Student name: Student NO.

: University of Alexandria Faculty of Medicine Master degree of Anaesthesia and Surgical ICU Physics and Clinical Measurement Exam Time allowed TWO hour All Questions to be Attempted. 1-The statement that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of molecules is a) Charles' law b) Boyle's law c) Lavoisier's law d) Avogadro's hypothesis e) Archimedes' hypothesis 2-The vapor pressure of a liquid is most dependent on the a) Atmospheric pressure b) Specific heat of the liquid c) Temperature d) Thermal conductivity of the container e) Molecular weight of the liquid 3-If three containers each contain 22.4 L of oxygen, nitrous oxide, and halothane vapor (each at standard pressure and temperature), the weights of the containers will a) Be equal b) Vary according to the molecular weights of the gases c) Vary according to how many moles of the gases are contained d) Be dependent on the individual vapor pressures of the gases e) Vary inversely with the density of the gases 4-Poiseuille's law describes the resistance to the flow of a) Electrons in a conductor b) A fluid in relation to height c) A gas in a closed system d) A fluid in relation to the diameter of a tube e) A fluid through an orifice 5-The Bernoulli theorem states that a) Pressure and volume in a pipe are related. b) Pressure and temperature in a pipe are related c) Velocity of flow and lateral pressure in a pipe are related d) Velocity of a fluid and its flow in a pipe are related e) Flow of a fluid and its viscosity in a pipe are

13/1/2008 6-Current flowing in a loop of wire moving within a magnetic field is an example of a) Inductance b) Capacitance c) Reactance d) Resistance e) Oscillation 7- Laminar flow in a tube is proportional to the radius of the tube raised to the a) First power b) Second power c) Fourth power d) Eighth power e) Sixteenth power 8- For inhalational anesthetics, the anesthetic potency is proportional to a) Lipid solubility b) Boiling point c) Vapor pressure d) Critical temperature e) Specific gravity

9-The oxygen tanks on an anesthesia machine are a) G tanks b) M tanks c) E tanks d) D tanks e) B tanks 10- A disadvantage of the Bain circuit a) Inability to use spontaneous ventilation b) Requirement for low flow c) Inability to scavenge waste gases d) Presence of overflow valve farther from the patient e) Kinking of inner delivery tube

related

11-In closed-circuit anesthesia, the one parameter that must be met is the a) Tidal volume b) Minute volume c) Respiratory rate d) Oxygen consumption e) Needed anesthesia 12-Two identical syringes are fitted with needles, one of which is twice the diameter of the other. The same force is applied to the plungers. The volume ejected in unit time is a) Not related to the needle size b) Four times greater through the large needle c) Eight times greater through the large needle d) Sixteen times greater through the large needle e) Thirty-two times greater through the large needle 13-If a nitrous oxide tank is contaminated with water vapor, ice will form on the cylinder valve as a result of the a) Latent heat of vaporization b) Specific heat c) Vapor pressure d) Low pressure of the nitrous oxide e) Ambient temperature 14-During a long operation, reliable monitors of core temperature include: a) A temperature probe in the rectum b) A quadriceps muscle temperature c) A temperature probe in the nasopharynx d) A temperature probe in the oesophagus at the level of the cricoid 15- The position best tolerated by surgical patient is the : a) Lithotomy position b) Prone position c) Horizontal supine position d) Trendelenburg position e) Fowler position 16-Exposure to trace concentrations of waste anaesthetic gases may lead to the following Except: a) Spontaneous abortion b) Congenital abnormality in the pregnant staff baby c) Viral diseases transmission

18-Exposure to radiation in OR may lead to the following Except: a) Tissue damage b) Congenital abnormalities c) Malignant changes d) Fires and explosions 19-To reduce the radiation risk in OR, you should do the following Except: a) Keep a distance at least 3 feet from the patient b) Wearing apron c) Postpone surgery d) The use of Giger's counter

20-The following diseases can be transmitted to the operating staff in OR Except: a) Hepatitis A b) AIDS c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis B

21-Recommendations to protect OR staff from AIDS include the following Except: a) Wearing double gloves b) Wearing goggles c) Wearing gowns d) Resheathing needles 22-Concerning electrical safety: a) The operating table should be isolated b) VF can be caused by a 50 mA current c) Earthed main equipment will always have a leakage current to earth d) An intracardiac shock of 150 uA can cause asystolic cardiac arrest 23-During LASER surgery to the airway all Except: a) Theatre personnel should wear goggles to prevent retinal damage. b) Reduction of FiO2 with N2O helps to prevent airway fire c) The LASER beam can penetrate a metal endotracheal tube d) Endotracheal tube should be removed in the event of an airway fire 24-Caused of fire and explosion in OR Except: a) LASER surgery b) Flammable skin solution c) Diathermy d) Halothane

17-Measure to reduce OR pollution include the following Except: a) Scavenging system b) The use of open anaesthetic circuit c) The use of TIVA

d) Adequate care during vaporizers filling

25-Preventive measures against medication errors Except: a) Check all drug vials closely prior to drawing them up into a syringe except resuscitation drugs b) Avoid drug containers that have a similar appearance c) All syringes should be labeled prior to drawin up medications d) Drugs should always be placed in a consistent, specific location on the anaesthesia cart 26-For monitoring neuromuscular function, stimulus intensity should be a) Maximal b) Submaximal c) Supramaximal d) Minimal 27-Needle electrode is place a) Inside the muscle b) Subcutaneous c) Over the skin d) Over the bone

31-One milliliter of isoflurane liquid occupies what volume at 1 atm pressure and 20C if all of the liquid is vaporized? The ideal gas constant is 0.082 (L.atm) (K.mol), the specific gravity of isoflurance is 1.5, and its molecular weight is 184.5 a) 182 mL b) 195 mL c) 201 mL d) 207 mL e) 226 mL

32-A cylinder of oxygen has an internal volume of 6 L and a pressure of 1700 psi. How many liters of oxygen will this tank supply at sea level? a) 660 L b) 680 L c) 694 L d) 706 L e) 716 L 33-A line isolation monitor is set to alarm at 2 mA. When an alarm condition exists, it means that a) 2 mA of current are flowing through the patient if the ungrounded power system were to become grounded b) 2 mA of current could flow through the patient if the ungrounded power system were to become grounded c) The patient is likely to experience electrical injury if the alarm condition is not remedied d) There must be a faulty electrical device in the operating room e) Surgery should stop immediately, and if it cannot stop, the patient should be relocated to a different operating room 34- The lifetime of a canister of soda lime a) Depends on the method of filling b) Is independent of the volume of CO2 exhaled c) Is independent of the location of the relief valve d) Is prolonged by low gas flows e) Is shortened by channeling 35-An open waste scavenging system: a) Must have a negative-pressure relief valve b) Must have a positive-pressure relief valve c) Must connected to the source of vacuum d) Does not need reservoir 36-The indicator in carbon dioxide absorbent is a) Methylene blue b) Ethyl violet c) Bromthymol blue d) Phenolphthalein e) Cresol purple

28-Fade in response to nerve stimulator is observed during: a) Normal contraction b) Depolarizing block c) Non depolarizing block d) Malignant hyperthermia 29-During intense neuromuscular block, the following mode of stimulation if most helpful a) Single twitch b) Double burst c) Train of four d) Post titanic count 30-Applying train of four mode, Antagonism of non depolarizing neuromuscular block should not be started before the appearance of a) One response b) At least two responses c) Four responses d) Train of four ratio = 1

37-The premise that a wave train reflected from a moving surface will undergo a change in frequency is the basis of a) The electrocardiogram (ECG) b) The Doppler effect c) Thermodilution cardiac output monitors d) Force transducers e) Raman spectroscopy 38-The number of calories required to raise the temperature of 1g of a substance by 1C is a) The heat of vaporization b) The specific heat c) The critical temperature d) Thermal conductivity e) Equal for all substances

43-If the PaCO2 is 40 mmHg and the bicarbonate concentration in the blood is 24 mEq/L, the blood pH is a) Normal b) 7.3 and the mechanisms is metabolic c) 7.3 and the mechanism is respiratory d) 7.5 and the mechanism is metabolic e) 7.5 and the mechanism is respiratory 44-At sea level, if a patient without any cardiopulmonary pathology is administered 70% O2, after an appropriate time to reach equilibrium the PaO2 will be approximately a) 415 mmHg b) 440 mmHg c) 476 mmHg d) 500 mmHg e) 532 mmHg 45-The current delivered to the patient by an electrocautery device differs from the current supplied by an electrical utility in its a) Capacitance b) Frequency c) Amperage d) Voltage e) Power 46-The boiling point of a liquid a) Is the temperature where the vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure b) Will decrease if the atmospheric pressure is decreased c) Is a temperature where the vapor and liquid are in equilibrium if enclosed within a container d) Will increase if the ambient temperature is increased

39-The latent heat of vaporization a) Is equal for all liquids b) Is independent of the ambient temperature c) Varies with the temperature of the liquid d) Is very low for solids e) For water is 1 cal/mL

40-Cellular telephones commonly cause interference with a medical device if a) Used anywhere within a hospital b) Used by a patient having an implanted cardiac defibrillator c) Used while standing next to an anesthesia machine d) Carried in a shirt pocket overlying a cardiac pacemaker e) Used by a patient having an intracranial aneurysm clip 41-The osmolality of a solution of calcium chloride which is 0.1 molal is a) 50 mOsm/kg H2O b) 100 mOsm/kg H2O c) 200 mOsm/kg H2O d) 300 mOsm/kg H2O e) 400 mOsm/kg H2O 42-Phase II depolarizing block is characterized by a) Train of four ratio = 1 b) Post titanic potentiation c) Exaggerated response to single twitch d) Response to double burst stimulation is two short muscle contractions of equal strength

47-The following are colloidal solutions Except a) 5% albumin b) 3% sodium chloride c) 6% hetastarch d) Dextran 70

48-In specific gravity: all true Except a) Of water is 1 b) Applies only to liquids, gas and solid c) Describes a ratio of the mass of one substance to the mass of a similar volume of water at the same temperature d) Is measured in units of mass per unit volume

54-The line isolation monitor a) Measures leakage current flowing from the patient to ground b) Measures leakage current flowing from the electrical equipment to the patient c) Sounds an alarm if the leakage current exceeds 50 mA d) Measures the impedance between the AC wiring and ground e) Cuts off power to the circuit if a faulty piece of equipment is connected 55-Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding blood pressure cuffs? a) The bladder length should be 50% of the limb circumference b) The bladder width should be 40% of the limb circumference c) A cuff designed for a thigh cannot be used on a large arm d) A cuff designed for an arm cannot be used on a small thigh e) A cuff whose bladder is too narrow for the limb will give an erroneously low blood pressure 56- Factors which increase the difference between arterial and measured end-tidal carbon dioxide include Except a) Mismatch of ventilation and perfusion b) Wheezing c) High fresh gas flow rates d) High cardiac output 57-Blood pressure measured by an automatic noninvasive method Except: a) May over-read at high pressure b) May over-read at low pressure c) Is affected by arrhythmias d) May cause ulnar nerve damage e) Cuff width affect the measurement

49-The density of a gas a) Affects the rate of laminar flow through an orifice b) Is independent of temperature c) Is related to the explosive potential d) Is important in the transition to turbulent flow

50-The solution property (ies) which the Lambert-Beer law relate(s) is (are):Except:a) Light absorbance b) Length of light path c) Solute concentration d) Temperature 51-A patient is being monitored with a bispectral index (BIS) monitor. When the value for BIS is 60, it means that the patient a) Has about a 60% probability of being awake b) Has a very small (less than 1%) probability of having recall of intraoperative events c) Does not require additional opioid d) If not pharmacologically paralyzed will not move in response to surgical incision e) Is less likely to be awake than if the BIS value were 50 52-A mechanism used to reduce the pressure of a gas from a compressed gas cylinder to a usable nearly constant pressure is a) A gauge b) A flowmeter c) An indicator d) A regulator e) A check valve 53-Electrocautery machines do not cause ventricular fibrillation because the current they deliver differs from the electric current supplied by wall electrical outlets primarily by being a) Direct current instead of alternating current b) Lower in voltage

58-One degree Celsius equal: a) One degree F b) One degree Kelvin c) One bar d) One newton

59-Concerning the respiratory function tests Except: a) The pneumotachograph is suitable for measuring peak flow b) Peak flow can be determined from a vitalograph c) FEV1/FVC decreases with obstructive disease

c) Lower in frequency d) Higher in frequency e) Lower in amperage 60-Regarding the flow directed multi-lumen pulmonary artery (PA) catheter EXCEPT : a) The thermistor is situated 20 cm from the tip b) Pulmonary capillary wedge is a small bronchopulmonary segment c) Cardiac estimations can be performed by pressure measurement d) An open central lumen when the balloon is not inflated protects against distal infarction e) Is more accurate when inserted via the internal jugular vein than via the subclavian vein 61-In the Severinghaus electrode: a) The electrolyte solution is sodium bicarbonate surrounding a pH-sensitive electrode b) Contains carbon dioxide-sensitive gas is not affected by temperature c) Is more accurate for blood than gas sample analysis d) Is affected by nitrous oxide

d) Airway resistance can be measured by plethysmography e) Dynamic compliance decreases as respiratory rate decreases 66-As a person ascends to an altitude of 10,000 ft, there is a) No change in atmospheric pressure b) A decrease in FIO2 c) A decrease in PIO2 d) A decrease in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pH e) A decrease in minute ventilation

67-Determination of cardiac output (COP) with thermodilution technique all EXCEPT: a) Requires a PAC with a thermister b) Uses the same principle as the dye-dilution technique. c) Requires the use of an exact amount of fluid with a room temperature. d) Requires the measurements of the temperature in the pulmory arteries. e) Can not be used for continuous monitoring. 68- In cardiac output all true EXCEPT: a) Thoracic bio-impedance is not reliable and valid method for measuring COP. b) Usually 5-6 L/min in a 70 kg man. c) Affected by blood volume. d) The product of heart rate and stroke volume. 69- When inserting a CVP line? All true EXCEPT: a) Air embolism may occur. b) The tip should be placed in the right atrium. c) Use of the internal jugular vein rather than subclavian vein to avoid many of the major complications d) The left side of the neck is not preferred. 70- As PAC is inserted (in normal person) all the measurement is true except: a) Right arterial pressure of 8mmHg. b) Right verticular systolic pressure of 25 mmHg. c) Pulmonary artery systolic pressure of 25 mmHg. d) Pulmonary artery diastolic pressure lower than right ventricular diastolic pressure. e) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 10 mmHg. 71- In the ICU, a patient with a PAC suddenly develops hemoptysis. The most likely explanation is: a) Pneumonia

62-To measure right to left shunt the following are needed Except: a) End capillary PO2 b) Mixed venous PO2 c) Arterial PO2 d) Cardiac output e) Oxygen saturation 63-Infrared gas analysis can be used to measure: a) Nitrous oxide b) Oxygen c) Halothane d) Carbon dioxide e) Trichloroethylene 64-Body temperature can be measured by: Except: a) Galvanic skin resistance b) Small metal wire resistance c) A hot-wire anemometer d) A thermocouple

65-Pulse oximetry: a) The alarm should be set at an oxygen saturation of 85%

b) Is affected by bilirubin c) Is inaccurate with an oxygen saturation less than 70% d) Is affected by incident light e) Is affected by carboxyhaemoglobin

b) c) d) e)

Postoperative hemorrhage. Disconnected intravenous tubing. Pulmonary artery rupture. Sepsis.

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72- False (F) or true (T) a) The fick method is usually considered to be the most acurate for measuring C.O.P b) Following cardiac surgery, a CI of < 3 L/min/m2 indicates a severe depression of cardiac function. c) Measuring COP by thoracic bioimpdance depends on the Doppler principle. d) Transoesophageal Doppler for measuring COP has the greatest potential of Doppler techniques. e) Echo is a very accurate and single method for routine measurement COP. 73- In gas liquid chromatography all true except: a) There is partition of substances between stationary phase and a moving phase. b)The column is packed with inert material c)The carrier gas is not oxygen only. d)Substances are identified by their specific profiles at the detector. e)The technique is unsuitable for continuous measurement. 74-The mass spectrometer Except:: a)Is so named because of its ability to distinguish molecules within a mixture of molecules. b)Detects ionized particles c) Has a response time fast enough for breathto-breath measurements. d)Can be used for molecules made up of more than three atoms e)Is useful for small samples 75- During intense neuromuscular block the following mode of stimulation if most helpful: a)Single twitch b) Double burst. c) Train of four. d) Post titanic count. 76-One bar equal to: Except: a) 100 Kpa b) 760 mmHg c) 1000 mmHg. d) Atomspheric pressure at sea level

77-All True Except: a) For tiny pressure Kpa unit is used. b) For high pressure bar unit is used. c) Newton is expressed as Kgms-2 d) 100 Kpa is equal to 35 psi e) Single stage reducing valve is mainly used in anaesthesia machine.

78-Fade in response to nerve stimulator is observed during: a) Normal contraction. b) Depolarizing block. c) Non depolarizing block. d) Malignant hyperthermia.

79- Which of the followings are fault (T): a) Hagen-poisenille equation is Q = P r4/8 nL b) Differential pressure is a gange pressure substracted from tge absolute pressure c) The pressure in full O2 cylinder is 137 bar giving pressure or 100 bar absolute pressure

80-To measure a pressure below or above atmospheric pressure, you can use Except: a) Fluid columns b) Pressure tramsducers c) Bourdon gange d) Aneroid gange

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81- Complete a)Absolute humidity is b) The unit of absolute humidity is and the unit of relative humidity is .. c) Isothermic saturation boundary is . d) Humidity deficit is .. e) Most important problems in intubated patients breathing non-conditioned an are: 12382- As regards humidity put True of False. a) Normally, inspired air entering the trachea is at 34C and has absolute humidity of 34 g.m-3 b) Normally, alveolar air is at 37C and of absolute humidity of 34 g.m-3 c) Expired air leaving the trachea is at 33C and absolute humidity of 37 mg.L-1 d) Endotracheal tube can exchange neither heat not moisture. e) Hydrophabic HME humidifiers are more effective in hypothermic patient than hyproscopic hydrophobic HME. 83- As regards humidity put True of False. a) High ambient temperature reduces the gradient between the two surfaces of HME humidifiers. b)Hydrophobic HME could maintain adequate humidification during hyperventilation. c)HME humidifier with bacterial filter can prevent trachea colonization & VAP. d)All heated humidifiers provide 100% relative humidity and temperature similar to body temperature. e)Not all heated humidifier provide 100% relative humidity & temperature similar to body temperature. 84- Doppler shift principle states that if the object is moving toward the transducer, the reflected frequency is: a)Higher than the transmitted frequency. d) Lower than the transmitted frequency. e)Equal to the transmitted frequency.

85- Certain assumptions must remain valid for esophageal Doppler to provide a continuous trend of cardiac output. All the following assumptions are true except: a)The angle remains constant. b)Aortic cross sectional area remains constant. c)The velocity of red blood cells remains constant. d)The fraction of cardiac output remains constant.

86- M-mode echocardiography characterized by: a)Visualize a global view of the heart. b)Takes about 30 images/second. c)Transducer with multiple crystals. d)View rapidly moving structures.

87- Four-chambers long axis view of Transesophageal echocardiography is used to: a) Detect aortic stenosis. b) Detect mitral stenosis. c) Detect right ventricular dysfunction. d) Monitor left ventricular filling and function.

88- To prevent harmonics , the extension tubing should be a)Soft, thick walled and compliant. b) Stiff, thick walled and compliant. c)Soft, thick walled and non compliant. d) Stiff, thick and non compliant.

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89- The resistance of a conductor increase with: a) Increase of temperature. b) Decrease of temperature. c) Increase of cross sectional area. d) Decrease of the length.

90- Signal to noise ratio can be improved by: a) eliminating the source of noise. b) Averaging noise to zero. c) Averaging noise to maximum. d) Averaging the monitored signal to maximum.

94- During direct arterial blood pressure measurement damping is increased by: a)The absence of bubbles the extension tubing. b) The absence of kinks or bends in the extension tubing. c)A 90 degree angle stop cocks. d) the absence of clots or debris in the extension tubing 95-The function residual capacity ( FRC ) is the combination of : a) Tidal volume (TV) and residual volume (RV). b) Tidal volume (TV) and expired reserve volume (ERV). c) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) and tidal volume (TV). d) Residual volume (RV) and expired reserve volume (ERV). e) Residual volume (RV) and inspiratory reserve volume (IRV). 56-If one measured pleural pressure, one would find that the pressure was : a) Highest at the apex of the lung. b) Highest at the base of the lung. c) Equal at all levels. d) Unrelated to body position. e) Completely unpredictable from one level to another. 97- At functional residual capacity (FRC): a) The pressure difference between the alveoli and atmosphere is zero. b) The pressure difference between alveoli and atmosphere is positive. c) The pressure difference between the alveoli and the atmosphere is negative. d) The total pulmonary vascular resistance is very high. e) No further inspiration is possible. 98-The minimum O2% administered in the anaesthetic circuit is a) 13% b) 43% c) 30-35% d) 50-60% e) 21%

91- Wheatstone bridge is used to identify unknown a) Current b) Resistance c) Charge d) Potential difference

92- To avoid harmonics and overshoot , the transducer should have a natural frequency that is a)Less than the frequency of the wave to be monitored. b) Equal to the frequency of the wave to be monitored. c)Three times the frequency of the wave to be monitored. d) Five times the frequency of the wave to be monitored. 93-What is true regarding the O2 flushing control? a) It is not necessary to present in the anaesthetic machine. b) Activation of the valve will deliver pure O2 to the patient after by-passing flowmeter and vapourizer. c) Deliver flow of 20 L /min. d) This flow of O2 must pass first the flow meter and then to the patient.

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99- The desirable feature in good anaesthetic breathing system Except: a) Low apparatus dead space b) Low resistance to gas flow c) Efficient eliminate of CO2 d) Adequate supply of FIO2 e) All of the above 100- The disadvantages of closed circle system include all except: Complex design High resistance Allows rebreathing Not ideal for all anaesthestics

105-The mass number of an atom is the number of: a) The protons b) The neutrons c) The neutrons and protons d) The electrons

106-An isotope is an element characterized by Except: a) Has a fixed number of protons & neutrons b) Can be described by total number of protons & neutrons c) Occurs naturally or produced in nuclear reactors d) Some isotopes are stable & others are unstable 107- All True Except: a) Decay of radioactive isotopes involves emission of nuclear particles. b) The energy possessed by elementory particles is measured in electronvolts c) After decay of the nucleus rays are not emitted. d) particle is a combination of 2 protons & 2 neutrons. 108-The short term effects of exposure to ionic radiation include all Except: b) Are dose dependent. c) Causing nausea, vomiting, general lassitude & weakness d) Increase the incidence of cancer & genetic defects e) Can lead to death over a period of days or less.

101-The most commonly use FGF in the BainCO-AXIAL circle system is in adult: a) 5L/min b) 2-3 L/min c) 8L/min d) 12L/min

102-False (F) or True (T) a) Bain circuit is more efficient during controlled ventilation than Mapillson A. b) Soda lime is a mixture of KOH 90% with small around of Ca and Na hydroxide. c) Face mask are made of anti state black rubber or clear latex. d) In Mapill circuit CO2 is eliminated by adequate FGF. e) During spontaneous ventilation in bain circuit, the FGF of 30-50 ml/kg is required to reduce rebreathing. f) Ambu bag should have a rebreathing valve. 103-An example of the CO axial circuit is a)Mapill circuit b) Bain circuit c) Circle system d) Ayre's T-piece e) Ambu bag 104- Most suitable monitor for depth of anaesthesia is: a) Compressed spectral array b) Bispectral index c) Somatosensory evoked potentials d) All of the above

109-The unit used to measure X ray radiation dosage is: a) Rntgen b)Becquerel c) Gray d)Electron volt 110- Intracranial pressure monitoring is indicated in: a) Severe head injury patients b) After clipping of aneurysms c) Small frontal brain tumor d) Eclampsia

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111- There is a high probability of global brain ischaemia if jugular venous saturation is: a) More than 95% b) More than 80% c) 50-60% d) Less than 40% 112- Adequate (surgical) anaesthesia is characterized by the following EEG pattern: a) Slow frequency, large amplitude b) High frequency, low amplitude (beta waves) c) Complete absence of EEG activity d) All of the above 113- Triple point of water equal point 0.01 C: a) At atmospheric pressure b) Under low pressure c) Under high pressure d) All of the above e) Non of above

114- All the following Oxygen Analyzers are responding fast except: a) Mass spectrometry b) Raman scattering c) Electrochemical analysis d) Paramagnetic analysis 115- The pressure at oxygen gas outlets in the ICU should be: a) 2 Bars b) 4 Bars c) 6 Bars d) 8 Bars

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116-Match between the two columns: 1- Heat a-It is an expression of the Thermal state of a body Reflecting the kinetic Energy of its molecules. 2- Specific heat b- It is the quantity of heat Required to produce a Change of state of a given Substance. c- It is a form of energy, Which can be given or Taken from the matter. d- It is a quantity of heat Required to raise the Temperature of 1 gm. Of a substance by 1C.

3- Temperature

4- Latent

117- Match between the two columns: Heat lost from the body by: 1-Radiation a- 40% 2- Convection b- 20% 3- Evaporation c- 10% 4- Respiration d- 30% 118- Write 4 clinical application for capnography: 1234119- Calculate plasma osmolality when Na = 140 mEq/L, glucose 350 mg/dl, urea 80 mg/dl. 120-Humidity can be measure by: a) b) c)

Good luck

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