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#412

2005 ARIZONA FBLA


WINTER REGIONAL CONFERENCE

PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURE

1. Complete the information requested on the answer sheet.

• Check the label on the top right hand side of the sheet to make sure that
your name and event are correct. If your school name is not on your label,
write it under your label. Use complete school name (not NHS).
• On the top left hand corner of the answer sheet, enter the nine digit
number from your label. Start on line 1 and enter the numbers going
down. The last number will be left blank. Darken each circle carefully and
completely.

DO NOT OPEN THE TEST UNTIL GIVEN PERMISSION TO DO SO!

2. All answers must be recorded on the answer sheet.


3. Read each question carefully before answering. When you have decided
which answer is correct, find the space on the answer sheet following the
number of the problem. With a pencil, BLACK THE ENTIRE SPACE in
the proper column. Do not make any other marks on the answer sheet, as
the scoring machine will reject it.
4. If you are given True/False questions, answer True questions in the “A”
column and False questions in the “B” column.
5. Do not fold your answer sheet or bend the corners.
6. Be sure to use a #2 pencil. Erase any unwanted answers completely.
Two answers for one question will be rejected by the scoring machine.
7. You are allowed 45 minutes for completing the test. You will be given a
starting signal and a warning when 10 minutes and 5 minutes are
remaining. If you finish your test early, return your test and answer sheet
to the test administrators.
8. If you have any questions during the test, please raise your hand, and
someone will come to help you.
9. Test administrators will write the “time” on the top of your test when you
finish.
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For questions 1 - 10, classify the following motions by identifying it as a(n)

a. Subsidiary
b. Privileged
c. Incidental
d. Brings the Question Again Before the Assembly
e. Main Motion

1. Adjourn
2. Amend a pending motion
3. Discharge a committee
4. Commit or Refer
5. Parliamentary Inquiry
6. Recess
7. Object to Consideration of a Question
8. Reconsider
9. Ratify
10. Previous Question

For questions 11 - 20, classify the following motions by identifying the type of vote it
requires.

a. Majority vote
b. 2/3 vote
c. No vote

11. Adjourn
12. Reopen Nominations
13. Recess
14. Refer to a Committee
15. Parliamentary Inquiry
16. Limit/Extend Debate
17. Division of the Assembly
18. Withdraw a Motion
19. Rescind
20. Amendment

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Choose the best answer for each of the following.

21. To immediately reach an item which falls later in the regular order of business,
one may
a. postpone a class of business to a certain time
b. lay all of the intervening business on the table
c. suspend the rules
d. raise a point of order

22. In an appeal from the decision of the chair, a tie vote


a. reverses the decision of the chair
b. sustains the decision of the chair
c. must be retaken
d. has the same effect as a tie vote on a main motion

23. What is the purpose of a point of order?


a. To make an appeal from the decision of the chair
b. To make a parliamentary inquiry
c. To call for a personal privilege
d. To call attention to a breach of the rules

24. The duties of the credentials committee


a. are limited to an initial report
b. cannot be completed until after adjournment
c. continue until the convention ends
d. must be completed before the meeting is called to order

25. Which type of members are recognized by FBLA?


a. Active, Professional, and Honorary Life
b. Active, Professional, Honorary Life and National Honorary Life
c. Active, Professional, and Life
d. FBLA, PBL, Middle Level, and Professional

26. In the absence of a quorum,


a. a notice can validly be given
b. the prohibition against transacting business without a quorum can be
waived by unanimous consent
c. emergency action taken must be ratified by a later meeting at which a
quorum is present
d. a quasi committee of the whole may continue in session

27. The officers who must be present for the conduct of business in any deliberative
assembly are

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a. a presiding officer and a secretary


b. a presiding officer and the treasurer
c. the president, secretary, and treasurer
d. the president, vice-president, and a secretary

28. The national dues may be changed by


a. a 2/3 vote of the state voting delegates at the NLC
b. a majority vote of the state voting delegates at the NLC
c. 2/3 vote of the local chapter delegates at the NLC
d. a majority vote of the local chapter voting delegates at the NLC

29. A second implies that the seconder


a. agrees that the motion should come before the meeting
b. agrees that the motion should be entered in the minutes
c. agrees that the motion should be implemented without change
d. will refrain from speaking against the motion

30. If the office of president-elect is expressly provided for in the bylaws,


a. members never vote on any candidate for the office of president
b. the president is elected one entire term in advance
c. the member who has served his full term as president-elect automatically
becomes president
d. all of the above

31. The motion which must be voted on first is


a. an amendment to the motion to recess
b. the previous question
c. to postpone to a certain time
d. to take a recess

32. Motions are brought before the assembly by these 3 steps: a member
a. rises, addresses the chair, and makes a motion
b. addresses the chair, makes a motion; and then the chair states the question
c. makes a motion, another member seconds it, and the chair states the
question
d. addresses the chair, makes a motion, and then a vote is taken

33. When a motion has been made and seconded, the chair places it before the
assembly by
a. putting the question
b. stating the question
c. having the motion repeated by the maker of the motion
d. requesting permission from the maker

34. Unless there is a rule to the contrary, a member may speak


a. twice during the same day

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b. twice on the same question on the same day


c. once during the same day
d. on withdrawn motion

35. If the chair make a mistake in assigning the floor,


a. a member may raise a question of privilege
b. a member may raise a point of order
c. the chair immediately asks the assembly to ratify the action taken
d. the chair asks the assembly to vote

36. A quorum in a committee is


a. those committee members who are attending the meeting
b. a majority of the membership
c. a majority of those who vote
d. those committee members who attend and send in the proxy vote

37. The order of business in a convention is known as


a. a program
b. rules of order
c. standing rules
d. special rules

38. When a main motion and two amendments are pending, the first vote is taken on
a. the secondary amendment
b. the primary amendment
c. the assembly will decide which to vote on first
d. the one preferred by the chair

39. If the chair rules a motion is out of order, the chair’s decision is subject to a/an
a. appeal
b. amendment
c. special rule
d. suspension

40. Committees whose duties are outlined in the bylaws are called
a. standing committees
b. special committees
c. constitutional committees
d. procedural committees
41. A corporate charter should be drafted by
a. a parliamentarian
b. a bylaws committee
c. the executive board of the organization
d. an attorney

42. What right does “privileges of the floor” convey?

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a. admitttance to the assembly


b. the right to debate
c. the right to read a paper
d. the right to a parliamentary inquiry

43. How many rap(s) of the gavel indicate to the members to come to order so that
the meeting may begin?
a. one b. two c. three d. short tap or series of short taps

44. How many rap(s) of the gavel indicate that a motion has passed or failed?
a. one b. two c. three d. short tap or series of short taps

45. How many rap(s) of the gavel indicate that members should stand?
a. one b. two c. three d. short tap or series of short taps

46. How many rap(s) of the gavel indicate that the presiding officer wants member to
stop talking?
a. one b. two c. three d. short tap or series of short taps

47. The purpose of laying a motion on the table is to _________________.


a. assure the assembly that the motion will be considered
b. allow the consideration of more urgent business
c. kill the motion under consideration
d. allow the assembly to adjourn

48. Which of the following motions has the highest precedence?


a. amend the main motion
b. postpone indefinitely
c. commit
d. postpone to a certain time

49. In an assembly that meets as often as quarterly a question ________.


a. cannot be postponed beyond the end of the present session
b. cannot be postponed beyond the end of the next session
c. can be postponed beyond the end of the next session
d. cannot be postponed at all

50. Which sequence of reports is generally correct for a convention?


a. credentials, program, and rules
b. program, credentials, and rules
c. credentials, rules, and program
d. program, rules, and credentials

51. Another name for an Executive Board is _________.


a. Executive Committee

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b. Board of Directors
c. House of Delegates
d. Officers

52. Ordinary Standing Rules contain:


a. rules of Parliamentary Procedure
b. the object of the organization
c. rules relating to the details of administration
d. rules that cannot be changed except with previous notice and two-thirds
vote

53. A meeting in continuation of the session of the immediately preceding regular or


special meeting is called ________________.
a. special session
b. recessed meeting
c. adjourned meeting
d. mass meeting

54. Complex motions are presented in the form of a(n) ____________.


a. incidental main motion
b. charter
c. secondary amendment
d. resolution

55. When a member allows another member to vote for them, it is called
a. proxy voting
b. preferential voting
c. roll call voting
d. ballot voting without a quorum

56. In the absence of a quorum at an official meeting of a society, the business that
may be transacted is.
a. laid on the table
b. referred to a committee
c. null and void
d. always adopted by a two-thirds vote

57. After the financial statement is read at a regular meeting, it _________.


a. is then referred to the finance committee
b. must be approved by a majority vote of the assembly
c. must be referred to the budget committee
d. requires no action from the assembly

58. If the meaning of a bylaw is not clear, it can be changed by ____________.


a. a unanimous vote of the members

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b. the Chairman at a special meeting of the officers


c. members through an amendment of the bylaws
d. none of the above

59. Previous notice can be ____________________________.


a. given orally if necessary at a meeting when a motion is pending
b. given orally when another member has the floor, but has not begum to
speak
c. sent by mail
d. all of the above

60. When the Presiding Officer relinquishes the chair in order to debate a motion, the
chair is returned when the ___________________.
a. President officer has completely debated the question
b. meeting is about to adjourn
c. motion has been disposed of
d. temporary Chairman requests that the regular Presiding Officer return

61. Which motion is undebatable if it is applied to an undebatable motion?


e. reconsider
a. rescind
b. amend something previously adopted
c. take from the table

62. Which one of the following motions is in order when another member has the
floor and does not require a second?
a. main motion
b. point of information
c. commit or refer
d. adjourn

63. A quorum consists of how many members when the total membership is 96, a
quorum is 25% of the entire membership, and during one particular vote, 60 members
were present and 57 members voted.
a. 21
b. 22
c. 23
d. 24

64. The motion to suspend the rules


a. is amendable
b. is debatable
c. requires a two-thirds vote
d. all of the above

65. When the vote has been taken viva voce, a division of the assembly

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a. is not in order after the vote has been announced


b. is a privileged motion
c. requires a second
d. is required on demand of a single member

66. If there is a contest between two sets of delegates at a convention


a. the credentials committee makes the final decision
b. the first delegate to claim his badge has the right to vote
c. the chair appoints a special committee to investigate
d. the convention decides which delegates shall be recognized

67. Which one of the following motions is debatable?


a. lay on the table
b. amend a motion to commit
c. object to consideration of a motion
d. division of a motion

68. With a main motion pending and the previous question just ordered, which one of
the following would be out of order?
a. adjourn
b. table
c. point of order
d. refer

69. All but one of the following statements accurately describes a tie vote on a main
motion. Which does not?
a. an equal number have voted for and against the motion
b. a tie vote defeats the motion
c. In case of a tie, the chairman, if a member of the organization and if he has
not already voted, may vote to break the tie
d. No vote can remain a tie; the assembly must vote until the tie is broken

70. The class of motions that serves to modify or dispose of main motions is called
a. incidental motions
b. incidental main motions
c. subsidiary motions
d. privileged motions

71. Minutes include all of the following EXCEPT:


a. points of order
b. appeals
c. hour of adjournment
d. main motions withdrawn

72. When more than two candidates have been nominated for an office;

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a. the candidate receiving the most votes on the first ballot should be declared the
winner
b. the weaker candidates should gradually be eliminated until one candidate
receives the majority vote
c. all candidates should remain on the ballot and voting should continue until one
receives a majority vote
d. have a primary election

73. When a motion contains a blank, it is filled:


a. by use of first and second degree amendments
b. from proposals by the member who moved to create the blank
c. from proposals by any number of members
d. from proposals by the chairman

74. The minimum vote required to sustain the decision of the chair after an appeal has
been made and seconded is a
a. vote of the entire membership
b. majority vote
c. two-thirds vote
d. tie vote

75. A motion may be withdrawn


a. only before it has been stated by the chair
b. only after it has been stated by the chair
c. by general consent even after it has been amended
d. by general consent provided no subsidiary motions are pending

76. Which one of the following does not require a second?


a. call up the motion to reconsider
b. dispense with the reading of the minutes
c. an appeal from the decision of the chair
d. A secondary amendment

77. While a question is pending, a motion designating the method of voting


a. is not in order
b. is debatable
c. does not require recognition
d. is not debatable

78. A motion which has been considered and adopted without having been seconded is
a. valid
b. invalid
c. seconded after adoption and made legal
d. seconded after adoption, without objection, and made valid

79. The motion to postpone indefinitely

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a. takes precedence over a motion to postpone to a certain time


b. if not adopted may be renewed
c. can be applied to a main motion and pending amendments
d. tests the strength of the opposition

80. The preamble to a resolution


a. may not be amended
b. is voted on separately
c. designates the action to be taken
d. is open to amendment after the resolved clauses are perfected

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1. B 26. C 51. B 76. A


2. A 27. A 52. C 77. D
3. D 28. B 53. C 78. A
4. A 29. A 54. D 79. D
5. C 30. D 55. A 80. D
6. C 31. B 56. C 81.
7. D 32. C 57. D 82.
8. D 33. B 58. B 83.
9. E 34. B 59. C 84.
10. A 35. B 60. D 85.
11. A 36. B 61. A 86.
12. A 37. A 62. A 87.
13. A 38. A 63. D 88.
14. A 39. A 64. C 89.
15. C 40. A 65. D 90.
16. B 41. D 66. D 91.
17. C 42. A 67. B 92.
18. A 43. B 68. D 93.
19. B 44. A 69. D 94.
20. A 45. C 70. C 95.
21. C 46. D 71. D 96.
22. B 47. C 72. B 97.
23. D 48. C 73. C 98.
24. C 49. B 74. D 99.
25. B 50. C 75. C 100.

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