CSIR NET TEST1

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TEST-1 (29th June 2012) 1. Which of the following represents the most reduced form of carbon?1 a) R-CH3 b) R-COOH c) R-CHO d) R-CH2OH e) CO2 2. The nucleoside adenosine exists in a protonated form with a pKa of 3.8. The percentage of the protonated form at pH 4.8 is closest to 35 a. 1 b. 9 c. 50 d. 91 e. 99 3. Acetyl CoA, the cytoplasmic substrate for fatty acid synthesis, is formed in mitochondria. The inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to acetyl CoA. Which of the following compounds is the form in which the carbon of acetyl CoA is transported to the cytoplasm? a) Malate b) Acetate c) Citrate d) Pyruvate e) Glucose 4. The ion product for liquid water, Kw, varies with temperature (T), as indicated by the change in pKw shown in the table above. The definition of neutrality is [H+] = [OH]. Which of the following is the pH of water at neutrality at 50 ? C a. 6.35

b. 6.64 c. 7.00 d. 7.40 e. 13.28 5. Which of the following groups of enzymes are unique to the Calvin cycle? a. Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase, phosphoribulokinase, and sedoheptulose 1,7bisphosphatase b. Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase, epimerase, and aldolase c. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase, phosphofructokinase, and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase d. Phosphoglycolate phosphatase, glycerol kinase, and serine synthetase e. Sucrose synthase, hexokinase, and glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase 6. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of increased cellular levels of cAMP? (A) Activation of a kinase cascade (B) Activation of the transducin G protein (C) Increased phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase (D) Inhibition of glycogen synthesis (E) Dissociation of the cAMPdependent protein kinase tetramer. 7. The urea cycle occurs in the (A) mitochondrion and cytoplasm

(B) mitochondrion and lysosome (C) endoplasmic reticulum (D) Golgi complex (E) peroxisome 8. How many grams of MgCl2 are required to prepare one liter of a 10millimolar MgCl2 solution? (Atomic weight of Mg = 24.3 g; atomic weight of Cl = 35.5 g.) a. 0.59 g b. 0.95 g c. 59 g d. 95 g e. 950 g 9. The zymogen chymotrypsinogen is converted to active chymotrypsin by a) binding of a necessary metal ion b) reduction of a disulfide bond c) proteolytic cleavage d) phosphorylation of an amino acid sidechain e) the action of a signal peptide peptidase 10.Glycophorin, an integral membrane protein, has a single transmembrane alpha helix. Which of the following idealized hydropathy plots most likely represents the transmembrane nature of glycophorin?

d) 11.Which of the following statements about repetitive DNA is NOT true? a. Repetitive DNA is associated with the centromeres and telomeres in higher eukaryotes. b. Repetitive DNA is restricted to nontranscribed regions of the genome. c. Repetitive DNA sequences are often found in tandem clusters throughout the genome. d. Repetitive DNA was first detected because of its rapid reassociation kinetics. e. Transposable elements can contribute to the repetitive DNA fraction. 12.A stranded DNA plasmid has a propensity to undergo a B form to Z form transition. Which one of the following conditions will facilitate this transition? a) Intercalation of ethidium bromide into a covalently closed circular plasmid b) Introduction of negative supercoiling in the plasmid by topoisomerases c) Introduction of positive supercoils in the plasmid by reverse gyrase d) Introduction of nick in the plasmid 13.The committed step in the de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides is the formation of

a)

b)

c)

a) Ribose 5 phosphate from ribose 1 phosphate b) 5 PRPP from ribose 5 phosphate c) 5 phosphoribosylamine from PRPP d) 5 phosphoribosylglycinamide from 5 phosphoribosylamine 14.The following are the DNA molecules with base composition. Which one of them requires high melting temperature for denaturation? a) %A-28, %T-28, %G-22, %C22 b) %A-15, %T-15, %G-35, %C35 c) %A-35, %T-35, %G-15, %C15 d) %A-30, %T-30, %G-20, %C-2 15.A 42 amino acids peptide related to the extracellular Alzheimer amyloid deposits has the last few residues immersed in the membrane bilayer, which of the following sequences most probably identifies the last five amino acids in this 42 residue peptide? a) Ala-Glu-Phe-Arg b) Val-Val-Ile-Ala c) Asp-Ser-Gly-Tyr d) Lys-Val-His-His-Gln 16.Match items in grp1 with those in grp 2 P. Mixture of gly and albumin Q. Mixture of 20 and 60KDa protein R. Histone from nuclear extracts S. Lectins a. Gas chromatography b. Dialysis c. Affinity chromatography

d. Size exclusion chromatography e. Thin Layer chromatography f. Cation exchange chromatography a) P-a, Q-d, R-c, S-b b) P-b, Q-d, R-f, S-c c) P-e, Q-c, R-f, S-a d) P-f, Q-e, R-b, S-d 17.What is the approximate pI for this polyprptide? Asp-Met-Pro-Lys-His a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 11 18.A mixture of 4 proteins with pIs 11, 7, 5and 3 are loaded on DEAE anion exchange column equilibrated with low ionic strength buffer of pH-8. Which of the 4 proteins would be expected to be retained in the column? a) Protein with pI but not others b) Protein with pI 11, 7, but not 5 and 3 c) Proteins with pI 7,5,3 d) Protein with pI 7 but not others 19.Silk does not stretch because a. Due to the presence of extensive disulphide linkage b. Due to extensive hydrogen bond formation in between the beta sheets c. Optimisation of vanderwaals interaction d. Because the beta conformation is already highly extended 20.An unknown, containing some combination of alanine, lysine or aspartic acid, is subjected to paper electrophoresis at pH=7. Ninhydrin treatment (to stain them) shows some

amino acid at the negative electrode and some amino acids have not moved from the center. No amino acid is found at the positive electrode. Which amino acid (s) is (are) in the unknown? a) Alanine and lysine but not aspartic acid b) Alanine and aspartic acid but not lysine c) Only alanine d) All the three amino acids Topic:- Inheritance biology Part B 1. Assuming the comparable chromosome in different individuals are genetically dissimilar because of different alleles. How many unique combinations are possible following fertilization in an organism where n=3 (assuming that no crossing over)? a. 8 b. 16 c. 64 d. 216 2. Two genes are located on the same chromosome and are known to be 12 map unit apart. An AABB individual is crossed to an aabb individual t produce AaBb offspring. The AaBb offspring are then crossed to aabb individuals. If this cross produces 1000 offsprings. What are the predicted no. of offsprings with each of the 4 genotypes: AaBb, aaBb and aabb?

a. 60 Aabb, 440 aaBb, 440 AaBb and 60 aabb b. 0 Aabb, 0 aabb, 440 AaBb and 440 aabb c. 440 Aabb, 440 aaBb, 60 AaBb and 60 aabb d. 60 Aabb, 60 aaBb, 440 AaBb and 440 aabb 3. In a haploid organism, the C and D loci 8 map unit apart. From a cross Cd/cD, give the proportion of each of the following progeny classes . P-CD; Q-cd; R-Cd, S-all recombinant. a. P-4%, Q-4%, R-46%, S-8% b. P-46%, Q-46%, R-4%, S-4% c. P-46%, Q-4%, R-46%, S-4% d. P-4%, Q-4%, R-8%, S-8% 4. Match the following Column A Column B P. Acridine orange a. base analog Q. 5-BU b. Intercalation R. EMS c. Deamination S. HNO2 d. Alkylation a. P-b, Q-d, R-a, S-c b. P-b, Q-a, R-d, S-c c. P-a, Q-d, R-d, S-c d. P-a, Q-b, R-c, S-d 5. Using site-directed mutagenesis four mutation of a protein have been generated. Which of the following missense mutation has the largest difference in terms of number of

atoms between the wild type and the mutant? a. Ser cys b. Tyr Phe c. Lys Ala d. Arg Lys 6. Probable cause of low fertility in plants is a. Chromosomal irregularity b. improper spindle formation c. chemical pesticides d. All of the above. 7. Mr. John cannot differentiate Red and green colour. He married a girl who can differentiate all known colours accurately. They have a colour blind daughter. Now if you have draw a reciprocal cross of this family, what would you predict about the phenotype of the children. a. All girls normal and tall b. All boys colourblind and girls normal c. All girls colour blind and all boys normal. d. of the girls normal and of boys colour blind. 8. In a Neurospora 8 asci are formed from the two mating type a+ and a. How do you expect to obtain 8 asci spores from the mating of 2 gametes? a. Mitosis followed by one meiosis b. Mitosis followed by 2 cycles of meiosis

c. 2 cycles of meiosis followed by mitosis d. Binary fission giving 8 asci from initial 2 gametes. 9. If E.coli are grown on lactose free medium for 20 generation under pressence of constant mutagen which produces the lac- mutants as well as lac+ revertants in equal amount. At the end it will be observed that a) Equal no.of Lac- and lac revertants. b) More no.of Lac revertants at the end c) More no.of Lac- at the end of experiment. d) Cannot be predicted. 10. Genes a, b, and c are widely spaced in the bacterial genome. Transducing phage from an a+ b+ c+ bacterium were used to infect a culture of a b c cells, and b+ transductants were selected. Which of the following best describes the predicted genotypes of these transductants? (A) Mostly a b+ c (B) Mostly a b+ c+ (C) Mostly a+ b+ c+ (D) Mostly a+ b+ c (E) a+ b+ c+ and a b+ c in equal frequencies PART C 1. A homozygous male fruit fly with black body colour and curved wing is crossed with a virgin homozygous female fruit fly with yellow body colour and flat wings. All the

offspring of this cross display yellow body colour and flat wings. If a virgin female selected from these offspring is mated to a homozygous male fruit fly with black body colour and curved wings, 4 types of offspring will occur. Which of the following conclusion can be drawn about the nature of inheritance on the basis of these data? a. Black body colour and curved wings are dominant over yellow body colour and flat wings b. The results do not fit the typical 9:3:3:1 ratio, making this an example of multiple allelic inheritance rather than a normal dihybrid cross c. Recombinant types of offspring, as in this case, appear more frequently than do parental types. d. These genes for body colour and wings shape are not linked 2. In Drosophila melanogaster, cherub wings(ch) black cody (b) and cinnabar eye(cn) are recessive to their corresponding allels (represented as ch+, b+ and cn+, respectively) and are all located on chromosome 2 . homozygous wild type flies was mated with cherub, black and cinnabar flies and the resulting F1 female were test crossed with cherub, black and cinnabar males. The following progeny were produced from the test cross: Ch b+ cn 110 Ch+ b+ cn+ 780 Ch+ b cn 70 Ch+ b+ cn 6 Ch b cn 769 Ch b+ cn+ 60

Ch+ b Ch b Total

cn+ cn+

111 9 1915

Of these three genes, which one is in the middle? a. The locus that determines cherub wings b. The locus that determines cinnabar eyes c. The locus that determine black body d. Cannot be determined from the given data. 3. Two different triats affecting pod characteristics in garden pea plants are encoded by genes found on chromosome 5. Narrow pod is recessive to normal pod; yellow pod is recesiive to green pod. A true breeding plant with narrow, green pods was crossed to a true-breeding plant with normal, yellow pods. The F1 offsprings were then crossed to plant with narrow, yellow pods. The following results were obtained 144 normal green pods, 150 normal yellow pods, 11 narrow yellow pods, 9 normal green pods. How far apart these two genes? a. 1 mu b. 12mu c. 6.4 mu d. 32.4 mu 4. The DNA from the bacteriophage X174 has a base composition of 25% A, 33% T, 24% G, and 18% C. Which of the following best explains this observation? a. In viral genomes, the base pairing

does not follow the standard Watson-Crick rules, and allows G-A and C-T base pairs b. In viral genomes, the base pairing does not follow the standard Watson-Crick rules, and allows GT and C-A base pairs. c. Viral genomes are linear and tolerate base- pair mismatches d. Nucleic acids from viruses are tightly complexed with nucleic acid-binding proteins and so cannot base-pair with one another. e. The genome of bacteriophage X174 is single-stranded 5. If A/A B/B is crossed with the a/a b/b and the F1 is test crossed. What % of the test cross progeny will be a/a b/b if the two genes are P. linked Q. completely linked (no crossing over at all) R. 10 map unit apart S. 24 map unit apart a. P-0%; Q-0% ; R-38% ; S-45% b. P-25%; Q-0%, R-45%, S-38% c. P-0%, Q-25%, R-45%, S-38% d. P-25%, Q-0%, R- 38%, S-45% 6. In rabbit, spotted pattern is dominant over solid colour and short hair over angora. A F1 between true breeding spotted short hair strain and solid colour angora was back crossed to solid coloured angora. The cross produced 26 spotted angora, 144 solid coloured angora, 157 spotted short haired and 23 solid coloured short haired. What is the recombinant percentage between the genes? a. 12%

7.

a. b. c. d. 8.

b. 24% c. 14% d. 28% A Neurospora cross involving two pairs of genes A-a and T-t produced the following types of asci in the given frequencyi. AT AT AT AT at at at at = 41 ii. at at at at AT AT AT AT= 38 iii. At At At At aT aT aT aT = 42 iv. aT aT aT aT At At At At = 43 what can you say about the location of the two genes on the chromosome. The genes are 23.5 mu apart. The recombination frequency is 0.5 The genes are on chromosome no 3 The genes do not follow Mendelism. The CFTR is chloride channel present in all over the body elementary canal and genital tract. It can have up to 80 different types of mutations in CFTR coding gene, causing improper ion transport. Mutation can be mild on only one copy of gene per cell or severe affecting both the copies. What do expect about a genitalia of male who is having a certain mutation in his both copies of CFTR allele on chromosome 7, a. He will become sterile due to improper chloride channel in testicles, resulting in hydrocele. b. He will produce sterile off springs c. He becomes infertile due to block of Vas deference

d. He becomes infertile due to non production of sperm. 9. Choose the incorrect statement(s) Intercalating agents cause primary frame shift. I. Luria-Delbruck fluctuation test provided the first experimental evidence supporting the hypothesis that mutation occur spontaneously II. Tautomer is an alternative isomeric form of a base due to the movement of one hydrogen atom from one position to other. III. Mis sense type of mutation results when a base substitution in a codon leads to the formation of another codon calling for the insertion of different amino acids. IV. Suppressor mutation cause the reversion of a mutant phenotype to the wild type even thought they are not back mutation a. 1 and 2 b. Only 4 c. 4 and 5 d. None 10.Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf ones. The F1 plants were all tall. When these F1 plants were selfed to produce F2 generation, he got a 3: 1 tall to dwarf ratio in the offspring. What is the probability that out of three plants (of F2 generation) picked up at random at least 2 would be tall? a. 9/64 b. 9/16 c. 27/64 d. 1/16

Molecular Biology 1. The overall length of the cell cycle can be measured from the doubling time of a population of exponentially proliferating cells. The doubling time of a population of mouse L cells was determined by counting the number of cells in samples of culture at various times. What is the overall length of the cell cycle in mouse L cells?

(1) 30 h (3) 10 h

(2) 20h (4) 40

2. Budding yeast cells that are deficient for Mad2, a component of the spindle-attachment-check point, are killed by treatment with benomyl, which causes microtubles to depolymerise. In the absence of benomyl, however, the cells are perfectly viable. Which explanation out of the following is able to justify this observation? (1) In the absence of benomy I, the majority of spindles forms normally

and the spindle-attachment checkpoint (Mad2) plays no role. (2) In the presence of benomy I, the majority of spindles form normally and Mad2 plays critical role in cell survival. (3) Other than the role in cell survival, microtubule depolymerization affects oxidative phosphorylation in the absence of Mad2. (4) Benomyl also affects protein synthesis in the absence of Mad2. 3. A researcher has isolated a restriction endonuclease that cleaves at only one specific 10 base pair site. A) Would this enzyme be useful in protecting cells from viral infections, given that a typical viral genome is 5 x 104 base pairs long? B) Restriction endonucleases are slow enzymes with turnover number of 1 s-1. Suppose the isolated endonuclease was faster with turnover numbers similar to those for carbonic anhydrase (106 s-1), would this increased rate be beneficial to host cells, assuming that the fast enzymes have similar levels of specificity? The correct combination of answer is (1) (A) : No (B) : Yes (2) (A) : No (B) : No (3) (A) : Yes (B) : No (4) (A) : Yes (B) : Yes 4. It has been observed that in 5-10% of the eukaryotic mRNAs with multiple AUGs, the first AUG is not the initiation site. In such cases, the ribosome skips over one or more

AUGs before encountering the favorable one and initiating translation. This is postulated to be due to the presence of the following consensus sequence (s): A) CCA CC AUG G B) CCG CC AUG G C) CCG CC AUG C D) AAC GG AUG A Which of the following sequence sets related to the above postulations is correct? (1) A and B (2) A and C (3) C and D (4) B and D 5. Presence of circular mRNAs for a specific protein in an eukaryotic cell reflects a rapid rate of synthesis of that protein. Following mechanisms are suggested: A) eIF-4G and PABP promote this process through 5'-3' interaction of mRNA. B) Ribosome are less active in recognizing circular mRNA. C) PABP and eIF-4A promote this process. D) Ribosome can reinitiate translation without being Disassembled. Which of the following is correct? (1) A and D (2) B and D (3) A and C (4) B and C 6. siRNAs and miRNAs are used for achieving gene silencing. Although, major steps are similar there are distinct differences in the key players of the two processing

pathways. Following statements relate to some characteristic features of gene silencing. A) Both siRNAs and miRNAs are processed by Cytoplasmic endonuclease Dicer. B) 'Drosha' is needed for processing miRNAs and precursor siRNAs. C) Both siRNAs and miRNAs show association with Argonaute protein. D) Both the processing pathways involve RISe complex. Which of the following combinations is NOT correct? (1) A and C (2) C and D (3) A and B (4) D and A 7. In eukaryotic chromatin, 30 nm fiber (solenoid) can open up to give rise to two kinds of chromatin. In one type (A), the promoter of a gene within the open chromatin is occupied by a nucleosome whereas in the other (B), the promoter is occupied by histone H1. The following possibilities are suggested. A) The gene in (A) is repressed. B) The gene in (B) is repressed. C) The gene in (A) is active. D) The gene in (B) is active. Which of the following sets is correct? (1)A and D (2) A and B (3) Band D (4) C and D 8. Genetic studies demonstrated that TBP mutant cell extracts are deficient in transcription of genes from all three promoters viz. class

I, II and III. Following statements describe characteristic features of TBP. A) TBP is considered as an universal basal transcription factor. B) TBP is not required for transcription of archaeal genes. C) TBP is involved in recognizing TATA box. D) TBP operates at all promoters regardless of .their TATA content. Which of the following combinations is NOT correct? (1) A and D (2) C and D (3) B and D (4) A and C 9. Eukaryotic genomes are organized into chromosomes and can be visualized at mitosis by staining with specific dyes. Heat denaturation followed by staining with Giemsa produced alternate dark and light bands. The dark bands obtained by this process are mainly (1) AT -rich and gene rich regions. (2) AT -rich and gene desert regions. (3) GC-rich and gene rich regions. (4) GC-rich and gene desert region 10.Cancer causing genes can be functionally classified into mainly three types: (i) genes that induce cellular proliferation,(ii) tumor suppressor genes, (iii) genes that regulate apoptotic pathway. Epstein-Barr virus that causes cancer by modulating apoptotic pathway, contains a gene having sequence homology with which of the following genes?

(1) bax bcl-2

(2)

(3) p53 (4) caspase-3 11.In an experiment approach trp operon and lac operon were fused. Under what condition there would be expression of b-galactosidase? (1) Low lactose and glucose (2) High lactose and glucose (3) Low tryptophan (4) High tryptophan 12.According to Holiday model if markers are present outside of crossover point, then recombinant molecules would be generated when (1) There is no resolution (2) Always recombinant would be produced (3) Nick is on outer during resolution (4) Nick is on inner strand during resolution 13.Zinc finger are important in cellular regulation because they are (1) At the catalytic site of many kinases (2) A structural motif in many DNAbinding proteins (3) Restricted to the Cytoplasmic domain of growth-factor receptor (4) Structure with high redox potential 14.A study is done on a mammalian cell line that has a doubling time of 24 hours. These cells are synchronized in G1 and then labeled for 2 days with BrdU( an analog of thymidine that increases the density of DNA into which it is incorporated). At the end of the labeling period, chromosomal DNA is isolated from the cells and its

density analyzed by equilibrium in cesium chloride gradient. Which of the following patterns would be expected to be seen? ( H= heavy, L=light) (1) 100% H/H (2) 100%H/L (3) 50% H/H, 50% H/L (4) 50% H/H, 50% L/L (5) 25% H/H, 50% H/L , 25% L/L 15.Rho-dependent and rhoindependent transcription termination mechanisms operate in prokaryotes. Rho-independent termination mechanism involves (1) Binding of rho protein upstream of the termination element (2) No protein factor and only RNA secondary structure and run of Us (3) Presence of UGA or UAA stop sodon (4) Binding of accessory factors at termination signal. 16.Wild type E.coli was plated on a Rifampicin containing medium and incubated at 37 degree Celsius. Majority of the cells died: However some colonies appeared after few days. What is the most likely explanation for the observation? (1) Degradation of Rifampicin (2) Mutation in DNA polymerase III (3) Efflux of Rifampicin (4) Mutation in the beta subunit of RNA polymerase 17.There are 3 kinds of RNA polymerase ( I,II,III) in eukaryotes cells, each specific for one class of RNA molecule. Which of the following is a correct match?

(1) RNA pol-I-rRNA; RNA polyII tRNA (2) RNA poly II-mRNA; RNA polIII rRNA (3) RNA pol I-rRNA; RNA polIImRNA (4) RNA polI-tRNA ; RNA polIIIrRNA 18.Which of the following is true about interaction between TBP and TATA sequence? (1) TBP interacts with minor groove an bends DNA by about 80 (2) TBP interacts with major groove an bends DNA by about 80 (3) TBP interacts with minor groove with no significant bending (4) TBP interacts with major groove with no significant bending 19.Broker, Cow, Roberts and P.Sharp hybridized mRNA from adenovirus to denatured adenovirus DNA and examined the resultant duplex molecules by electro microscopy. Which of the following did they observe? (1) mRNA and DNA formed a continuous duplex throughout the length of the RNA (2) mRNA and DNA formed a continuous duplex throughout the length of the DNA (3) on one strand there were looped out regions of ingle-stranded RNA (4) on one strand there were looped out regions of single-stranded RNA 20.During the processing of introns, a single snRNP complex catalyzes both the cleavage of the RNA and the joining of the ends. What would

be the consequence if these two processes were catalyzed by separate enzymes not associated in a single complex? (1) The rate of RNA processing would be much faster (2) The cell would be unable to identify the correct cleavage sites (3) The exons might not be joined in the correct sequence (4) Exons instead of introns would be cleaved from RNA molecule.

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BioTecNika conducts 6 months regular coaching for CSIR preparation both Classroom and Online Live coaching wherein you can attend e-learning classes sitting at Home This is just a one-time investment in preparation and after that your career is all set in this field. Kindly refer: http://www.biotecnika.org/ for more details BioTecNika contact details: BioTecNika Info Labs Pvt ltd, #2628, 4th Floor, 27th Main Sector -1 HSR Layout, Bangalore - 560102, Ph: 91-80-32494384, 49534721, Mobile 8884122400 / 500 / 600/ 700 / 800 Landmark: Gold's Gym complex