confidentiality
These guidance notes and subsequent Candidate Response Booklet B must be kept confidential at
all times and stored in a secure place e.g. a metal lockable cabinet.
136
Health and Safety

Centre must ensure that all health and safety issues are addressed and that teachers supervise
candidates to ensure that there is compliance with the necessary health and safety requirements
during the data collection part of the CAT.
Marking
Part A of the CAT should be marked using the generic mark descriptors for Planning and Risk
Assessment as detailed in section 6.6 of the specification.
Part C of the CAT should be marked using the mark scheme provided.
Please refer to the specification for more detailed guidance on the procedures and controls for
carrying out the controlled assessment task
137
BLANK PAGE
138
Centre Number
71
Candidate Number
GCSE Physics
Controlled Assessment Task
Candidate Response Booklet A
Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment
Part B: Data Collection
SPECIMEN
Complete your candidate name and centre number.
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
You may ask your teacher for extra paper if required.
The maximum mark for this part of the task is 18.
Quality of written communication will be assessed in
Part A (Planning and Risk Assessment).
Teacher
Mark
Moderator
Mark
Planning
Risk
Assessment
Total
Candidate Name: ______________________________________ Date: _____________________________
Signature of candidate: _________________________________
Signature of teacher: ___________________________________ Date: _____________________________
139

Efficiency: Electric Motors
Candidates should read the information below carefully.
An energy efficiency rating must, by law, be shown on all fridges, freezers, fridge/freezers,
washing machines, tumble dryers, washer dryers, dishwashers, electric ovens and light bulb
packaging in the UK. A more energy efficient product will help you cut down your energy usage,
and therefore reduce your gas and electricity bills.
Many of these products contain electric motors, the efficiency of which contributes to the overall
energy efficiency rating of the product.
Plan and carry out an investigation on one or more of the different factors that affect the efficiency of
an electric motor.
140
Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment

When completing your Hypothesis and Plan you will be assessed on your written communication
skills, including the use of specialist, scientific terms.
Your Hypothesis (Say what you think will happen.)
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Risk Assessment
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144
Part B: Data Collection

Draw a blank results table. Use this to record and process your data.
145
BLANK PAGE
146
Centre Number
71
Candidate Number
GCSE Physics
Candidate Response Booklet B
Part C: Processing, Analysis and Evaluation
SPECIMEN
Complete your candidate name and centre number.
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
You may ask your teacher for extra graph paper or lined paper if required.
The maximum mark for this part of the task is 27.
You may consult all the information and results
contained in your Candidate Response Booklet A.
Question
Teacher
Mark
Moderator
Mark
1
2
3
4
5
6
Candidate Name: ______________________________________ Date: _____________________________
Signature of candidate: _________________________________
Signature of teacher: ___________________________________ Date: ____________________________
147
On the graph grid below, use the information in your results table to plot an
appropriate graph. Remember to draw a line of best fit.
[4]
148
Use your results and information from your graph to explain what you found out in
your investigation and whether this agreed with the hypothesis you made at the start.
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(a)
[5]
State one factor that you kept the same in your investigation. Explain how this
made it a fair test.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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149
[2]
(b)
If you were doing your experiment again, state one improvement you would
make and explain why you would make it.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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150
[2]
An electric crane manufacturer carries out a number of tests on the efficiency of the
electric motor used in one of its electric cranes. The results for each test are shown
below and overleaf on graphs 13.
Graph 1
151
Graph 2
152
Graph 3
153
(a)
Which graph is from an investigation most similar to your own?

_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
[2]
The following questions relate to the graph you have chosen in part 4(a).
(b)
Are there any anomalous results in the graph you have chosen?
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(c)
[2]
Describe fully the trend shown by the results on the graph and compare this
trend with the results for your own investigation.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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154
[3]
Compare the largest % efficiency in your experiment with the largest % efficiency
plotted on the graph you have chosen in Question 4(a).
(a)
What is the largest % efficiency plotted:

(i)
On your chosen graph: ________%
(ii) On your own graph:
(b)
________%
[1]
Estimate the ratio of the above % efficiencies.

_____________________
(c)
[1]
Look at the graph you have chosen. Could this experiment be carried out in the
school science laboratory? Give a reason for your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
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[1]
Look carefully at graph 3.

(a)
Draw a best fit line for this graph.
[1]
(b)
Estimate the % efficiency of the motor when the operating voltage is 40V.
________________V
(c)
[1]
The manufacturer recommends that the motor should not be used at an operating
voltage of <100V. Explain why this is the case.
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_______________________________________________________________
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155
[2]
BLANK PAGE
156
GCSE Physics
Controlled Assessment
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
MARK
SCHEME
(Part C Processing, Analysis, Evaluation)
157
GCSE Physics Controlled Assessment Task

Efficiency: Electric Motors Text
Marking Guidelines Part C (Processing, Analysis and Evaluation)
Answer
1
3(a)
3(b)
Mark
Additional Guidance
X axis: scaled correctly, labelled

with correct quantity and unit [1]
Y axis: scaled correctly, labelled
with correct quantity and unit [1]
[2]
Points plotted correctly
[1]
Line of best fit drawn correctly
[1]
Valid statement which reflects the

trend seen
[1]
Reference to graph/results
[1]
Links the independent and

dependent variable
[1]
Correctly states if outcomes

agree/disagree with hypothesis
[1]
Valid statement explaining why

their conclusion either
agrees/disagrees with their
hypothesis
[1]
Any controlled variable
[1]
Allow weight for load/mass
Only one factor can be changed
[1]
No mark for To make it a fair test
States one valid improvement
[1]
Explains correctly why

improvement should be made
[1]
158
Tolerance for plotting points is +/- 1 small

square both vertically and horizontally
Allow one plotting error
A variety of responses may be worthy of

credit. Teachers should use their
professional judgement when considering
these responses
Question Answer
4(a)
4(b)
4(c)
Mark Additional Guidance
Graph 1, 2 or 3 as appropriate to
candidates own independent
variable
[1]
Same independent variable

or equivalent
[1]
Graph 1: Yes
Explanation: 150kg for load does
not fit the pattern/trend
or
Graph 2: Yes
Explanation: 25m result for
height does not fit the
pattern/trend
or
Graph 3: Yes
Explanation: 30V result for
voltage does not fit the
pattern/trend
Graph 1:
Increases at start [1]
Then decreases [1]
or
Graph 2:
As height increases, efficiency
increases [1]
Graph not linear (or equivalent)
[1]
or
Graph 3:
(linear) increase at start [1]
Then levels off [1]
Valid comparison with their own
results
[2]
[2]
[1]
159
Accept One result does not fit the

pattern/trend
Correctly reads maximum %

efficiency from both chosen graph
and own results
[1]
5(b)
Correct ratio calculated
[1]
Allow inverse ratio
5(c)
Values too large
[1]
Allow correct reference to safety
6(a)
Line of best fit drawn correctly
[1]
6(b)
Efficiency is 3.2(%) +/- 0.2(%)
[1]
6(c)
Below 100V
[1]
The efficiency decreases
[1]
5(a)
Must be exact
Allows +/- 0.2(%) efficiency

This equates to +/- 1small square
Total [100]
Permission to reproduce all copyright material has been applied for.

In some cases, efforts to contact copyright holders may have been unsuccessful and CCEA
will be happy to rectify any omissions of acknowledgement in future if notified.
160

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GCSE Physics

Specimen Assessment Materials

General Marking Instructions

Controlled Assessment Task (CAT) and Guidance Notes for Teachers

A CCEA Publication 2011

You may download further copies of this publication from www.ccea.org.uk

General Certificate of Secondary Education

Answer all questions

Using these measurements calculate how much unwanted energy is

Unwanted energy = ________J [1]

Calculate the efficiency of this petrol engine.

Efficiency = ________________ [2]

The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a

The most common energy resources used in Europe today are:

Global warming in seen by many as a major threat to many countries.

Name the fuel used in nuclear power stations.

Mass is measured in kilograms (kg) and weight is measured in

Acceleration = ________________m/s2 [3]

The diagram shows an object moving in a circle.

John wants to measure the density of a rock.

Volume =__________cm3 [2]

The mass of the rock was measured and found to be 36g.

Density of the rock = _____________ [3]

Which three rocks are made of the same material?

Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.

He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.

Work done =________________ J [2]

He takes 6.0 seconds to climb the 3.0 metres.

Power = ________________ W [3]

A nail gun fires a nail of mass 5g with a speed of 20m/s.

Calculate the kinetic energy of the nail as it leaves the gun.

Kinetic energy =________________J [3]

Is the average distance S proportional to the height H?

The diagram below represents a helium atom.

Although the atom contains charged particles it is electrically neutral.

Helium has the chemical symbol He.

A radioactive atom decays by emitting a beta () particle.

What is a beta () particle?

The graph below shows the results of this investigation.

Number of particles per second = ________________

State the approximate range of particles indicated by the graph.

Range = ________________cm [2]

Explain why the detector does not give a reading of zero.

General Certificate of Secondary Education

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

Answer all questions

Many countries see global warming as a major threat.

Some countries see nuclear power stations as a solution to their energy

State the main environmental disadvantage of using nuclear power to

Uranium is used as the fuel in most nuclear power stations.

State one problem of decommissioning a nuclear power station compared

Many view wind farms as an eyesore on the landscape.

The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a

Time taken = ________________seconds [3]

The mass of the car is 1000kg.

Additional Frictional Force = ________________N [3]

Describe and explain how her acceleration changes as she descends.

John was asked to measure the density of a number of rocks.

Which three rocks are made of the same material?

One of the rocks was found to have a density of 3.5g/cm3.

Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.

He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.

Work done = ________________J