1 PHARMACOLOGY Q&A

____1. Large doses of corticosteroids may produce: a. nephritis b. hepatopathy c. encephalomalacia d. neutropenia e. amaurosis ____6. The most fundamental action of steroidal hormones is: a. modification of inflammation b. lysis of lymphocytes in the blood c. stimulation of synthesis of enzymes by target cells d. deposition of depot fate. increased calcium concentration in the blood ____2. An example of a long-acting insulin is: a. semi-lente insulin b. lente insulin c. insulin injection USP d. protamine zinc insulin e. isophane insulin ____7. The corticosteroid with negligible effect on electrolyte and water balance is: a. cortisol b. aldosterone c. prednisolone d. fludrocortisone ____3. Vasopressin acts on the cells of the renal collecting duct by: a. inhibiting microtubule formation b. decreasing permeability to water of the luminal membrane of the cell c. stimulating formation of adenylate cyclase d. inhibiting phosphodiesterase e. blocking chloride reabsorption ____8. Procaine is destroyed in the body by: a. pseudocholinesterase b. succinyl dehydrogenase c. glucuronyl transferase d. oxidation e. azo reductase e. dexamethasone

____4. The principal barrier to absorption of drugs applied topically to the skin is: a. the stratum germinativum b. the stratum corneum c. the stratum spinosum d. the basement membrane e. sebum

____9. A toxic manifestation of dibucaine toxicity is: a. agranulocytosis b. coma c. seizures d. urticaria e. hepatic lipidosis

____10. The drug that causes vasoconstriction at the site of ____5. Excretion of drugs by the kidneys is: a. unaffected by variation in renal blood flow b. generally more rapid if the drug is not extensively protein bound c. more rapid with drugs that are actively secreted by tubular cells d. always increased by administration of diuretics e. a minor pathway for elimination of drugs administration is: a. procaine b. lidocaine c. benzocaine d. tetracaine e. cocaine

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____11. The cathartic whose action is limited to the colon is: a. castor oil b. magnesium sulfate c. cascara sagrada d. docusate e. liquid petrolatum ____17. Urinary pH might be intentionally altered as part of a therapeutic regimen to accomplish all of the following except to: ____12. Which of the following is a buffer antacid? a. sodium bicarbonate b. magnesium oxide c. calcium carbonate d. aluminum hydroxide e. calcium hydroxide ____18. An undesirable side effect of hydrochlorothiazide ____13. Prochlorperazine is least effective in prevention of vomiting associated with: a. vestibular stimulation b. uremia c. gastroenteritis d. stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone e. radiation sickness ____19. The action of spironolactone is to block: ____14. At high serum concentrations, all of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade except? a. polymyxin B b. streptomycin c. dicloxacillin d. neomycin e. gentamicin ____20. Pain originating from the ureter is best managed with: a. opiates ____15. Which penicillin is acid-stable and, therefore, may be given orally? a. benzylpenicillin G b. carbenicillin c. ticarcillin d. amoxicillin e. methicillin ____21. Morphine sulfate: a. stimulates the respiratory center b. dilates the bronchioles ____16. Bacitracin is used exclusively: a. by topical application b. by oral administration c. depresses the spinal cord d. stimulates intestinal smooth muscle e. dilates the pupil in dogs b. aspirin c. phenazopyridine d. lidocaine e. phenylbutazone a. release of aldosterone b. tubular resorption of sodium c. tubular resorption of chloride d. the effects of aldosterone on the distal tubule e. the effect of vasopressin on the collecting duct administered over an extended period is: a. hypertension b. hypokalemia c. hypernatremia d. hypocalcemia e. metabolic acidosis a. prevent formation of some calculi b. decrease irritant properties of urine c. increase the effectiveness of certain chemotherapeutic drugs d. modify the pH of extracellular fluid e. alter the rate of urinary excretion of another drug c. for enteric infections d. by intravenous administration e. for Pseudomonas infections

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____22. Meperidine is of little value in management of severe pain in dogs and cats because it: a. is highly toxic in these species b. is metabolized very rapidly in these species c. does not cross the blood-brain barrier d. is slowly absorbed from the injection site e. is rapidly excreted by the kidneys ____27. As compared with oxybarbiturates, thiobarbiturates are: a. more lipid soluble b. slower in onset of action c. less potent d. less toxic e. less irritating to tissues

____23. How many grams of potassium permanganate are required to prepare 1 gallon of a 1:3000 solution? a. 0.3 b. 1.3 c. 3.0 d. 13. 0 e. 30

____28. The most rapid recovery of consciousness would be expected after discontinuing administration of: a. methoxyflurane b. halothane c. diethyl ether d. nitrous oxide e. enflurane

____24. Five grains are equivalent to how many grams? a. 0.75 b. 0.075 c. 300 d. 0.325 e. 7.50

____29. Abnormal elimination behavior in a dog, caused by separation anxiety, may be effectively treated with: a. estradiol b. amphetamine c. Phenobarbital d. primidone e. amitriptyline

____25. You wish to dilute strong tincture of iodine (7%) with 70% ethanol to prepare 4 oz of tincture of iodine USP (2%) for use on small animals. How much ethanol and 7% iodine must be used? a. 3 fl oz of ethanol and 1 fl oz of 7% iodine b. 50 ml of ethanol and 45 ml of 7% iodine c. 160 ml of ethanol and 80 ml of 7% iodine d. 86 ml of ethanol and 34 ml of 7% iodine e. 45 ml of ethanol and 55 ml of 7% iodine ____30. In cats, prolonged therapy with progestins to curtail urine spraying may cause any of the following side effects except: a. increased libido b. mammary gland hyperplasia c. hyperglycemia d. endometritis in queens e. suppressed spermatogenesis in toms

____26. The duration of action of thiopental is determined primarily by: a. biotransformation in extrahepatic tissues b. hepatic biotransformation c. renal excretion d. biliary excretion e. redistribution in the body

____31. Tubocurarine and gallamine: a. produce a depolarizing type of blockade of the myoneural junction b. are rapidly absorbed following oral administration c. action may be reversed by administering an anticholinesterase d. have long duration of action e. are ganglionic-blocking drugs

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____32. A skeletal muscle relaxant whose site of action is in the central nervous system is: a. mathocarbamol b. methoxyflurane c. decamethonium d. succinylcholine e. gallamine ____37. The breed of dog that exhibits an idiosyncratic reaction to ivermectin is the: a. Great Dane b. Golden Retriever c. Dalmatian d. Cocker Spaniel e. Collie

____33. Vitamin K is: a. synthesized in the small intestine b. found in significant quantity in cereal grain c. absorbed from the gut in the absence of bile d. essential from thrombin formation in blood vessels e. found in alfalfa as phytonadione

____38. A generally safe and effective drug for treatment of giardiasis in dogs is: a. metronidazole b. quinine c. thiabendazole d. pyrimethamine e. nitrofurantoin

____34. Chronic administration of which drug may lead to clinical signs of thiamin deficiency? a. trimethoprim b. amprolium c. chlortetracycline d. levamisole e. metronidazole

____39. The drug indicated for treatment of a hypotensive reaction to acepromazine is: a. doxapram b. methylphenidate c. epinephrine d. phenylephrine e. hydralazine

____35. Which fat-soluble vitamin acts as an antioxidant in tissues? a. A b. B12 c. D d. E e. Q

____40. Phenothiazine tranquilizers act by: a. blocking central cholinergic receptors b. blocking dopamine receptors c. blocking resorption of norepinephrine d. inhibiting monoamine oxidase e. stimulating central serotonin receptors

____41. Tranquilizers produce: ____36. The best drug for removal of Fasciola hepatica from sheep is: a. fenbendazole b. carbon tetrachloride c. albendazole d. phenothiazine e. carbon disulfide ____42. The apparent volume of distribution of a drug: a. generally coincides with an anatomic space b. is determined by the drugs rate of elimination a. anesthesia when given in large doses b. decreased seizure activity c. an emetic response d. suppression of conditioned avoidance behavior e. hypertension when given in large doses

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c. is useful for calculation of dosage intervals d. determines the time required to attain a steady-state concentration e. is employed to compute the plasma concentration resulting from a given dose of the drug ____47. The best solution for disinfecting a stall contaminated by viruses, bacterial spores and helminth ova is: a. saponated cresol b. mercuric chloride ____43. The plasma disappearance curve for erythromycin in cattle after an intravenous bolus injection appears to have 2 exponential phases, one with a half-life of 15.2 minutes and one with a half-life of 3.2 hours. The most likely explanation for this is that: a. erythromycin induces its own metabolism, so that the rate ofelimination increases with time b. the rapid phase is due to distribution to the tissues, and only the late phase is due to elimination from the body c. the rapid phase is due to renal clearance, and the late phase is due to hepatic metabolism d. there may be uneven absorption from the blood e. laboratory assay procedures were not sufficiently accurate ____49. What is the effect of propantheline on the gut? a. spasmogenic ____44. Which drug is not useful in management of epilepsy? a. phenobarbital b. phenytoin c. carbamazepine d. thiopental e. valproic acid ____50. A dog is presented to you with diarrhea and vomiting. You determine that the patient has bacterial enteritis, which ____45.Chronic administration of barbiturates to an epileptic dog may reduce the response to other anticonvulsant drugs because of: a. tolerance due to decreased receptor sensitivity b. increased rate of excretion c. accelerated rate of biotransformation d. increased volume of distribution e. impaired intestinal absorption you treat with prochlorperazine, isopropamide and neomycin. The dog consumes adequate water ad libitum and is well hydrated. After 3 days, the bladder is distended and the dog does not urinate. What is the most likely cause of the problem? a. The dog has pollakiuria. b. The dog may be sensitive to the action of isopropamide. c. The prochlorperazine is depressing the central nervous system, abolishing the micturition reflex. ____46.A side effect that appears to be unique to phenytoin is: a. vestibular disturbances b. gingival hyperplasia c. sedation d. heaptic toxicity d. The neomycin may block bladder contraction at the myoneural junction. e. The patient has become hypokalemic. b. antimuscarinic and ganglioplegic c. stimulates motility d. increases secretion by intestinal glands e. evacuates the colon ____48. The most effective bactericidal agent available within a veterinary hospital is: a. ultraviolet light b. steam c. ethanol d. ethylene oxide e. soap c. povidone-iodine d. hot sodium hydroxide e. chloramine-T e. tinnitus

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____51. The action of heparin is promptly terminated by: a. sodium fluoride b. methylene blue c. perphenazine d. protamine e. sodium citrate ____56. The compendium of drug standards for potency, purity and quality that is officially recognized in the Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act is called the: a. US Dispensatory b. US Pharmacopeia/ National Formulary c. Physicians Desk Reference d. National Formulary ____52. Iron is not: a. conserved by the body b. regulated in its absorption c. necessary to prevent anemia d. found primarily in hemoglobin and myoglobin e. absorbed well in the ferric state ____57. Norepinephrine and phenylephrine decrease the heart rate by: a. directly depressing the cardioaccelerator center in the medulla b. decreasing the peripheral blood flow ____53. An anticoagulant that is suitable for systemic administration is: a. calcium EDTA b. dicumarol c. sodium fluoride d. thromboplastin e. sodium oxalate ____58. Which of the following is a contraindication to quinidine therapy? a. atrial fibrillation b. hypokalemia ____54. United States Food and Drug Administration regulations require that benzathine penicillin G must not be used in beef steers for at least how many days before slaughter? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 e. 30 ____59. The best drug for suppressing a ventricular arrhythmia is: a. lidocaine b. calcium gluconate c. quinidine d. digoxin ____55. Lactated Ringers solution should not be mixed with: a. calcium chloride b. potassium chloride c. sodium chloride d. sodium bicarbonate e. potassium acetate ____60. In response to injury, phospholipase A2 is activated in the cellular membrane, where it hydrolyzes phospholipids to cause release of: a. prostaglandins b. cyclooxygenase c. arachidonic acid d. leukotriene A4 e. aminophylline c. nephritis d. complete heart block e. concurrent use of digoxin c. activating a baroreceptor reflex d. decreasing bronchial muscle tone e. exerting a direct negative inotropic effect e. Drug Facts and Comparisons

7
e. prostanoic acid b. depilatory action c. demulcent effect ____61. Which eicosanoid induces aggregation of platelets in the circulation? a. prostacyclin b. prostaglandin E2 c. leukotriene C4 d. thromboxane A2 e. prostaglandin H2 ____62. Antihistaminic drugs are frequently used in patients with pulmonary disease. However, there is little evidence of their efficacy in this situation and their use may be deleterious because: a. they promote drying of the respiratory tract epithelium b. histamine plays a useful role in compensating for pulmonary disease c. they depress the respiratory centers d. they produce sedation e. they stimulate the cough reflex ____67. Drugs used to treat newborn animals must be carefully selected because: a. neonates are unable to metabolize drugs b. neonates have poorly developed drug receptors c. correct dosage ranges have not been determined d. neonates have poorly developed excretory organs e. neonates absorb drugs poorly from the intestine ____66. Which combination of antibacterials is antagonistic in dermatologic use? a. soap and benzalkonium chloride b. neomycin and polymyxin c. alcohol and iodine d. bacitracin and neomycin e. soap and alcohol d. astringent action e. effect on pigmentation

____63. A calf develops signs of an anaphylactoid reaction after administration of procaine penicillin. This animal is most appropriately treated immediately with: a. an antihistaminic b. a corticosteroid c. penicillinase d. intravenous fluids e. epinephrine

____68. Sulfamethazine is an acidic drug with a pKa of 7.4. Concerning disposition of this drug in the body, which statement is most accurate? a. It is more readily eliminated from the body when the urine is acidic. b. It diffuses into the stomach (pH 2.0) and is trapped there due to ionization. c. It is more readily eliminated from the body when the urine is alkaline.

____64. What is the drug of choice for topical treatment of an infected thermal burn? a. neomycin ointment b. petrolatum c. povidone-iodine solution d. tannic acid spray e. silver sulfadiazine cream

d. It is almost entirely ionized in the blood. e. It is almost entirely nonionized in the blood.

____69. Which of the following is not produced by glucocorticoid administration? a. increased gluconeogenesis b. depressed protein catabolism c. eosinopenia

____65. Burrows solution is employed in wet dressings because of its: a. emollient effect

d. monocytopenia e. neutrophilia

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____70. The approximate daily rate of secretion of corticosteroids by the adrenal cortices in a healthy dog is: a. 50 pg/kg b. 200 ng/kg c. 10 ng/kg d. 1 mg/kg e. 5 mg/kg ____76. Sulfonamides act against bacteria by: a. inhibiting cell wall synthesis b. interfering with bacterial metabolism ____71. Which drug does not produce local anesthesia when applied topically? a. lidocaine b. benzocaine c. dibucaine d. procaine e. phenol ____77. The renal toxicity associated with chronic sulfonamide therapy is: a. related to water solubility at a particular urinary pH b. diminished by using a single sulfonamide ____72. Gastric acid secretion is nearly abolished by: a. atropine b. omeprazole c. metoclopramide d. neostigmine e. pentagastrin ____78. Clinical signs associated with water intoxication are related to: a. edema of the brain ____73. Which cathartic may be given safely to a lactating sow nursing a litter of piglets? a. cascara b. aloe c. castor oil d. liquid petrolatum e. croton oil ____79. Thiazides induce diuresis by: a. inhibiting secretions from the posterior pituitary gland b. dilating the efferent arterioles in kidneys ____74. Excessive gastric acid secretion, as seen with mastocytoma, can be controlled by administration of: a. atropine b. betazole c. cimetidine d. diphenhydramine e. phenoxybenzamine ____80. The primary difference among the diuretics chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide and bendroflumethiazide is in their: a. mechanism of action ____75. Penicillins: a. readily diffuse into cerebrospinal fluid b. potency c. ceiling effect c. increasing systemic blood pressure d. inhibiting sodium resorption e. increasing extracellular fluid volume b. ascites c. hydrothorax d. nephrosis e. dehydration of the mucosae c. independent of urinary volume d. related to neural function e. least common with sulfathiazole c. inhibiting protein synthesis d. interfering with membrane function e. impairing protein synthesis b. are extensively metabolized by the liver c. have long elimination half-lives d. are useful for treating intestinal infections e. are rapidly excreted in urine

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d. safety e. efficacy ____86. Induction of anesthesia with methoxyflurane is ____81. Aspirin: a. has no antiinflammatory effects b. produces hypothermia with overdoses c. is eliminated more rapidly by dogs than pigs d. is effective in reducing visceral pain e. inhibits cyclooxygenase relatively slow because it: a. has a high vapor pressure b. crosses alveolar membranes with difficulty c. is soluble in blood d. is highly irritating to the respiratory tract e. decreases perfusion of the lungs e. is expensive to use

____82. Which drug antagonizes the effects of opiates? a. pentobarbital b. pentylenetetrazol c. naloxone d. doxapram e. haloperidol

____87. The principal danger associated wit use of nitrous oxide during inhalation anesthesia is: a. explosion b. cardiac arrhythmia c. metabolic alkalosis d. hypoxia e. hemolysis

____83. In a dog with pain from rheumatoid arthritis, the most appropriate analgesic for occasional home use is: a. aspirin b. morphine c. allopurinol d. chlorpheniramine e. colchicine

____88. A drug that can stimulate the appetite in an anorexic patient is: a. chlorpromazine b. amphetamine c. haloperidol d. diazepam e. reserpine

____84. You want to treat a 20-kg dog with oral tetracycline at 25 mg/kg daily. The drug is available in 125-mg and 250mg capsules. How many capsules should you prescribe for a 5-day course of treatment? a. 10 125-mg capsules b. 10 250-mg capsules c. 20 250-mg capsules d. 30 125-mg capsules e. 45 125-mg capsules

____89. Overactivity and intolerance to restraint (hyperkinesis) in a dog is appropriately treated with: a. acepromazine b. methylphenidate c. phenytoin d. mephenesin e. valproic acid

____90. In treatment of malignant hyperthermia, dantrolene acts by:

____85. Though halothane is a widely used inhalant anesthetic, a disadvantage is that it: a. can depress the medulla b. has powerful hypotensive effects c. is a respiratory depressant d. can cause renal necrosis

a. uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation in the liver b. decreasing release of calcium from the sarcoplastic reticulum c. increasing radiant heat loss through cutaneous vasodilation d. depressing the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center e. suppressing release of endogenous pyrogen

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e. hexachlorophene ____91. Botulinus toxin acts by: a. stimulating release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the spinal cord b. blocking sodium channels in motor nerves c. blocking depolarization of muscle end plates d. blocking release of acetylcholine from vesicles in motor nerve endings e. causing persistent depolarization of skeletal muscle ____96. In cattle, a drug that is effective against the intermediate stage of the human tapeworm Taenia saginata is: a. niclosamide b. bunamidine c. tetramisole d. praziquantel e. arecoline

____92. Which drug facilitates removal of lipid from a fatty liver? a. nandrolone decanoate b. dexamethasone c. methionine d. pitressin e. chloroform

____97. Heartworm disease can be prevented in dogs living in enzootic areas by administering, at monthly intervals, the larvicidal drug: a. dithiazanine b. ivermectin c. thiacetarsamide d. diethylcarbamazine e. levamisole

____93. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of vitamin D, is synthesized in the: a. liver b. skin c. kidney d. gut e. bone ____98. Paralysis of the retractor penis muscle caused by phenothiazine tranquilizers has been observed in: a. bulls b. boars c. stallions d. rams e. bucks ____94. Avidin, a glycoprotein contained in egg white, can cause a deficiency of what vitamin when raw eggs are fed? a. pyridoxine b. niacin c. riboflavin d. biotin e. pantothenic acid ____99. A tranquilizer that is approved in the United States for use in swine to control aggression and fighting is: a. acepromazine b. xylazine c. chlorpromazine d. droperidol e. azaperone ____95. Coccidiosis is the most serious parasitic disease seen in rabbitries. An outbreak can be prevented or controlled by treating the drinking water or feed with: a. quinacrine b. monensin c. amprolium d. sulfaquinoxaline ____100. Which of the following is not an effect of phenothiazine tranquilizers? a. decreased secretion of prolactin b. hypotension with use of large doses c. prevention of vomiting associated with uremia d. reduced packed cell volume in horses

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e. sedation ____106. A disinfectant that is suitable and economical for ____101. A drug that has affinity for and interacts with a cell receptor to elicit a response is called: a. an agonist b. a competitive antagonist c. an incomplete antagonist d. a potentiating agent e. an enzyme inducer ____107. A bitch is presented to you because of increased ____102. A graded dose-response curve is an indication of: a. an all-or-none phenomenon b. a lethal dose of a drug c. the extent of receptor occupancy d. relative safety e. individual variation frequency of urination. A Grams stain of the urinary sediment reveals many Gram-negative rods. You prescribe sulfisoxazole therapy. Which drug is most appropriate to relieve the pollakiuria, as this is a nuisance to the owner? a. ephedrine b. bethanechol c. propantheline ____103. Atropine dilates the pupil of the eye by antagonizing the effects of acetylcholine on the pupillary constrictor muscle. This effect is known as: a. cyclodialysis b. phthisis c. miosis d. mydriasis e. cyclodamia ____108. A clinical sign of deadly nightshade or Jimson weed poisoning in horses is: a. bradycardia b. anhydrosis c. miosis d. profuse diarrhea ____104. The drug of choice for immediate treatment of status epilepticus is: a. diazepam b. acepromazine c. dantrolene d. valproic acid e. dexamethasone ____109. Atropine exerts its main therapeutic effect at receptors in the: a. central nervous system b. neuromuscular junction c. autonomic ganglia d. parasympathetic effector organs ____105. A cationic detergent is one in which the hydrophobic portion is positively charged. An example is: a. sodium orthophenylphenate b. tincture of green soap c. benzalkonium chloride d. sodium hypochlorite e. sapinated cresol ____110. All of the following participate in production of erythrocytes and hemoglobin synthesis and might be given for treatment of anemia except: a. manganese b. iron e. postganglionic parasympathetic nerves e. xerostomia d. ammonium chloride e. furosemide use on the floor of dairy barns is: a. alkyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium (Roccal- D) b. sodium hypochlorite c. creolin d. phenol e. chlorinated lime

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c. copper d. cobalt e. folic acid c. digoxin d. propranolol e. isoproterenol

____111. A drug that significantly stimulates neutrophilic granulocytosis is: a. progesterone b. phenylbutazone c. hydrocortisone d. estradiol e. erythropoietin

____116. The cause of death from intoxication by digitalis glycosides is: a. respiratory failure b. ventricular fibrillation c. hypokalemia d. renal failure e. hepatic failure

____112. Heparin: a. is rapidly inactivated in the lungs b. has a long biological half-life c. binds calcium ions d. acts to antagonize thrombin e. can be used to decrease clotting time

____117. Eicosanoids are involved in all of the following physiologic functions except: a. regulation of heat production b. regression of the corpus luteum c. blood clotting d. renal failure e. hepatic failure

____113. To dispense or prescribe controlled substances in the United States, a veterinarian must be licensed to practice and be registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration, which is a division of the: a. US Department of Justice b. US Food and Drug Administration c. US Department of the Treasury d. Customs Department e. US Department of Agriculture ____118. As a veterinarian, you must exercise extreme caution when handling prostaglandin F2alpha and its synthetic analogs because absorption through the skin can cause: a. myocardial infarction b. abortion in pregnant women and/or asthmatic attacks c. psychotic episodes d. lupus erythematosus e. vomiting and diarrhea

____114. Bradycardia of vagal origin may be diagnosed by administering: a. isoproterenol b. phentolamine c. atropine d. phenylephrine e. atenolol

____119. Which of the following is not an effect of histamine? a. increased secretion of gastric acid b. pruritus from stimulation of sensory nerve endings c. increased salivation d. slowing of the heart rate e. dilation of arterioles

____120. Captopril and enalapril are used to relieve ____115. The drug that decreases contractility of the ventricular myocardium is: a. calcium chloride b. epinephrine vasoconstriction and reduce fluid retention associated with congestive heart failure. These desirable effects are the result of: a. blockade of alpha-adrenergic receptors

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b. inhibition of angiotensin II production c. decreased renal excretion of sodium d. stimulation of renin release e. blockade of dopamine receptors ____125. The phenomenon caused by chronic administration of certain drugs and characterized by hepatomegaly, increased protein content of the liver, and increased microsomal enzyme activity is known as: ____121. Whitfields ointment is used as a: a. protective b. sunscreen c. keratolytic d. depilatory e. disinfectant ____126. The duration of action of a given steroid is shortest ____122. Which of the following is the most appropriate vehicle for a drug to be applied to an acutely inflamed area of skin? a. petrolatum b. collodion c. alcohol d. water e. lanolin ____127. The rationale for administration of an intermediate____123. The drug that specifically stimulates cold receptors in the skin to evoke a sensation of coolness is: a. camphor b. menthol c. benzoin d. phenol e. aloe acting corticosteroid on alternate days during a chronic course of therapy is that this regimen: a. enhances efficacy b. corresponds with the diurnal cycle c. reduces the degree of atrophy of the adrenal cortex d. is more convenient for the owner e. reduces retention of potassium following the intramuscular injection of which of the following esters? a. succinate b. acetate c. acetonide d. diacetate e. pivalate a. induction b. inhibition c. enhancement d. incompatibility e. drug interaction

____124. Probenecid is an acidic drug with a pKa of 3.4. Using the equation below, what is the approximate ratio of the number of molecules ionized to the number not ionized at the pH of blood? Ci pH = pKa + log Cn a. 1:1 b. 100:1 c. 1000:1 d. 10,000:1 e. 1:1000

____128. Neostigmine is indicated for treatment of: a. peritonitis b. ileus c. intussusception d. diarrhea e. obstruction of the colon

____129. A drug that stimulates gastric emptying, relaxation of the pyloric sphincter, and increased tone of the esophageal sphincter is: a. metoclopramide b. atropine

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c. morphine d. epinephrine e. haloperidol ____135. The effects of methotrexate may be antagonized by: a. folic acid b. folinic acid ____130. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are characterized by their: a. bacteriostatic effect b. inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis c. potential neurotoxicity d. good absorption from the gut e. hepatic toxicity ____136. The system most sensitive to the toxic effects of antineoplastic drugs is the: a. respiratory system b. endocrine system ____131. Erythromycin: a. is concentrated in bile b. has a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity c. may cause blood dyscrasias d. should not be given with streptomycin e. is not absorbed from the gut ____137. Bone marrow suppression produced by methotrexate can be ameliorated by administration of: a. stanozolol ____132. Griseofulvin is: a. effective in treatment of yeast infections b. limited in its distribution to the skin c. more poorly absorbed when given with a fatty meal d. incorporated into the keratin of skin and hair e. immediately effective in treatment of ringworm ____138. The drug that effectively controls severe visceral pain is: ____133. Furosemide induces diuresis by: a. inhibiting carbonic anhydrase b. antagonizing aldosterone c. inhibiting resorption of chloride in the loop of Henle d. decreasing permeability of the renal collecting ducts e. inhibiting sodium resorption in the proximal tubule a. aspirin b. phenylbutazone c. indomethacin d. methadone e. acetanilide b. daunorubicin c. leucovorin d. prednisolone e. cobaltous chloride c. urinary system d. gastrointestinal system e. cardiovascular system c. aminopterin d. cyanocobalamin e. panthothenic acid

____134. The drug that primarily acts to increase osmotic pressure of blood plasma is: a. mannitol b. mersalyl c. chlorothiazide d. acetazolamide e. dextrose

____139. The species most sensitive to xylazine is: a. cattle b. swine c. horses d. dogs e. cats

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____140. In aspirin poisoning, the rate of excretion of salicylate is increased by treatment with: a. ammonium chloride b. ascorbic acid c. caffeine d. sodium bicarbonate e. furosemide ____145. Which drugs lower the seizure threshold and may induce extrapyramidal motor effects? a. phenothiazines b. benzodiazepines c. monoamine oxidase inhibitors d. butyrophenones ____141. A horse that has been treated with chloral hydrate may subsequently show glucosuria because: a. chloral hydrate stimulates release of epinephrine from the adrenal gland b. chloral hydrate decreases glucose utilization by the tissues c. the metabolite urochloralic acid is a reducing substance d. chloral hydrate decreases the renal threshold for glucose e. the renal tubules are damaged by chloral hydrate ____146. All of the following have been observed as adverse reactions to acepromazine except: a. vicious behavior b. anaphylaxis c. hypotension d. sudden collapse e. urinary retention ____142. The sedative that does not undergo biotransformation in the body is: a. barbital b. chloral hydrate c. pentobarbital d. phenobarbital e. thiopental ____147. An injectable drug that you could employ for treating Trichuris vulpis infection in a dog is: a. butamisole b. fenbendazole c. disophenol d. dichlorvos e. thenium ____143. A nutritional disease of young swine raised in the midwestern United States, in which muscular dystrophy and necrotic lesions of the liver are prominent, is caused by a deficiency of: a. iron b. selenium c. vitamin A d. zinc e. vitamin B6 ____144. Blacktongue, an uncommon but classic nutritional disease of dogs, is cured by treatment with: a. pyridoxine b. thiamin c. molybdenum d. choline ____149. If a drug has a biological half-life of 17 hours in cattle, approximately how long should the drug be withheld before slaughter, so that the animals meat does not contain drug residue? ____148. Concerning the benzimidazole anthelmintics, which statement is least accurate? a. These drugs act to interfere with energy production in susceptible parasites. b. All members of the group are relatively insoluble in water. c. This group has a high potential for causing toxic reactions. d. Most of the drugs in this group present little hazard of violative residues in food. e. This group of drugs has a broad spectrum of activity against many of the helminths found in domestic animals. e. tricyclics e. niacin

16
a. 17 hours b. 8.5 hours c. 34 hours d. 7 days e. 85 hours ____154. A drug used to convert atrial fibrillation to a normal sinus rhythm in horses is: a. aminophylline b. epinephrine c. nitroglycerin d. quinidine ____150. If the half-life of tetracycline in dogs is 6 hours and a therapeutic dose is given every 8 hours, how many hours will it take to attain a plateau in the mean plasma concentration of the drug? a. 16 hours b. 24 hours c. 30 hours d. 48 hours e. 64 hours ____155. A condition that increases the cardiotoxicity of digoxin is: a. hypercalcemia b. hyperkalemia c. hyperglycemia d. congestive heart failure e. pulmonary edema e. digitalis

____151. A vasoconstrictive autonomic drug that is useful in management of epistaxis is: a. phenylephrine b. propranolol c. isoproterenol d. phenoxybenzamine e. vasopressin

____156. Morphine is useful in management of acute pulmonary edema because it: a. produces diuresis b. reduces pulmonary capillary pressure c. dilates bronchioles d. reduces pain e. stimulates respiration

____152. Isoproterenol is a nonselective beta receptor agonist. All of the following effects would occur after its intravenous administration to a cow except: a. bronchiolar dilation b. increased cardiac output c. decreased peripheral resistance d. increased mean blood pressure e. decreased intestinal motility

____157. In which species does salicylate exhibit the shortest elimination half-life? a. cattle b. rabbits c. dogs d. cats e. people

____158. An effective analgesic- antipyretic drug that has ____153. A cholinergic alkaloid commonly used topically to produce miosis is: a. arecoline b. muscarine c. pilocarpine d. methacholine e. neostigmine weak anti-inflammatory activity is: a. aspirin b. phenylbutazone c. dipyrone d. acetophenetidin e. caffeine

17
____159. Chloramphenicol and quinidine may interact with other drugs by: a. protein binding displacement b. inhibiting microsomal enzymes c. enhancing renal excretion of other drugs d. chemically reacting with other drugs e. enhancing the action of hepatic enzymes ____164. The sulfonamide preferred for ophthalmic use because of neutrality of its sodium salt is: a. sulfisoxazole b. sulfamerazine c. sulfapyridine d. sulfamethoxazole e. sulfacetamide

____160. Drugs found in high concentrations in fat are also likely to be found in high concentrations in: a. bone b. muscle c. kidney d. brain e. lymph nodes

____165. An antimicrobial drug whose use in food-producing animals is specifically forbidden by United States Food and Drug Administration regulations is: a. oxytetracycline b. ampicillin c. chloramphenicol d. sulfamethazine e. tylosin

____161. The best route for administration of a drug that forms a very alkaline solution is: a. intravenous b. subcutaneous c. intramuscular d. intraperitoneal e. intrathecal ____166. An antibacterial drug that is poorly absorbed following oral administration with milk is: a. oxytetracycline b. erythromycin c. sulfisoxazole d. amoxicillin e. chloramphenicol ____162. Concerning cortisol, which statement is least accurate? a. It reduces inflammation. b. It indirectly inhibits phospholipase A2. c. It promotes gluconeogenesis. d. It increases muscular strength. e. It promotes sodium retention and potassium loss. ____167. A selective antineoplastic drug is one whose action is relatively specific against a certain type of tumor. An example of a selective antineoplastic drug is: a. streptozocin b. adriamycin c. cyclophosphamide d. methotrexate e. prednisolone ____163. Fluorination of a steroid nucleus has the effect of: a. inactivating the molecule b. increasing potency c. decreasing glucocorticoid activity d. decreasing mineralocorticoid activity e. increasing aqueous solubility ____168. Cyclophosphamide is likely to be least effective in a patient with severe: a. renal insufficiency b. immunodeficiency c. dermatitis d. hypoproteinemia e. hepatic insufficiency

18
____169. Rapid induction of anesthesia by administration of an inhalant anesthetic is primarily due to the low: a. potency of the gas b. partial pressure of the gas in the central nervous system c. solubility of the gas in blood d. rate of metabolism of the gas e. respiratory rate ____175. Ephedrine is: ____170. Halothane anesthesia is characterized by: a. profound analgesia b. relatively poor muscle relaxation c. sensitization of chlolinergic receptors d. increased peripheral vascular resistance e. hypotension in deeper planes of anesthesia ____176. What property of the cardiac glycosides is employed ____171. The drug that is not suitable for use as a sole anesthetic agent for abdominal laparotomy in a dog is: a. halothane b. ketamine c. pentobarbital d. enflurane e. ethyl ether in the process of digitalization? a. rapid excretion b. rapid biotransformation c. potency d. accumulation in the body e. low water solubility a. effective when given per os b. a long-acting catecholamine c. metabolized largely by catechol-O-methyltransferase d. without effect on denervated tissue e. an ergot alkaloid ____174. Bethanechol administered subcutaneously: a. increases the capacity of the urinary bladder b. decreases secretory activity of the gastrointestinal tract c. constricts the ileocecal sphincter d. induces bradycardia e. causes mydriasis

____172. The bioavailability of chloramphenicol in a steer is very low after oral administration because the drug: a. does not cross the ruminal epithelium b. is destroyed within the rumen c. has an enterohepatic cycle d. is metabolized by the liver e. has low lipid solubility

____177. A drug used to treat atrial fibrillation is: a. aminophylline b. lidocaine c. nitroglycerin d. epinephrine e. procainamide

____178. Peripheral vasodilators are employed in treatment of ____173. Phenylpropanolamine is often effective in control of urinary incontinence because it: a. stimulates release of vasopressin by the pituitary gland b. inhibits contraction of the detrusor muscle by blocking cholinergic receptors c. increases tone of the internal urethral sphincter by stimulating alpha receptors d. decreases renal blood flow e. blocks serotonin receptors in the hypothalamus congestive heart failure. Their beneficial effect is due to decreasing the work load of the heart. The drug that accomplishes this by dilating arterioles in peripheral vascular beds is: a. milrinone b. hydralazine c. nitroprusside d. verapamil e. ouabain

19
____179. Concerning phenylbutazone, which statement is least accurate? a. It has a long half-life in cattle and people. b. It is highly bound to serum albumin. c. It blocks the painful response to injected prostaglandin E2. d. It is converted by the liver to an active metabolite. e. It may cause blood dyscrasia in dogs and cats. ____185. A serious adverse effect of estrogens in dogs is: ____180. The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is most useful for prevention of intravascular thrombosis when administered chronically in small doses is: a. flunixin meglumine b. aspirin c. phenylbutazone d. meclofenamic acid e. sodium salicylate ____186. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to use of corticosteroids? a. ketosis ____181. Nonpolar drugs are slowly excreted by the kidneys because they: a. do not pass through the glomerulus b. are protein bound c. are insoluble in water d. are resorbed by the tubular epithelium e. do not have a favorable pKa ____187. The drug that is extensively metabolized in the liver is: a. ampicillin ____182. Most drugs are absorbed into the circulation by: a. facilitated diffusion b. pinocytosis c. simple diffusion d. active transport e. osmosis ____188. You have a patient with acute hepatitis and bacterial pneumonia. Which drug is most likely to be safe and effective ____183. Biotransformation usually alters a drug so as to: a. make it more toxic b. make it less toxic c. make it less water soluble d. make it more polar e. improve its distribution for treatment of the infection? a. chloramphenicol b. gentamicin c. erythromycin d. chlortetracycline e. metronidazole b. chloramphenicol c. streptomycin d. tetracycline e. gentamicin b. ulcerative keratitis c. allergic dermatitis d. arthritis e. lupus erythematosus a. gynecomastia b. toxic hepatitis c. pancytopenia d. anorexia e. hypoprothrombinemia ____184. Clinical doses of prednisolone in dogs: a. inhibit fibroblastic activity b. increase glucose utilization by tissues c. increase plasma calcium levels d. produce eosinophilia e. decrease resorption of sodium by the kidneys

20
____189. Which route of administration is most appropriate for sulfonamide therapy in domestic animals? a. subcutaneous b. intramuscular c. intraperitoneal d. intravenous e. intraocular ____194. The preparation with the longest duration of action is: a. posterior pituitary injection USP b. vasopressin injection USP c. vasopressin tannate injection USP d. arginine vasopressin e. lysine vasopressin

____190. Dose-related cardiac damage is an important toxic effect of the chemotherapeutic agent: a. mithramycin b. doxorubicin c. 5-fluorouracil d. chlorambucil e. cytosine arabinoside

____195. Oral hypoglycemic drugs generally are not useful in management of diabetes mellitus in dogs because: a. they are extremely toxic in dogs b. there are insufficient numbers of functional beta cells in diabetic dogs c. they are very rapidly metabolized in dogs d. they are poorly absorbed e. they tend to cause intractable diarrhea

____191. Vincristine, a plant alkaloid used in oncologic therapy, inhibits cell division by: a. alkylating the strands of DNA b. inhibiting synthesis of purines c. antagonizing folic acid d. arresting mitosis e. preventing transcription ____196. Under normal conditions of use, the drug with 100% probability of causing toxic side effects is: a. oxytetracycline b. amantadine c. amphotericin B d. nystatin e. acyclovir ____192. Yohimbine promptly reverses the sedative action of: a. phenobarbital b. diazepam c. acepromazine d. xylazine e. ketamine ____197. A drug with both antibacterial and antifungal actions when applied topically is: a. undecylenic acid b. tolnaftate c. thiabendazole d. cuprimyxin ____193. The drug that is useful to inhibit insulin secretion by an islet-cell adenoma is: a. diazoxide b. chlorpropamide c. 5% dextrose solution d. chlorothiazide e. tolbutamide ____198. The efficacy of ketoconazole for treatment of blastomycosis may be compromised if the patient is also receiving ranitidine because: a. the ketoconazole will be poorly absorbed b. ranitidine will increase the rate of biotransformation of ketoconazole c. the ketoconazole will not be converted to its active metabolite e. miconazole

21
d. ranitidine stimulates proliferation of the pathogen e. the patient will be immunocompromised d. lower-nephron nephrosis e. anosmia

____199. A complication resulting from insulin therapy in diabetic patients is: a. hypokalemia b. metabolic acidosis c. dehydration d. hyponatremia e. acute renal shutdown

____200. Prednisone is used as a primary cytotoxic drug for treatment of: a. pancreatic carcinoma b. adrenocortical carcinoma c. melanoma d. mastocytoma e. lymphocytic leukemia

____201. The sympathomimetic effect of cocaine is associated with: a. blockade of sodium channels b. inhibition of monoamine oxidase c. enhanced release of the neuromediator d. blockade of calcium channels e. blockade of norepinephrine resorption

____202. The best drug for treatment of anaplasmosis in a steer is: a. ceftiofur b. oxytetracycline c. kanamycin d. sulfamerazine e. ampicillin

____203. The most commonly observed adverse effect of fluoroquinolone antimicrobials in juvenile animals is: a. agranulocytosis b. colonic ulceration c. damage to articular cartilage

22
ANSWERS 1. b- Corticosteroids cause hepatomegaly and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity. 2. d- Protamine zinc insulin is slowly absorbed from the injection site. 3. c- Agonist-bound V2 receptor activates the enzyme to cause accumulation of cyclic AMP in the cell, with resultant increased permeability of the luminal membrane. 4. b- The stratum corneum is relatively impermeable to many molecules. 5. c- Such drugs have a large renal clearance limited primarily by renal blood flow. 6. c- Adrenal and gonadal steroid hormones enhance transcription of specific genes to increase synthesis of the enzymes. The other answer choices are secondary actions. 7. e- The methyl group at the 16-position abolishes the corticosteroid effect on electrolyte excretion. 8. a- Procaine is hydrolyzed by serum and hepatic esterases. 9. c- Local anesthetics may cause convulsions. The other answer choices are unrelated to dibucaine. 10. e- Cocaine is unique among local anesthetics in that it blocks resorption of norepinephrine at sympathetic nerve endings. 11. c- Cascara is an anthraquinone glycoside that is inactive until it is hydrolyzed by bacterial enzymes found in the colon. The other drugs listed act either in the small intestine or throughout the bowels. 12. d- Aluminum hydroxide is the only drug listed that functions as a Al(Cl)3 + 3 NaHCO3 + H2O Al(OH)3 + 3 NaCl + 3 H2O + 3 CO2 in the duodenum. 13. a- Antihistaminics (eg, diphenhydramine) are much more effective for prevention of motion sickness. 14. c- The penicillins do not have an effect at the myoneural junction. 15. d- The other penicillins listed are destroyed in an acidic environment. 16. a- Bacitracin is too toxic for systemic use, and it has a Gram-positive antibacterial spectrum. 17. d- Alteration of urinary pH has negligible effect on the pH of extracellular fluid. 18. b- Thiazide diuretics increase renal excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia unless potassium is supplemented orally. 19. d- Spironolactone is a competitive antagonist of the aldosterone receptor. 20. a- Potent central-acting narcotic analgesics are required to alleviate the intense visceral pain of ureteral colic. 21. d- Morphine arrests peristalsis by its spasmotic action on smooth muscle in the gut. 22. b- The duration of action of meperidine is only about 45 minutes in these species. 23. b- One gallon equals approximately 4000ml. A 1:3000 solution is equivalent to 0.03%. 4000 x 0.0003 = 1.3 g of potassium permanganate. buffer antacid. Al (OH)3 + 3 HCL AlCl3 + 3 H20 in the stomach, and

23
24. d- 5 gr x 65 mg/gr = 325 mg or 0.325 g. 25. d- 4 oz x 30 ml/oz = 120 ml total, comprised of 5 parts 70% ethanol and 2 parts 7% tincture. 26. e- The thiopental is distributed initially to highly perfused organs, such as the brain. It then is distributed from the brain to such tissues as muscle, reducing the concentration in the brain. 27. a- The sulfur atom is less polar than the oxygen atom. The other answer choices are incorrect. 28. d- Nitrous oxide has very low solubility in blood. 29. e- Amitriptyline appears to diminish apprehension and alter the related behavioral response. 30. a- Progestins decrease libido. The other answer choices are side effects of this group of drugs. 31. c- Both of these drugs act as competitive antagonists of acetylcholine. 32. a- Methocarbamol acts to inhibit motor pathways in the spinal cord. 33. e- Alfalfa meal is an important dietary source of vitamin K. 34. b- Amprolium is a thiamin antagonist used to control coccidiosis. 35. d- Vitamin E, or alpha tocopherol, prevents oxidation of essential cellular constituents. 36. c- Albendazole is approved for removal of liver flukes from sheep and cattle. 37. e- Some Collies develop blindness, coma and death in response to ivermectin. 38. a- Metronidazole is the only drug listed that affects Giardia canis. 39. d- Phenothiazines block alphaadrenergic receptors to cause hypotension. This effect is reversed by an alpha antagonist, such as phenylephrine. The other answer choices are inappropriate. 40. b- Phenothiazines have a high affinity for D2 sites and block many of the actions of dopamine. 41. d- This is the only correct choice. 42. e- Volume of distribution is a proportionality constant that relates plasma concentration to dose. 43. b- Typically, most drugs disappear from the plasma in an exponential manner that can be described by a 2-compartment model. 44. d- Thiopental would cause excessive sedation for a short period, making the drug unsuitable for long-term use in prevention of seizures. 45. c- Barbiturates cause induction of hepatic microsomal enzymes. This is an important mechanism of drug interactions. 46. b- Phenytoin alters collagen metabolism in some individuals, causing hyperplasia of gingival tissue. 47. d- Hot lye solution is the only disinfectant listed that will destroy all 3 contaminants. 48. b- Boiling water or steam under pressure is the best means of destroying bacteria on inanimate objects in a hospital. 49. b- Propantheline is a quaternary ammonium antimuscarinic compound. This confers appreciable activity at ganglionic

24
and muscarinic sites. 50. b- Isopropamide can cause urinary retention by inducing contraction of the internal sphincter and relaxation of the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder. 51. d- Heparin is a strongly electronegative molecule that is neutralized by protamine, which is electropositive. This effect inactivates heparin in vitro and in vivo. 52. e- Ferrous salts are 3-4 times as bioavailable as ferric salts. 53. b- Dicumarol is a vitamin K antagonist within the liver. The other compounds listed are unsuitable for such use. 54. e- Benzathine penicillin is a very insoluble repository form of penicillin G. 55. d- Lactated Ringers solution contains calcium chloride. Mixing Ringers solution with sodium bicarbonate forms the insoluble precipitate, calcium carbonate. 56. b- The United States Pharmacopeia has been the compendium since 1820. The National Formulary was combined with the United States Pharmacopeia in 1980. 57. c- Stimulation of the carotid sinus by increased blood pressure slows the heart rate. 58. d- With complete heart block, quinidine may extinguish ventricular ectopic pacemakers to cause cardiac arrest. 59. a- The other drugs listed would be contraindicated or inappropriate. 60. c- Arachidonic acid is a component of 64. e- This preparation was developed specifically for burn patients. 65. d- This solution of aluminum subacetate is used to treat acute, oozing skin lesions. 66. a- This is a combination of an anionic and a cationic detergent, which inactivate each other. The other choices listed are employed in combination and are effective. 67. a- The microsomal enzyme system is not developed at birth in domestic animals. 68. c- A greater proportion would be ionized in an alkaline fluid, and less would undergo resorption from the tubules. 69. b- Glucocorticoids increase protein catabolism. 70. d- This is a useful value to consider when determining the dosage of various corticosteroids. 71. d- Procaine is poorly absorbed and is less potent than the other drugs listed. 72. b- Omeprazole blocks H+ -K+ ATPase phospholipids and, when released, serves as a precursor to formation of several eicosanoids. 61. d- Thromboxane is synthesized in platelets and is a powerful inducer of platelet aggregation. 62. a- Most of the H-1 histamine receptorblocking drugs exert some anticholinergic effects that decrease glandular secretion. 63. e- The physiologic effects of epinephrine are diametrically opposed to those of histamine and are immediate in onset.

25
in the gastric mucosa. 73. d- Pharmacologically active components of the other 4 compounds are excreted in milk and may cause diarrhea in the pigs. 74. c- The action of histamine released from mast cells on the H2 receptors would be blocked by cimetidine. 75. e- Penicillins are actively secreted by the proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney. The other answer choices are incorrect. 76. b- Sulfonamides compete with paraaminobenzoic acid in synthesis of folic acid. 77. a- Some sulfonamides cause lowernephron nephrosis by forming crystals in the renal tubules. 78. a- Brain edema causes central nervous system signs. 79. d- Thiazide diuretics inhibit active resorption of sodium in the proximal convoluted tubule. The retained sodium increases the volume of water in tubular fluid. 80. b- The doses of these drugs vary by 1 and 2 orders of magnitude, but the other features remain the same. 81. e- The principal action of aspirin is to decrease synthesis of prostaglandins by inhibiting cyclooxygenase. 82. c- Naloxone combines with opiate receptors without acting as an agonist. 83. a- A narcotic is not indicated, but the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, aspirin, would diminish the inflammatory response and alleviate pain. 84. c- 20 kg x 25 mg/kg = 500 mg/dose x 2 doses/day = 1000 mg/day, or 4 250mg capsules daily. 4 capsules/day x 5 days = 20 capsules. 85. b- Halothane depresses the myocardium and blunts the baroreceptor- mediated tachycardia in response to hypotension. 86. c- Equilibration of partial pressure between the alveolus and blood is slow because of the solubility of methoxyflurane. 87. d- Nitrous oxide is an inert gas, but it may replace oxygen in the inspired gas mixture and cause hypoxia. 88. d- Diazepam stimulates appetite and causes weight gain. This effect has been used to treat anorexia in sick dogs and cats. 89. b- Hyperkinesis is paradoxically improved by treatment with a central nervous system stimulant. 90. b- Dantrolene suppresses excessive release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This is believed to be the mechanism leading to malignant hyperthermia in susceptible individuals. 91. d- The toxin binds irreversibly to membrane sites and blocks all cholinergic junctions. 92. a- The anabolic steroid, nandrolone, facilitates synthesis of lipoproteins, which leave the liver. 93. c- Vitamin D3 is converted to 25hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver and is hydroxylated at the oneposition by renal mitochondria. 94. d- Avidin binds strongly to biotin and prevents its absorption from the intestine.

26
95. d- Sulfaquinoxaline is the only drug approved for its use. 96. d- Praziquantel completely eliminates the intermediate stages of this human tapeworm from cattle. 97. b- Ivermectin is approved in the US for prevention of heartworm infections in dogs. 98. c- Phenothiazines relax the retractor muscle, but in some individuals this effect is prolonged, leading to paraphimosis. 99. e- Azaperone is relatively nontoxic butyrophenone tranquilizer that may be used in swine. 100. a- Phenothiazines stimulate secretion of prolactin. 101. a 102. c- This hyperbolic curve relates the magnitude of a drug effect to the drug dose. When the curve flattens, it indicates that all available receptors are occupied. 103. d 104. a- Of the drugs listed, diazepam is the only one suitable for this use. 105. c- Benzalkonium chloride is the only cationic detergent in the group listed. 106. e- Chlorinated lime is inexpensive and effective. 107. c- An antimuscarinic drug reduces detrusor muscle activity. 108. e- These plants contain atropine, which blocks muscarinic receptors. 109. d- Muscarinic sites are blocked by atropine. 110. a- Manganese is involved in formation of chondroitin sulfate in cartilage. It is not involved in hemoglobin synthesis. 113. a 114. c- Atropine blocks the effect of acetylcholine on the heart. 115. d- Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors decreases ventricular contractility, particularly during exercise. 116. b- The deleterious effects of toxic concentrations of digitalis on the heart are related to ventricular rhythm rather than to mechanical activity. 117. a- Heat production is a result of metabolic activity, which is not affected by eicosanoids. 118. b- This prostaglandin causes contraction of the pregnant uterus and the bronchioles. 119. d- Histamine increases heart rate, directly, by action on the sinoatrial node and, reflexively, in response to the fall in blood pressure. 120. b- This causes arteriolar dilation and reduction of aldosterone secretion. 121. c- Whitfields ointment contains benzoic and salicylic acids. These compounds are fungistatic and keratolytic. 122. d- In this situation, the vehicle should not irritate the tissue and should be readily removed from the skin 111. c- Glucocorticoids cause this effect by increasing the rate of neutrophil entrance into the blood from the marrow and decreasing the rate of neutrophil removal from the blood. 112. d- Heparin increases the activity of antithrombin III, which forms an irreversible complex with thrombin.

27
surface. 123. b- Menthol is incorporated into some topical preparations to cause this effect. 124. d Ci Ci 10, 000 infections of the skin. 133. c- This action results in increased excretion of sodium, chloride and water. 134. a- Mannitol is not metabolized or resorbed by the kidney and is useful as an osmotic diuretic and to relieve edema in tissues, such as 125. a- Induction of microsomal enzymes increases the rate of biotransformation of the inducing agent and/or other drugs. 126. a- The succinate ester confers water solubility on the steroid base. The solution is quickly absorbed from the site of deposition. 127. c- If a corticosteroid is given on alternate days, there will be several hours during which there is no inhibition of ACTH secretion. The effect of ACTH prevents atrophy of the adrenal cortex. 128. b- Administration of neostigmine would be contraindicated in all of the conditions listed except paralytic ileus. The need for a specific diagnosis is clear. 129. a- This combination of actions is unique to metoclopramide and prevents esophageal reflux of gastric fluid. 130. c- This class of drugs is concentrated in the perilymph and endolymph, and causes damage to the hair cells in the vestibular apparatus and cochlea. 131. a- Erythromycin is excreted in active form into the bile. 132. d- Griseofulvin is retained in the keratin and hair, and exerts a continuous effect on mycotic cerebral edema. 135. b- Methotrexate blocks conversion of folic acid to folinic acid, which is the functional coenzyme. If folinic acid is given to the animal, the effect of methotrexate is obviated. 136. d- Gastrointestinal mucosal cells have a rapid turnover rate. Such cells are vulnerable to antineoplastic drugs. 137. c- Leucovorin is a reduced, functional folate coenzyme. 138. d- Methadone is a synthetic opioid analgesic that alleviates visceral pain. 139. a- An effective dose in cattle is only 1/10 of that required for horses, dogs and cats, and 1/20 to 1/30 of that required for swine. 140. d- Renal clearance of salicylate (pKa 3.0) is increased in alkaline urine. 141. c- Urochloralic acid gives a falsepositive result in tests for reducing sugars. 142. a- Barbital, a long-acting barbiturate, is excreted unchanged by the kidneys. 143. b- Selenium is a component of glutathione reductase, which decreases formation of free radicals that are involved in lipid peroxidation of membranes. 144. e- Niacin deficiency in dogs causes

7.4 = 3.4 + log Cn; 4 = log Cn; 4 = log 1

28
oral ulceration, thick saliva, and a darkened appearance of the tongue. 155. a- Hypercalcemia or hypokalemia increases the sensitivity of the myocardium to digitalis. 156. b- Morphine dilates capacitance 145. a- These effects are associated most commonly with the phenothiazines but could also be seen with the butyrophenones, as these effects are associated with dopaminergic receptors. 146. b- Allergic reactions to acepromazine are apparently extremely rare as compared with the other adverse effects listed, as they are not reported. 147. a- The other drugs listed either cannot be injected or are not effective against whipworms. 148. c- Benzimidazoles have a wide margin of safety in clinical use. 149. e- Virtually all of the drug would be eliminated from the body after 5 half-lives have elapsed. 150. c- The plateau would occur over a period equivalent to 5 half-lives after the drug had been administered. 151. a- Alpha-adrenergic agonists, such as phenylephrine, constrict mucosal blood vessels. 152. d- Beta-adrenergic agonists, such as isoproterenol, dilate arterioles in the muscle. This reduces peripheral resistance and decreases blood pressure. 153. c- Pilocarpine is well absorbed from ophthalmic solutions and ointments, and causes contraction of the pupillary sphincter. 154. d- Quinidine is the only appropriate choice. 157. a- The half-life for salicylate is only 30 minutes in cattle. 158. d- Acetophenetidin and acetaminophen are weak inhibitors of cyclooxygenase in peripheral tissues, as compared with their effect in the central nervous system. 159. b- These drugs prolong the effects of other drugs, such as the increased sleeping time seen in barbiturate anesthesia. 160. d- Brain tissue has a high lipid content. 161. a- Irritating drug solutions are infused slowly into a vein to allow for dilution. 162. d- An excess (Cushings disease) or a deficiency (Addisons disease) of cortisol causes muscular weakness. 163. b- The fluorine atom at the 9 position withdraws electrons from the hydroxyl group at the 11 position and enhances all biological activities. 164. e- The sodium salts of the other sulfonamides listed are extremely alkaline and would injure the eye. 165. c- Use of chloramphenicol in these animals is prohibited because of the fear that residues in food products might cause aplastic vessels in the systemic circulation, which resultant redistribution of blood away from the pulmonary circulation.

29
anemia in susceptible people. 166. a- Tetracyclines chelate divalent cations, such as calcium in dairy products, and this impairs absorption of the antibiotic. 167. a- Streptozocin is used to treat pancreatic insulinoma. 168. e- Cyclophosphamide is a pro-drug that is activated by hepatic microsomal enzymes. 169. c- Equilibration occurs more rapidly when the agent is not soluble in blood. 179. c- Phenylbutazone acts by inhibiting synthesis of prostaglandins, not by modifying their effects. 180. b- Aspirin is the only drug listed that acetylates cyclooxygenase and irreversibly abolishes synthesis of thromboxane in platelets. 181. d- Because of their lipid solubility, nonpolar drugs diffuse from tubular fluid into the blood in the peritubular capillaries, rather than being eliminated in the urine. 182. c- Most drugs are relatively small molecules that diffuse across 170. e- Halothane decreases cardiac output and suppresses reflex tachycardia. 171. b- Ketamine causes muscle jerking and delirium when used alone for anesthesia of dogs. 172. b- Chloramphenicol is converted to inactive arylamines in the reducing environment of the rumen. 173. c- Motor activity of the internal urethral sphincter is mediated by sympathetic nerves. Receptors are of the alpha-adrenergic type. 174. d- Bethanechol is a cholinergic drug. 175. a- The actions of ephedrine are similar to those of epinephrine, but ephedrine can be given orally and it has a longer duration of action. 176. d- When a patient is digitalized, the dosage is titrated until a clinical effect is attained. 177. e- Procainamide is the only drug listed that is effective for treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias. 178. b- The other drugs listed do not have this action. membranes in response to concentration gradients. 183. d- It does this by adding to the drug molecule more water-soluble groups, such as glucuronate or hydroxyl groups. 184. a- This effect is significant clinically as it interferes with normal wound healing. 185. c- The bone marrow of dogs is particularly sensitive to estrogen, which inhibits stem cells. 186. b- Corticosteroids inhibit healing, and this may lead to corneal perforation and loss of aqueous. 187. b- Chloramphenicol is reduced and conjugated in the liver. The other drugs listed are eliminated largely unchanged. 188. b- Gentamicin has a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity and is eliminated unchanged by the kidneys. 189. d- Sulfonamide solutions are too irritating to be injected into tissues. 190. b- Anthracycline antibiotics, such as

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doxorubicin, cause cumulative dose-related cardiomyopathy. 191. d- Vinca alkaloids, such as vincristine, interfere with assembly of microtubules during cell division. 192. d- Yohimbine is an alpha-2 adrenoceptor antagonist. 193. a- The antihypertensive drug diazoxide suppresses insulin release through an alphaadrenergic effect on pancreatic beta cells. 194. c- Vasopressin tannate is more slowly absorbed than the other preparations listed. 195. b- Oral hypoglycemic drugs increase secretion of insulin in the remaining pancreatic islet cells. 196. c- Amphotericin is a polyene antibiotic that causes a wide variety of untoward effects in patients. 197. d- For this reason, cuprimyxin is useful in treatment of otitis externa. 198. a- Ketoconazole requires an acidic environment for dissolution. Ranitidine blocks gastric acid secretion. 199. a- Insulin and glucose drive potassium intracellularly, causing hypokalemia. 200. e- The corticosteroid exerts antilymphocytic effects. 201. e- This allows persistence of the neurotransmitter at its receptor site and accentuates the effect. 202. b- Tetracyclines are effective for treatment of anaplasmosis and for elimination of the carrier state. 203. c- This unusual effect, which is permanent, would seem to dictate that this group of drugs should be avoided for use in immature animals.

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