DE LA SALLE UNIVERSITY - DASMARINAS Engineering Department Electronics Engineering Program

ELECTRONICS Name: _______________________________ Course/Year/Section ______________ Score

General Direction: 1. Use pencil number (2) only. 2. Erasures in the final answers are considered incorrect. 3. Use of cellular phone and programmable calculators are not allowed. 4. Write all required answers and computations on the answer sheet provided.
TEST I. Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct answer on the space provided on the answer sheet.

1. A software use in robotics wherein it is capable of moving any single degree of freedom to any intermediate point between the two extreme positions. a. point-to-stop software c. continuous-path software b. point-to-point software d. discreet-path software

2. Two inductors, each of 100 H, are in series. The coefficient of coupling is 0.40. The net inductance, if the coil fields reinforce each other, is a. 50 H c. 200 H b. 120 H d. 280 H

3. A charged point particle is placed at the center of a spherical Gaussian surface. The electric flux E is changed if a. the sphere is replaced by a cube of the same volume b. the sphere is replaced by a cube of one-tenth the volume c. the point charge is moved off center d. the point charge is moved to just outside the sphere 4. The peak value of the input to a half-wave rectifier is 10 V. The approximate peak value of the output is a. 10.7 V c. 10 V 5. A watt hour meter measures b. 9.3 V d. 3.18 V

a. Voltage c. Power

b. Current d. Energy

6. A connection of branches forming a closed-path passing through any node only once is called a a. junction c. loop b. mesh d. circuit

7. Let Q denote charge, V denote potential difference, and U denote stored energy. Of these quantities, capacitors in parallel must have the same: a. Q only c. U only 8. How many lines are there in the data bus? a. 10 c. 8 b. 6 d. 12 b. V only d. Q and U only

9. If the resistance of a capacitor-filtered full full-wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage a. is not affected c. decreases b. increases d. has a different frequency

10. In a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The phase difference between the voltage and current will a. increase c. remain the same b. decrease d. slightly change

11. If the feedback fraction in an amplifier is 0.01, then gain with negative feedback is approximately _____. a. 10 c. 1000 b. 100 d. 500

12. An RLC circuit has a capacitance of 12 F, an inductance of 25 mH, and a resistance of 60. The current oscillates with an angular frequency of a. 1.2 x 103 rad/s c. 1.8 x 103 rad/s b. 1.4 x 103 rad/s d. 2.2 x 103 rad/s

13. Which of the following is a condition when a transistor is operating in the active region? a. IB = IE b. IC = IB

c. IC = IB

d. IC = IE

14. An advantage of an alkaline cell over a zinc-carbon cell is that: a. The alkaline cell provide more voltage b. The alkaline cell can be recharged c. An alkaline cell works at lower temperatures d. The alkaline cell is far less bulky for the same amount of energy capacity 15. When a PLL is locked on the input frequency, the VCO frequency a. Is less than fo c. Equals fin b. Is greater than fo d. Equals fo

16. The process of adding an impurity to an intrinsic semiconductor is called a. atomic modification c. recombination b. doping d. ionization

17. Which of the following motors requires both AC and DC power supplies to run it? a. Universal motor c. Synchronous motor 18. The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor are a. holes c. valence electron b. conduction electrons d. protons b. Induction motor d. Wound rotor motor

19. A device commonly used for remote switching of wire communications signal is a. A solenoid c. A potentiometer b. An electromagnet d. A photovoltaic cell

20. A student kept her 60-watt, 120-volt study lamp turned on from 2:00 PM until 2:00 AM. How many coulombs of charge went through it? a. 150 c. 7,200 b. 3,600 d. 21,600

21. A hydrogen atom that has lost its electron is moving east in a region where the magnetic field is directed from south to north. It will be deflected a. up c. north b. down d. south

22. NICAD memory a. Occurs often when NICADs are misused b. Indicates that the cell or battery is dead c. Does not occur very often d. Can cause a NICAD to explode 23. An RL circuit has an impedance of Z = 6 + j8 ohms. What is the susceptance? a. 6 c. 8 b. 0.01 d. 0.08

24. What type of voltage is induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field? a. Pulsating dc c. dc b. rectified ac d. ac

25. When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the input of a half-wave rectifier, the output frequency is a. 60 Hz c. 0 Hz b. 120 Hz d. 30 Hz

26. Every chemical element has its own unique type of particle, called its a. Molecule c. Proton b. Electron d. Atom

27. What is the most common impurity found in the battery electrolyte? a. HCl c. Iron b. Lead d. Water

28. A megaohmmeter is usually designed for measuring which of the following? a. Very high resistance c. Very low resistance 29. Which of the following is TRUE about FET? a. It has a forward biased PN junction b. It has a very high input resistance c. It has a very low input resistance d. It has a high connection emitter junction b. ground faults in power lines d. Overloads on dc motors

30. Static electricity is most often produced by which of the following? a. Pressure c. Heat 31. Which of the following is TRUE about a shift register? a. It stores both serial and parallel data b. Converts serial data to parallel c. Converts parallel data to serial d. All of these 32. What circuit element used to resonate with capacitor? a. resistors c. Inductors b. Transistors d. Diodes b. Magnesium d. Friction

33. The average value of a half-wave rectified voltage with a peak value of 200 V is a. 127.3 V c. 0 V b. 141 V d. 63.7 V

34. An advantage of magnetic disk over magnetic tape for data storage is that a. Data is too closely packed on the tape b. The disk is immune to the effects of magnetic fields c. Data storage and retrieval is faster on disk d. Disks store computer data in analog form 35. The positive lead of an ohmmeter is connected to the anode of a diode and the negative lead is connected to the cathode. The diode is a. reverse-biased c. open 36. Primary cells a. Can be used over and over b. Have higher voltage than other types of cells c. All have exactly 1.500 V d. Cannot be recharged 37. In order to show that a resistor has a tolerance of 10% a. The third band must be silver b. No color in the fourth band b. forward-biased d. faulty

c. The fourth band is gold d. The fourth band must be silver 38. A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its data sheet specifies IDSS = 20 mA and VGS(off) = -5 V. The value of the drain current a. is 0 A c. is 20 mA 39. Which of the following is similar to a de-multiplexer? a. Decoder c. Encoder b. Data selector d. Operator b. is 5 mA d. is 50 mA

40. An n-channel D-MOSFET with positive VGS is operating in a. the depletion mode c. the enhancement mode b. cutoff d. saturation

41. Emitter follower is another name for what transistor configuration? a. Common emitter c. Common collector 42. Why is the core of a transformer laminated? a. To reduce the volume of core used b. To reduce eddy loss c. To decrease the overall weight of the core d. To reduce the copper loss 43. A feature that distinguishes the J-K flip-flop from the S-R flip-flop is the a. toggle condition c. type of clock b. preset input d. clear input b. Common base d. All of these

44. At DC steady state, an inductor acts like which of the following? a. an open circuit c. a short circuit 45. A MOSFET is a special type of a. JFET c. E-MOSFET b. D-MOSFET d. A and C b. a capacitor d. an insulator

46. What will happen if the control system has an excessive noise on it? a. Overall gain is reduced b. Bandwidth is reduced c. The system will oscillate d. The amplifying stages will saturate 47. What is the angular velocity for a 25-cycle circuit? a. 3.1416 radian per second c. 157 radian per second 48. For a certain JFET, IGSS= 10 V. The input resistance is a. 1 M c. 100 M b. 1000 M d. 1000 m b. 377 radian per second d. 314 radian per second

49. Which of the following is TRUE about a signal flow graph? a. It is a special type of graph for analysis of modern control system b. It is a semi-log graph c. It is a log-log graph d. It is a topological representation of asset of differential equation 50. What is the name of resistance wire wrapped around an insulating core? a. Film-type c. Fusible type b. Carbon composition d. Wire wound

51. The magnitude of the charge on an electron is approximately a. 1023 C c. 1019 C b. 10-23 C d. 10-19 C

52. A silicon diode is in series with 1.0 k resistor and a 5 V battery. If the anode is connected to the positive battery terminal, the cathode voltage with respect to the negative battery terminal is a. 0.7 V c. 0.3 V b. 5.7 V d. 4.3 V

53. The total negative charge on the electrons in 1 mol of helium (atomic number 2, molar mass 4) is a. 4.8 x 104 C c. 1.9 x 105 C b. 9.6 x 104 C d. 3.8 x 105 C

54. A rheostat a. Is used in high-voltage and/or high-power dc circuits b. Is ideal for tuning a radio receiver c. Is often used as a bleeder resistor d. Is better than a potentiometer for low-power audio 55. A particle with a charge of 5 x 10-6 C and a mass of 20 g moves uniformly with a speed of 7 m/s in a circular orbit around a stationary particle with a charge of -5 x 10-6 C. The radius of the orbit is: a. 0 m c. 0.62 m 56. The purpose of a pentavalent impurity is to a. increase the number of free electrons b. create minority carriers c. reduce the conductivity of silicon d. increase the number of holes 57. A material with high permeability a. increases magnetic field quantity b. is necessary if a coil is to produce a magnetic field c. always has high retentivity d. concentrates magnetic lines of flux 58. Charge is distributed uniformly on the surface of a spherical balloon (an insulator). A point particle with charge q is inside. The electrical force on the particle is greatest when a. it is near the inside surface of the balloon b. it is at the center of the balloon c. it is halfway between the balloon center and the inside surface d. it is anywhere inside (the force is zero everywhere) 59. A MOSFET differs from JFET mainly because a. of the power rating b. the JFET has a pn junction c. MOSFETS do not have a physical channel d. the MOSFET has two gates 60. Consider Gausss law: d = , which of the following is true? a. must be the electric field due to the enclosed charge b. 0.23 m d. 1.6 m

b. If q = 0, then = 0 everywhere on the Gaussian surface c. If the three particles inside have charges of +q, +q, and -2q, then the integral is zero d. on the surface is everywhere parallel to d 61. You wish to triple the rate of energy dissipation in a heating device. To do this you could triple a. the potential difference keeping the resistance the same b. the current keeping the resistance the same c. the resistance keeping the potential difference the same d. the resistance keeping the current the same 62. A uniform magnetic field is in the positive z direction. A positively charged particle is moving in the positive x direction through the field. The net force on the particle can be made zero by applying an electric field in what direction? a. Positive y c. Positive x b. Negative y d. Negative x

63. For a certain p-channel JFET, VGS(off) = 8 V. The value of VGS for an approximately midpoint bias is a. 2.34 V c. 4 V 64. When forward-biased, a diode a. block current b. conducts current b. has a high resistance d. drops a large voltage b. 0 V d. 1.25 V

65. An ion with a charge of +3.2x10-19 C is in a region where a uniform electric field of 5x104 V/m is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.8T. If its acceleration is zero then its speed must be a. 0 c. 4.0x104 m/s b. 1.6x104 m/s d. 6.3x104 m/s

66. When the rms output voltage of a bridge full wave rectifier is 20 V, the peak inverse voltage across the diodes is (neglecting the diode drop) a. 28.3 V c. 40 V b. 20 V d. 56.6 V

67. The resistance of the primary coil of a well-designed, 1:10 step-down transformer is 1 . With the secondary circuit open, the primary is connected to a 12 V ac generator. The primary current is

a. essentially zero b. about 12 A c. about 120 A d. depends on the actual number of turns in the primary coil 68. The purpose of a bleeder resistor is to a. Provide bias for a transistor b. Serve as a voltage divider c. Protect people against the danger of electric shock d. Reduce the current in a power supply 69. A bar magnet is placed vertically with its S pole up and its N pole down. Its B field at its center is a. zero c. up due to the magnets weight b. down d. horizontal

70. A bar magnet is broken in half. Each half is broken in half again, etc. The observation is that each piece has both a north and south pole. This is usually explained by a. Amperes theory that all magnetic phenomena result from electric currents b. our inability to divide the magnet into small enough pieces c. Coulombs law d. Lenz law 71. The ideal dc output voltage of a capacitor-input filter is equal to a. the average value of the rectified voltage b. the rms value of the rectified voltage c. the peak value of the rectified voltage d. A or B 72. A certain power supply filter produces an output with a ripple of 100 mV peak-to-peak and a dc value of 20 V. The ripple factor is a. 0.005 c. 0.02 b. 0.05 d. 0.00005

73. A capacitor in an LC oscillator has a maximum potential difference of 15 V and a maximum energy of 360 J. At a certain instant the energy in the capacitor is 40 J. At that instant what is the potential difference across the capacitor? a. zero c. 10 V b. 5 V d. 15 V

74. When a voltmeter is placed across a forward-biased diode, it will read a voltage approximately equal to a. the diode barrier potential c. the total circuit voltage 75. A voltage typical of a dry cell is a. 12 V c. 1.5 V b. 6 V d. 117 V b. the bias battery voltage d. 0 V

76. In an oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is U and the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. When the charge on the capacitor is Q/2, the energy stored in the inductor is a. U/2 c. 3U/2 d. 3U/4 b. U/4

77. The rapid exponential decay in just a few cycles of the charge on the plates of capacitor in an RLC circuit might be due to a. a large inductance c. a small capacitance 78. An inductor works by a. Charging a piece of wire b. Storing energy as a magnetic field c. Choking off high-frequency ac d. Introducing resistance into a circuit 79. A battery is used to charge a series combination of two identical capacitors. If the potential difference across the battery terminals is V and total charge Q flows through the battery during the charging process then the charge on the positive plate of each capacitor and the potential difference across each capacitor are a. Q/2 and V/2, respectively c. Q/2 and V, respectively 80. Load regulations is determined by a. changes in zener current and load current b. changes in load current and output voltage c. changes in load current and input voltage d. changes in load resistance and input voltage b. Q and V, respectively d. Q and V/2, respectively b. a large capacitance d. a large resistance

81. The magnitude of the Bohr magneton in J/T is about a. 10-15 c. 10-23 b. 10-19 d. 10-27

82. Two parallel-plate capacitors with different plate separation but the same capacitance are connected in series to a battery. Both capacitors are filled with air. The quantity that is NOT the same for both capacitors when they are fully charged is a. potential difference c. electric field between the plates 83. Holes in an n-type semiconductor are a. minority carriers that are thermally produced b. majority carriers that are thermally produced c. minority carriers that are produced by doping d. majority carriers that are produced by doping 84. A dc electromagnet a. Has constant polarity. b. Requires a core with high retentivity c. Will not attract or repel a permanent magnet d. Has polarity that periodically reverses 85. The molecular theory of magnetism can explain each of the following EXCEPT a. an N pole attracts a S pole b. stroking an iron bar with a magnet will magnetize the bar c. when a bar magnet is broken in two, each piece is a bar magnet d. heating tends to destroy magnetization 86. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 dB. If a negative feedback of 3 dB is applied, the gain of an amplifier will become _________ . a. 103 dB c. 300 dB 87. A trivalent impurity is added to silicon to create a. germanium c. a depletion region 88. A chemical compound b. an n-type semiconductor d. a p-type semiconductor b. 101.5 dB d. 97 dB b. stored energy d. charge on the positive plate

a. Consists of two or more atoms b. Contains an unusual number of neutrons c. Is technically the same as ion d. Has a shortage of electrons 89. Lenz law can explain a. paramagnetism only b. diamagnetism only c. ferromagnetism only d. only two of the three types of magnetism 90. When negative feedback is applied to an amplifier, its gain _______ . a. is increased c. remains the same 91. Line regulations is determined by a. zener current and load current b. changes in load resistance and output voltage c. load current d. changes in output voltage and input voltage 92. The value of negative feedback fraction is always _______ . a. less than 1 c. equal to 1 b. more than 1 d. equal to /2 b. is reduced d. approaches zero

93. When the peak output voltage is 100 V, the PIV for each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is (neglecting the diode drop) a. 100 V c. 200 V 94. A geomagnetic storm a. Causes solar wind b. Causes charged particles to bombard the earth c. Can disrupt the earths magnetic field d. Ruins microwave communications 95. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 V mV from the output is feedback to the input, then feedback fraction is ________ . a. 10 b. 0.01 b. 141 V d. 50 V

c. 0.1

d. 0.15

96. The core of a transformer is made in a laminated form to a. facilitate easy assembly c. increase the magnetic flux b. reduce i2R losses in the coils d. prevent eddy currents

97. Which of the following does not affect the inductance of a coil? a. The diameter of the wire c. The type of core material b. The number of turns d. The length of the coil

98. For an ohmic resistor, resistance is the proportionality constant for a. potential difference and electric field b. current and electric field c. current and length d. current and potential difference 99. A 60 V peak full-wave rectified voltage is applied to a capacitor-input filter. If f = 120 Hz. RL = 10 k and C = 10 F, the ripple voltage is a. 0.6 V c. 6 mV b. 5 V d. 2.88 V

100. Two inductors, having values of 44 mH and 88 mH, are connected in series with a coefficient of coupling equal to 1.0 (maximum possible mutual inductance). If their fields reinforce, the net inductance is a. 7.5 mH c. 190 mH b. 132 mH d. 260 mH

DE LA SALLE UNIVERSITY - DASMARINAS Engineering Department Electronics Engineering Program

ELECTRONICS Name: _______________________________ Course/Year/Section ______________ Score

General Direction: 1. Use pencil number (2) only. 2. Erasures in the final answers are considered incorrect. 3. Use of cellular phone and programmable calculators are not allowed. 4. Write all required answers and computations on the answer sheet provided.
TEST I. Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct answer on the space provided on the answer sheet.

1. A software use in robotics wherein it is capable of moving any single degree of freedom to any intermediate point between the two extreme positions. a. point-to-stop software c. continuous-path software b. point-to-point software d. discreet-path software

2. Two inductors, each of 100 H, are in series. The coefficient of coupling is 0.40. The net inductance, if the coil fields reinforce each other, is a. 50 H c. 200 H b. 120 H d. 280 H

3. A charged point particle is placed at the center of a spherical Gaussian surface. The electric flux E is changed if a. the sphere is replaced by a cube of the same volume b. the sphere is replaced by a cube of one-tenth the volume c. the point charge is moved off center d. the point charge is moved to just outside the sphere 4. The peak value of the input to a half-wave rectifier is 10 V. The approximate peak value of the output is a. 10.7 V c. 10 V 5. A watt hour meter measures b. 9.3 V d. 3.18 V

a. Voltage c. Power

b. Current d. Energy

6. A connection of branches forming a closed-path passing through any node only once is called a a. junction c. loop b. mesh d. circuit

7. Let Q denote charge, V denote potential difference, and U denote stored energy. Of these quantities, capacitors in parallel must have the same: a. Q only c. U only 8. How many lines are there in the data bus? a. 10 c. 8 b. 6 d. 12 b. V only d. Q and U only

9. If the resistance of a capacitor-filtered full full-wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage a. is not affected c. decreases b. increases d. has a different frequency

10. In a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The phase difference between the voltage and current will a. increase c. remain the same b. decrease d. slightly change

11. If the feedback fraction in an amplifier is 0.01, then gain with negative feedback is approximately _____. a. 10 c. 1000 b. 100 d. 500

12. An RLC circuit has a capacitance of 12 F, an inductance of 25 mH, and a resistance of 60. The current oscillates with an angular frequency of a. 1.2 x 103 rad/s c. 1.8 x 103 rad/s b. 1.4 x 103 rad/s d. 2.2 x 103 rad/s

13. Which of the following is a condition when a transistor is operating in the active region?

a. IB = IE c. IC = IB

b. IC = IB d. IC = IE

14. An advantage of an alkaline cell over a zinc-carbon cell is that: a. The alkaline cell provide more voltage b. The alkaline cell can be recharged c. An alkaline cell works at lower temperatures d. The alkaline cell is far less bulky for the same amount of energy capacity 15. When a PLL is locked on the input frequency, the VCO frequency a. Is less than fo c. Equals fin b. Is greater than fo d. Equals fo

16. The process of adding an impurity to an intrinsic semiconductor is called a. atomic modification c. recombination b. doping d. ionization

17. Which of the following motors requires both AC and DC power supplies to run it? a. Universal motor c. Synchronous motor 18. The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor are a. holes c. valence electron b. conduction electrons d. protons b. Induction motor d. Wound rotor motor

19. A device commonly used for remote switching of wire communications signal is a. A solenoid c. A potentiometer b. An electromagnet d. A photovoltaic cell

20. A student kept her 60-watt, 120-volt study lamp turned on from 2:00 PM until 2:00 AM. How many coulombs of charge went through it? a. 150 c. 7,200 b. 3,600 d. 21,600

21. A hydrogen atom that has lost its electron is moving east in a region where the magnetic field is directed from south to north. It will be deflected a. up c. north b. down d. south

22. NICAD memory a. Occurs often when NICADs are misused b. Indicates that the cell or battery is dead c. Does not occur very often d. Can cause a NICAD to explode 23. An RL circuit has an impedance of Z = 6 + j8 ohms. What is the susceptance? a. 6 c. 8 b. 0.01 d. 0.08

24. What type of voltage is induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field? a. Pulsating dc c. dc b. rectified ac d. ac

25. When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the input of a half-wave rectifier, the output frequency is a. 60 Hz c. 0 Hz b. 120 Hz d. 30 Hz

26. Every chemical element has its own unique type of particle, called its a. Molecule c. Proton b. Electron d. Atom

27. What is the most common impurity found in the battery electrolyte? a. HCl c. Iron b. Lead d. Water

28. A megaohmmeter is usually designed for measuring which of the following? a. Very high resistance c. Very low resistance 29. Which of the following is TRUE about FET? a. It has a forward biased PN junction b. It has a very high input resistance c. It has a very low input resistance d. It has a high connection emitter junction b. ground faults in power lines d. Overloads on dc motors

30. Static electricity is most often produced by which of the following? a. Pressure c. Heat 31. Which of the following is TRUE about a shift register? a. It stores both serial and parallel data b. Converts serial data to parallel c. Converts parallel data to serial d. All of these 32. What circuit element used to resonate with capacitor? a. resistors c. Inductors b. Transistors d. Diodes b. Magnesium d. Friction

33. The average value of a half-wave rectified voltage with a peak value of 200 V is a. 127.3 V c. 0 V b. 141 V d. 63.7 V

34. An advantage of magnetic disk over magnetic tape for data storage is that a. Data is too closely packed on the tape b. The disk is immune to the effects of magnetic fields c. Data storage and retrieval is faster on disk d. Disks store computer data in analog form 35. The positive lead of an ohmmeter is connected to the anode of a diode and the negative lead is connected to the cathode. The diode is a. reverse-biased c. open 36. Primary cells a. Can be used over and over b. Have higher voltage than other types of cells c. All have exactly 1.500 V d. Cannot be recharged 37. In order to show that a resistor has a tolerance of 10% a. The third band must be silver b. forward-biased d. faulty

b. No color in the fourth band c. The fourth band is gold d. The fourth band must be silver 38. A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its data sheet specifies IDSS = 20 mA and VGS(off) = -5 V. The value of the drain current a. is 0 A c. is 20 mA 39. Which of the following is similar to a de-multiplexer? a. Decoder c. Encoder b. Data selector d. Operator b. is 5 mA d. is 50 mA

40. An n-channel D-MOSFET with positive VGS is operating in a. the depletion mode c. the enhancement mode b. cutoff d. saturation

41. Emitter follower is another name for what transistor configuration? a. Common emitter c. Common collector 42. Why is the core of a transformer laminated? a. To reduce the volume of core used b. To reduce eddy loss c. To decrease the overall weight of the core d. To reduce the copper loss 43. A feature that distinguishes the J-K flip-flop from the S-R flip-flop is the a. toggle condition c. type of clock b. preset input d. clear input b. Common base d. All of these

44. At DC steady state, an inductor acts like which of the following? a. an open circuit c. a short circuit 45. A MOSFET is a special type of a. JFET c. E-MOSFET b. D-MOSFET d. A and C b. a capacitor d. an insulator

46. What will happen if the control system has an excessive noise on it? a. Overall gain is reduced b. Bandwidth is reduced c. The system will oscillate d. The amplifying stages will saturate 47. What is the angular velocity for a 25-cycle circuit? a. 3.1416 radian per second c. 157 radian per second 48. For a certain JFET, IGSS= 10 V. The input resistance is a. 1 M c. 100 M b. 1000 M d. 1000 m b. 377 radian per second d. 314 radian per second

49. Which of the following is TRUE about a signal flow graph? a. It is a special type of graph for analysis of modern control system b. It is a semi-log graph c. It is a log-log graph d. It is a topological representation of asset of differential equation 50. What is the name of resistance wire wrapped around an insulating core? a. Film-type c. Fusible type b. Carbon composition d. Wire wound

51. The magnitude of the charge on an electron is approximately a. 1023 C c. 1019 C b. 10-23 C d. 10-19 C

52. A silicon diode is in series with 1.0 k resistor and a 5 V battery. If the anode is connected to the positive battery terminal, the cathode voltage with respect to the negative battery terminal is a. 0.7 V c. 0.3 V b. 5.7 V d. 4.3 V

53. The total negative charge on the electrons in 1 mol of helium (atomic number 2, molar mass 4) is a. 4.8 x 104 C c. 1.9 x 105 C b. 9.6 x 104 C d. 3.8 x 105 C

54. A rheostat a. Is used in high-voltage and/or high-power dc circuits b. Is ideal for tuning a radio receiver c. Is often used as a bleeder resistor d. Is better than a potentiometer for low-power audio 55. A particle with a charge of 5 x 10-6 C and a mass of 20 g moves uniformly with a speed of 7 m/s in a circular orbit around a stationary particle with a charge of -5 x 10-6 C. The radius of the orbit is: a. 0 m c. 0.62 m 56. The purpose of a pentavalent impurity is to a. increase the number of free electrons b. create minority carriers c. reduce the conductivity of silicon d. increase the number of holes 57. A material with high permeability a. increases magnetic field quantity b. is necessary if a coil is to produce a magnetic field c. always has high retentivity d. concentrates magnetic lines of flux 58. Charge is distributed uniformly on the surface of a spherical balloon (an insulator). A point particle with charge q is inside. The electrical force on the particle is greatest when a. it is near the inside surface of the balloon b. it is at the center of the balloon c. it is halfway between the balloon center and the inside surface d. it is anywhere inside (the force is zero everywhere) 59. A MOSFET differs from JFET mainly because a. of the power rating b. the JFET has a pn junction c. MOSFETS do not have a physical channel d. the MOSFET has two gates 60. Consider Gausss law: d = , which of the following is true? b. 0.23 m d. 1.6 m

a. must be the electric field due to the enclosed charge b. If q = 0, then = 0 everywhere on the Gaussian surface c. If the three particles inside have charges of +q, +q, and -2q, then the integral is zero d. on the surface is everywhere parallel to d 61. You wish to triple the rate of energy dissipation in a heating device. To do this you could triple a. the potential difference keeping the resistance the same b. the current keeping the resistance the same c. the resistance keeping the potential difference the same d. the resistance keeping the current the same 62. A uniform magnetic field is in the positive z direction. A positively charged particle is moving in the positive x direction through the field. The net force on the particle can be made zero by applying an electric field in what direction? a. Positive y c. Positive x b. Negative y d. Negative x

63. For a certain p-channel JFET, VGS(off) = 8 V. The value of VGS for an approximately midpoint bias is a. 2.34 V c. 4 V 64. When forward-biased, a diode a. block current b. conducts current b. has a high resistance d. drops a large voltage b. 0 V d. 1.25 V

65. An ion with a charge of +3.2x10-19 C is in a region where a uniform electric field of 5x104 V/m is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.8T. If its acceleration is zero then its speed must be a. 0 c. 4.0x104 m/s b. 1.6x104 m/s d. 6.3x104 m/s

66. When the rms output voltage of a bridge full wave rectifier is 20 V, the peak inverse voltage across the diodes is (neglecting the diode drop) a. 28.3 V c. 40 V b. 20 V d. 56.6 V

67. The resistance of the primary coil of a well-designed, 1:10 step-down transformer is 1 . With the secondary circuit open, the primary is connected to a 12 V ac generator. The primary current is a. essentially zero b. about 12 A c. about 120 A d. depends on the actual number of turns in the primary coil 68. The purpose of a bleeder resistor is to a. Provide bias for a transistor b. Serve as a voltage divider c. Protect people against the danger of electric shock d. Reduce the current in a power supply 69. A bar magnet is placed vertically with its S pole up and its N pole down. Its B field at its center is a. zero c. up due to the magnets weight b. down d. horizontal

70. A bar magnet is broken in half. Each half is broken in half again, etc. The observation is that each piece has both a north and south pole. This is usually explained by a. Amperes theory that all magnetic phenomena result from electric currents b. our inability to divide the magnet into small enough pieces c. Coulombs law d. Lenz law 71. The ideal dc output voltage of a capacitor-input filter is equal to a. the average value of the rectified voltage b. the rms value of the rectified voltage c. the peak value of the rectified voltage d. A or B 72. A certain power supply filter produces an output with a ripple of 100 mV peak-to-peak and a dc value of 20 V. The ripple factor is a. 0.005 c. 0.02 b. 0.05 d. 0.00005

73. A capacitor in an LC oscillator has a maximum potential difference of 15 V and a maximum energy of 360 J. At a certain instant the energy in the capacitor is 40 J. At that instant what is the potential difference across the capacitor?

a. zero c. 10 V

b. 5 V d. 15 V

74. When a voltmeter is placed across a forward-biased diode, it will read a voltage approximately equal to a. the diode barrier potential c. the total circuit voltage 75. A voltage typical of a dry cell is a. 12 V c. 1.5 V b. 6 V d. 117 V b. the bias battery voltage d. 0 V

76. In an oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is U and the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. When the charge on the capacitor is Q/2, the energy stored in the inductor is a. U/2 c. 3U/2 b. U/4 d. 3U/4

77. The rapid exponential decay in just a few cycles of the charge on the plates of capacitor in an RLC circuit might be due to a. a large inductance c. a small capacitance 78. An inductor works by a. Charging a piece of wire b. Storing energy as a magnetic field c. Choking off high-frequency ac d. Introducing resistance into a circuit 79. A battery is used to charge a series combination of two identical capacitors. If the potential difference across the battery terminals is V and total charge Q flows through the battery during the charging process then the charge on the positive plate of each capacitor and the potential difference across each capacitor are a. Q/2 and V/2, respectively c. Q/2 and V, respectively 80. Load regulations is determined by a. changes in zener current and load current b. changes in load current and output voltage b. Q and V, respectively d. Q and V/2, respectively b. a large capacitance d. a large resistance

c. changes in load current and input voltage d. changes in load resistance and input voltage 81. The magnitude of the Bohr magneton in J/T is about a. 10-15 c. 10-23 b. 10-19 d. 10-27

82. Two parallel-plate capacitors with different plate separation but the same capacitance are connected in series to a battery. Both capacitors are filled with air. The quantity that is NOT the same for both capacitors when they are fully charged is a. potential difference c. electric field between the plates 83. Holes in an n-type semiconductor are a. minority carriers that are thermally produced b. majority carriers that are thermally produced c. minority carriers that are produced by doping d. majority carriers that are produced by doping 84. A dc electromagnet a. Has constant polarity. b. Requires a core with high retentivity c. Will not attract or repel a permanent magnet d. Has polarity that periodically reverses 85. The molecular theory of magnetism can explain each of the following EXCEPT a. an N pole attracts a S pole b. stroking an iron bar with a magnet will magnetize the bar c. when a bar magnet is broken in two, each piece is a bar magnet d. heating tends to destroy magnetization 86. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 dB. If a negative feedback of 3 dB is applied, the gain of an amplifier will become _________ . a. 103 dB c. 300 dB 87. A trivalent impurity is added to silicon to create a. germanium c. a depletion region b. an n-type semiconductor d. a p-type semiconductor b. 101.5 dB d. 97 dB b. stored energy d. charge on the positive plate

88. A chemical compound a. Consists of two or more atoms b. Contains an unusual number of neutrons c. Is technically the same as ion d. Has a shortage of electrons 89. Lenz law can explain a. paramagnetism only b. diamagnetism only c. ferromagnetism only d. only two of the three types of magnetism 90. When negative feedback is applied to an amplifier, its gain _______ . a. is increased c. remains the same 91. Line regulations is determined by a. zener current and load current b. changes in load resistance and output voltage c. load current d. changes in output voltage and input voltage 92. The value of negative feedback fraction is always _______ . a. less than 1 c. equal to 1 b. more than 1 d. equal to /2 b. is reduced d. approaches zero

93. When the peak output voltage is 100 V, the PIV for each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is (neglecting the diode drop) a. 100 V c. 200 V 94. A geomagnetic storm a. Causes solar wind b. Causes charged particles to bombard the earth c. Can disrupt the earths magnetic field d. Ruins microwave communications b. 141 V d. 50 V

95. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 V mV from the output is feedback to the input, then feedback fraction is ________ . a. 10 c. 0.1 b. 0.01 d. 0.15

96. The core of a transformer is made in a laminated form to a. facilitate easy assembly c. increase the magnetic flux b. reduce i2R losses in the coils d. prevent eddy currents

97. Which of the following does not affect the inductance of a coil? a. The diameter of the wire c. The type of core material b. The number of turns d. The length of the coil

98. For an ohmic resistor, resistance is the proportionality constant for a. potential difference and electric field b. current and electric field c. current and length d. current and potential difference 99. A 60 V peak full-wave rectified voltage is applied to a capacitor-input filter. If f = 120 Hz. RL = 10 k and C = 10 F, the ripple voltage is a. 0.6 V c. 6 mV b. 5 V d. 2.88 V

100. Two inductors, having values of 44 mH and 88 mH, are connected in series with a coefficient of coupling equal to 1.0 (maximum possible mutual inductance). If their fields reinforce, the net inductance is a. 7.5 mH c. 190 mH b. 132 mH d. 260 mH