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Technology is the driving force behind modern physical protection systems that have evolved to meet the increasing

sophistication of threats. Which of the following is not true with respect to technology and security? a) Technology may improve security, but it requires more manpower to operate.

b) Technology handled properly can augment human capabilities.


c) Technology implemented poorly can actually reduce the level of security at a facility.

d) A successful. security concept will emphasize integration of security system with human resources.

The physical security survey will normally include a risk analysis which helps determine the levels of protection required at the facility, and deficiencies in:

a) architectural, security systems, and operational aspects.


b) geographical, technological, and guard services. c) access control, intrusion detection and lighting. d) procedures, manpower, and training.

There are many benefits of a physical security survey. Which of the following is not a benefit? a) Categorize critical assets and drive the risk management process. b) Promote action by identifying vulnerabilities and make recommendations to executives, identify key players, and establish organizational groups that can convert those recommendations into action. c) Serve as an excellent opportunity to build security skills and expertise within an organization.

d) Build and broaden awareness among all employees.

When evaluating the probability of the occurrence of a loss event we note that the I more ways that a particular event can occur in given circumstances: a) Has no effect on the probability that it will occur b) The greater the probability that it will occur c) The lesser the probability that it will occur d) Renders it impossible to determine the probability that it will occur

A list of the kinds of threats affecting the assets to be safeguarded is known as: a) A loss event profile

b) The loss event criticality list


c) The insurance rate calculation table d) A law enforcement watch list

Non-criminal threats are generally classified as? a) Overt or covert

b) Criminal or terrorist
c) Human or natural d) Insider or outsider

The process of determining asset value, threats, their likelihood of occurring, and impact on the assets, then determining vulnerability is termed the:
a) Probability analysis

b) Risk analysis
c) Potential loss analysis d) Physical Security survey

Annual Loss Expectancy is the product of: a) Value and likelihood of occurrence b) Impact and likelihood of occurrence c) Risk and impact of loss d) Threat and consequence of occurrence

When in the first phase of balancing cost versus benefit (to determine the cost/benefit ratio) we consider: a) Efficiency versus cost b) Life cycle versus effectiveness c) Cost versus Impact or potential loss d) Efficiency versus effectiveness

What are three key elements in determining an assets value? a) Some measure of relative value, vulnerability to attack, and existing in-place physical security measures. b) Criticality to the user, difficulty or time for replacement, and some measure of relative value. c) The cost of the asset, publicity value to a specific threat group, and difficulty or time for I replacement. d) The asset cost for replacement, criticality to the user, and value to a specific threat group.

Risk can be defined as: a) Potential occurrence and effectiveness of countermeasures in place b) Cost of risk insurance and capacity for potential loss c) Capacity for potential loss and ability to respond d) The potential for a loss or damage to an asset

A technique for prioritizing loss potential is the use of a "decision matrix" which uses adjectives such as high, medium and low as factors in measuring: a) Level of threat versus frequency of loss b) Cost of countermeasures versus frequency of loss c) Consequences of loss versus probability of loss d) Level of threat versus consequence

When considering risk issues, "probability" is defined as: a) The ratio of past incidents to potential of future incidents b) The ratio of the number of outcomes in an exhaustive set of equally likely outcomes that produce a given event to the total number of possible outcomes. c) The ratio of solved cases to the total number of reported cases

d) The ratio of local cases to the total national cases of the same event

Risk management is: a) Determining measures and safeguards to mitigate the threats and reduce vulnerabilities b) Buying insurance to cover expected losses c) Identifying the impact of various threats on assets d) Quantifying the cost of loss events

There are basically two approaches to risk analysis: a) Human vs. natural b) Cost vs. Frequency c) Quantitative vs. qualitative d) Mathematical vs. historical

Assets are either: a) Human vs. natural b) Quantitative vs. qualitative c) Tangible vs. intangible d) Organic vs. inorganic

When describing threats and hazards, in general terms: a) Threats are associated with buildings and hazards are associated with humans

b) Threats are associated with humans and hazards are associated with buildings
c) Threats are associated with nature and hazards are associated with humans

d) Threats are generally associated with humans and hazards are associated with nature.

Vulnerability is defined as: a) The quantification of the threats against assets b) The cost to recover the assets c) Any weakness that can be exploited by an aggressor d) The likelihood of a loss occurring

The physical security survey will normally include a risk analysis which helps determine the levels of protection required at the facility, and deficiencies in: a) architectural, security systems, and operational aspects.

b) geographical, technological, and guard services.


c) access control, intrusion detection and lighting. d) procedures, manpower, and training.

There are many benefits of a physical security survey. Which of the following is not a benefit? a) Categorize critical assets and drive the risk management process.

b) Promote action by identifying vulnerabilities and make recommendations to executives, identify key players, and establish organizational groups that can convert those recommendations into action.
c) Serve as an excellent opportunity to build security skills and expertise within an organization. d) Build and broaden awareness among all employees.

An approach to the physical security survey, often used by law enforcement, is called a) Inside-Out, where the practitioner starts with the critical asset and works his way out to the perimeter. b) Outside-In, where the practitioner starts at the perimeter of the facility and moves to the interior looking for various protective measures that must be defeated to gain access to the critical assets.

c) Concentric layers
d) Circles of protection

Practitioners use which of the following basic methods to collect data. a) equipment inventory, oral-written tests, perimeter barriers, site surveys, and lighting studies.

b) training, impact analysis, drawing analysis, statistical sampling, and schematic analysis.
c) interviews, document reviews, performance tests, observations, questionnaires, and knowledge tests d) interviews, risk analysis, job analysis, performance evaluations, time and motion studies, and focus groups.

Which of the following does not describe the criteria the practitioner uses in selecting mitigation measures: a) The technical and cultural difficulty associated with implementation of the recommendation b) Likelihood of preventing an aggressor attempt before and after the recommendation is implemented.. c) The cultural background of the employees d) Changes the dependency on other infrastructures

In conducting security surveys, the interrelationships of three basic elements of the security program will be examined to determine the effectiveness of the program a) architectural security elements; organization, security staff, policy and procedures elements; and security systems elements b) architectural elements, access control elements, and lighting elements c) organization, staffing, and post orders

d) security systems, management commitment, and site layout

Premises liability is a civil action where a plaintiff will attempt to hold a landlord or property manager liable for injuries inflicted during a criminal attack committed on their premises. In this litigation, the plaintiff must prove that the landlord/property manager breached their duty of care by failing to provide reasonable security measures. Which of the following is not an example? a) insufficient security measures have been implemented compared to other like facilities b) door or window locks were defective and not repaired c) methods used for hiring and training of personnel and security officers were adequate d) lights were not functioning for weeks prior to the assault

Incident response policies should be periodically reviewed by legal counsel and the legal review should ensure that your procedures include several issues. Which statement is not correct? a) Comply with overall company policies and procedures b) Conform to local laws and regulations only c) Reflect known industry best practices demonstrating the exercise of due care

d) Protect your staff from lawsuits

The Executive Summary of the security survey provides a summary assessment of the results of the study. Which of the following is not included in the Executive Summary? a) This section does not address the results by area, but attempts to combine the results of all areas, particularly trying to identify trends. b) It provides a balanced discussion of positive and negative program attributes and how they affect overall program performance.

c) It provides brief descriptions of the vulnerabilities, what the recommended standard or best practice is, and the recommended security countermeasures.
d) This section is a synopsis of the major strengths and weaknesses regarding program status.

When conducting a survey the practitioner should start by obtaining a layout of the facility, which depicts areas within the facility, access points, parking lots, warehouses, and any adjacent areas belonging to the facility. Which of the following is not applicable for the practitioner to obtain?

a) type of construction of the buildings at the facility


b) law enforcement agency, fire department, and other organizations responsible for emergency response, including response time

c) names and addresses of all management officials


d) the determined value of assets or sensitive or unique equipment

The appropriate level of physical security for a company is contingent upon the of company assets, potential threats to these assets, and the cost associated with protecting assets. Which statement is not correct? a) Low cost security elements, such as cameras, alarms, guard force, should be in place for critical assets. b) Recommending that a company eliminate a security element because of high cost may put critical assets at unwarranted risk.

c) Recommending implementation of expensive security elements could result in improvement of the overall security posture.
d) Locking doors, wearing ID badges, and escorting visitors improve the security posture without significant cost.

The physical security survey report should not include which of the following. a) the facility's critical assets that require protection

b) brief descriptions of the vulnerability, what the recommended standard is, and recommended security countermeasures
c) a cover memo summarizing the process

d) a timeline for the security budget

A security plan should be developed by following four distinct phases. Which of is not correct? a) Security program design which is the selection of countermeasures to mitigate risks. b) Risk analysis which is a perfunctory examination including maintenance. c) It provides brief descriptions of the vulnerabilities, what the recommended standard practice is, and the recommended security countermeasures. d) Maintenance which includes an ongoing process to ensure effectiveness of solutions.

The end result of a physical security survey is to: a) recommend a raise for the security manager

b) obtain funding for new security systems


c) recommend physical security measures needed to safeguard personnel, prevent unauthorized access to material and equipment, and to protect against sabotage, damage and theft d) validate the assets, threats, and vulnerabilities

The most important and generally the most expensive type of countermeasure is: a) security hardware

b) computer software
c) personnel d) intelligence

Which of the following elements are not included in a physical security program? a) An appropriate set of the following elements to address changing threat conditions: architectural, operational, and personnel b) A comprehensive and continuing security education and awareness effort to gain the interest and support of employees, contractors, consultants, and visitors. c) A physical security survey for each facility in the company to identify the assets, threats, vulnerabilities, and threat mitigation measures that should be implemented. d) An established response force and procedures to take immediate, positive, and orderly action to safeguard life and property during an emergency.

There are feature-based and performance design criteria for intrusion detection systems. Which of the following is not a feature criterion? a) Line of sight b) Volumetric pattern c) Linear detection pattern

d) Recording frame rate

Which of the following statements is true? a) Barriers create a psychological deterrent for anyone thinking of unauthorized entry. b) Barriers can be designed for all situations. c) Mitigating a vehicle bomb would rarely be more important than minimizing the restricted area to the extent necessary for operational efficiency. d) Barriers have an indirect impact on the number of security posts needed and on the frequency of use for each post.

Natural barriers are often more of a deterrent to vehicles. Which of the following are examples of natural barriers? a) Jersey barriers, large boulders, hydraulic bollards b) Cliffs, fences, creeks c) Dense vegetation, canyons, rivers, and streams

d) Fixed bollards, concertina, hedges

Which of the following statements is not true concerning chain link fences? a) Must be 9 gauge or heavier wire

b) Galvanized mesh with openings of 2 in.


c) Must be minimum of 6 ft. of fabric - including top guard d) Twisted and barbed selvages on top and bottom of fence line

Perimeter fence gates minimize entrances and exits to maintain control. Which of the following features should gates not incorporate? a) An overhang of barbed wire or barbed tape b) Adequate lighting c) Security officers when open

d) Secure locks when closed

Which of the following is not a feature of barbed tape/razor wire when used as a barrier? a) Retracts into closed coil b) Extends without distortion c) Requires a maximum of 3 rolls

d) Laid between poles

There are three basic varieties of flat glass: sheet, plate, and float. By adding chemicals and through processing during manufacture, these basic glass types can be changed to meet modern requirements for comfort, security, safety, and architectural needs. Which of the following is not a type of flat glass? a) Laminated glass b) Armor glass

c) Wired glass
d) Tempered glass

Which of the following is not a general principle of protective lighting? a) Point glaring lights toward eyes of intruder

b) Adequate, even light on boundaries and approaches


c) Maximum light on patrol routes d) High brightness contrast for intruder and background

What is the definition of illuminance? a) A measure of the warmth or coolness of a light.

b) The ratio of the lumens of light out to power in - the higher the efficacy number, the more efficient the lamp.
c) The concentration of light over a particular area measured in lux, the number of lumens per square meter or foot-candles (fc), the number of lumens per square foot. One foot-candle is equal to 10.76 lux (often approximated to a ratio of 1:10). d) Ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object.

A lighting system consists of a number of components, all of which are important to the effectiveness of a lighting application. Below is a list of the major components and their function. Which should not be included in the list?

a) Mounting hardware, such as a wall bracket or light pole, is used to fix the lamp at the correct height and location.
b) Electrical power operates the lamp, ballasts, and photocells.

c) Lamp (aka light bulb) is the manufactured light source that includes the filament or an arc tube, its glass casing, and its electrical connectors.
d) Luminaire (aka fixture) is the complete lighting unit consisting of the lamp, its holder and reflectors, and diffusers used to distribute and focus the light.

Where CCTV cameras are used, there are some additional considerations to be taken in the selection and application of lighting to ensure that camera scenes are most useful. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

a) Illuminance relates to the amount of light needed by a CCTV camera to perceive a scene and is the amount of light shining over the area of the lens.
b) Reflectance defines only what the human eye sees.

c) Color Rendering Index should be high for accurate reproduction and identification of colors.
d) Directionality refers to the direction of the reflected lighting (ideally reflected light should be in the direction that the camera is aimed).

When employing exterior IDS at a particular facility there are several considerations that the practitioner must consider at the site. Which of the following best describes the design considerations?

a) Number of security posts and security officers.


b) Presence of CCTV cameras and lighting. c) Site topography, weather, vegetation and animals. d) Size and shape of the facility.

What are four characteristics of intrusion detectors? a) Line, volumetric, taut wire, and electrostatic.

b) Line of site, terrain following, fence, and leaky coax.


c) Active, passive, overt, or covert. d) Linear, visible, microwave and infrared beams.

Intrusion detectors can generally be grouped into what following three classes: a) Line, volumetric, and free standing.

b) Inclusive, exclusive, and immediate


c) Perimeter, area, and object d) Continuous, virtual, and logical

What type of intrusion detection system should be installed on a site that has a varying topography (i.e., the site is not level)? a) Line b) Covert c) Terrain following

d) Volumetric

What type of intrusion detection system would be installed to detect an intruder climbing a fence? a) Buried sensor b) Free standing sensor c) Fence mounted sensor

d) Covert sensor

What type of intrusion detection system would be installed that would provide a volumetric pattern and be covert? a) Fence system b) Microwave c) Buried cable

d) Electric field

Which of the following statements is not true concerning an intrusion detection sub- system? a) The main purpose of an intrusion detection sub-system is to alert the protective force to intrusion. b) Intrusion detection sub-systems generally consist of both an alarm and an assessment capability, but are rarely layered for both interior and exterior applications. c) Alarm displays must be clearly visible, must identify the location and type of alarm, and the operator interface must allow for alarm recognition by the operator.

d) Alarm devices require continuous supervision to preclude any covert attempt to bypass the alarm system, and to ensure an appropriate and timely response.

Designed to report persons attempting to enter or move about in protected areas, intrusion detectors can be divided into three general classes. What are they? a) Perimeter or point of entry, general area, object b) Interior, exterior, electronic sensors c) Capacitance, perimeter, sensors

d) Access control sub-systems, system operators, security guards

Implementation of a closed circuit television (CCTV) system will offer the capability of maintaining visual surveillance of the site from a remote source such as a monitoring company or a customer operated monitoring site. In addition, which of the following is correct? a) Most critical facilities use multi-position CCTV camera coverage for timely assessment of alarms generated around the perimeter of the facility . b) Alarms normally annunciate in the remote area where the alarm console operators can acknowledge the alarm, assess its cause, and direct a response as necessary. c) Video capture systems provides post -alarm video images exclusively of the alarmed area that are very useful in determining the cause of alarms and tracking intruders. d) CCTV will allow the camera images to be recorded and retrieved to help reconstruct what occurred at the facility and to identify the culprits involved in the incident.

Interior sensors are classified by their application to the protection strategy. Which of the following is not a classification/feature of sensors? a) Volumetric or line, covert or visible b) Active, passive c) Boundary penetration, building interior, object or proximity

d) Intercom, radio, telephone equipment

Which of the following is not an objective of Access Control Systems? a) Detects and prevents entry/exit of contraband

b) Provides information to security personnel


c) Used to arm and disarm intrusion detection system via keypad and/ or card d) Permits only authorized persons to enter or exit

When utilizing key control and re-keying, which of the following is correct? a) Do not issue to tenants of office building

b) Re-key interior first


c) Issue to long term janitorial personnel d) Move old locks to exterior

Which of the following is not a key element in establishing an electronic access control system? a) Issue secure identification/ assess cards that are not easily counterfeited. b) Restrict access so staff can only enter those areas necessary for their job functions and only during appropriate work hours. c) Change ID / access card keys annually, and collect the ID card key when an employee or contractor is no longer associated with the company. d) Utilize single entry devices, such as turnstiles or revolving doors to eliminate tailgating.

A portal is any point or place of entry such as a door, gate, or other type of entranceway. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effectiveness of portal controls?

a) Turnstiles - rarely effective - low throughput - very accurate


b) Optical turnstiles - very effective - high throughput - moderately accurate c) Revolving doors - very effective - high throughput - very accurate d) Vestibules - relatively effective - medium throughput - accurate

When assessing a need for CCTV, all of the following should be considered except for which of the following? a) Protected assets are located some distance apart b) Assets require monitoring and protection c) One area requires extensive monitoring

d) There is a need for real time assessment of activities and alarm conditions

There are three theoretical identity views of a CCTV system. Which of the following is incorrect? a) personal identification b) scene identification c) reproduction identification

d) action identification

Technology is the driving force behind modern physical protection systems that have evolved to meet the increasing sophistication of threats. Which of the following is not true with respect to technology and security?

a) Technology may improve security, but it requires more manpower to operate.


b) Technology handled properly can augment human capabilities. c) Technology implemented poorly can actually reduce the level of security at a facility. d) A successful security concept will emphasize integration of security system with human resources.

Which of the following best describes the mission of Security Officers. a) To provide assistance to employees, contractors and visitors.

b) To monitor security systems.


c) To prepare reports of security incidents. d) To protect company assets from theft, sabotage, and other hostile acts that may affect the organization.

Which of the following is not a major duty for security officers. a) Arrest intruders.

b) Report violations of company policies, standards and procedures.


c) Conduct personnel, package, and vehicle inspections. d) Monitor alarms and dispatch response to incidents.

What are the key components of an integrated physical protection system? a) Intrusion detection sensors and human operators.

b) Training, policies, and procedures.


c) Card readers, sensors, cameras, communications, and a display and assessment sub-system.

d) Computers, hardware and software.

Which of the following does not describe a method of monitoring security systems. a) Local monitoring.

b) Central station monitoring.


c) Intrinsic monitoring. d) Proprietary monitoring.

In implementing proprietary display and assessment sub-systems, there are two common types of systems. These are: a) Local facility display and assessment systems and centralized display and assessment systems. b) Proprietary and direct connection. c) Law enforcement and fire department. d) Security systems and Security Officers.

CCTV cameras are often used in the assessment of alarms at a facility. Which of the following is not an advantage of using CCTV? a) Reduces the need for expensive fixed security posts at a site. b) Reduces the need for periodic security patrols at a site. c) Eliminates the need for a response force to respond to alarms.

d) Enhances the effectiveness of the security force by allow them to see what caused an alarm at a site.

Communications is a prerequisite for implementing a modern integrated physical protection system. Which of the following is not a communications option? a) Point to point. b) Point to connector. c) Fiber optics.

d) Wireless.

An integrated physical protection system has two types of software components. Which of the following are the components? a) Machine level language and compiler. b) Read only memory and communications software. c) Operating system and application software.

d) Device controller and workstation controller.

The integrated system requires a database. Which of the following is not a type of data you would find in the database? a) Alarm point descriptions b) Equipment power requirements c) Cardholder identifying information

d) Audit trail of operator actions

The integrated system requires a database. Which of the following is not true of the database? a) Database is a collection of records stored in a computer in a systematic way. b) A field is a single piece of information; a record is one complete set of fields: and a file is a collection of records. c) The database never stores activity that is used to prepare reports. d) Databases are organized by fields, records, and files.

Implementing a new physical protection system includes: a) Preparing facilities, installing systems, testing, and training

b) Sole source procurement


c) Request for proposals d) Proprietary specifications

At a minimum, the PPS procurement package consists of: a) Boiler plate and specifications

b) Contractor reference requirements, functional specifications, and as-built drawings


c) Training requirements, instruction manuals, and maintenance instructions

d) Contract information and bidders' instructions, system specifications, drawings, and schedules

A functional design specification is normally used with what type of procurement method? a) Request for proposals b) Request for quote c) Sole source

d) Invitation to bid

The statement of work (SOW) is very important document because it: a) Provides a schedule for the contractor to follow

b) Describes how the contractor should interface with other contractors on site
c) Details the work involved for the removal of any old equipment, the preparation of the site the delivery of the PPS, installation requirements for hardware and software, training of personnel, and testing of systems d) Explains the terms of the warranty

Which of the following is not an example of a design criterion? a) The response time of the system to an alarm

b) The number of ID cards that can be maintained in the database


c) The installation schedule d) The culture of the company

When a new building is being constructed, the PPS is often considered one of the building's sub-systems, much like plumbing, air conditioning, or electrical. In this case, the PPS specification is:

a) Prepared as a section of the CSI Masterformat"


b) Prepared as a separate document c) Not prepared d) Developed according to the standards set by AIA

Which of the following best describes the components of the PPS life cycle cost? a) Engineering and design costs, hardware, taxes, and installation

b) Engineering and design costs, hardware, software, and installation


c) Engineering and design cost, hardware and software cost, installation cost, operating cost, maintenance cost, and other costs

d) Engineering and design cost, hardware and software cost, and other costs

The bidder's conference enables contractors to see the facility, view any possible installation problems, and ask questions about the design and installation requirements. Which of the following is not a good practice for the bidder's conference? a) Require all prospective bidders to attend the conference b) Respond to questions by each contractor directly without copying the other bidders c) Conduct a walkthrough of the installation and show where the PPS will be installed d) Prepare minutes of the bidders conference and issue to all attendees

Prior to beginning installation, the contractor should visit the site and verify that conditions agree with the design specification. In addition, the company should require that the contractor:

a) Prepare a written report of all changes to the site or conditions that will affect performance of the system and to take necessary corrective action
b) Disconnect all signal lines or equipment and create equipment downtime without prior written approval of the company c) Not disconnect any signal lines or equipment or create any equipment downtime without prior written approval of the company d) Not be held responsible for repair costs due to negligence or abuse of the company's equipment

Through well-conceived, well-executed security training programs, personnel can be better prepared to prevent incidents from happening, respond properly to incidents that do arise, and contribute to recovery efforts more effectively. Without proper training: a) Personnel will be equally effective b) Law enforcement agencies, fire department, and other organizations will have to be responsible for incident response c) Personnel are more likely to accidentally contribute to security risks d) Management will depend more on technology

No security project will be successful without: a) Upper management support

b) Project management software


c) Unspent resources d) At least one change order

A project differs from regular work in a number of ways. Which of the following is not true? a) A project has a unique purpose and it has an explicit goal to be completed within specifications of time and budget b) A project is temporary and it has a definite beginning and definite end. It occurs only once and then it is finished

c) A project requires resources such as money, people, equipment and supplies that only come from inside the company
d) A project has a primary sponsor. The sponsor provides the direction and funding for the project

What three goals must the project manager balance? a) Architectural, security systems, and operational aspects

b) Geographical, technological, and guard services


c) Project scope, time, and cost d) Procedures, manpower, and training

What are some of the common elements of successful projects? a) The project has consistent involvement of the stakeholders, upper management support, a clear statement of objectives and requirements, and was completed on time and on budget b) The project has top management on the project team c) The project uses project management software d) The project has not had any scope changes

Stakeholders are the people involved in or affected by project activities. Which best describes the type of stakeholders you would encounter in a security project? a) External customers of the company b) IT equipment manufacturers c) Project sponsor and members of the project team

d) The board of directors

Project management can deliver many benefits; some are evident and some are hidden. Which of the following are not some of the most important? a) Putting project goals and expectations on paper encourages open communications and provides a commitment and focal point for the project team throughout the process b) The structured project process produces comprehensive training and documentation c) Project controls provide early warnings of time and cost overruns d) Productivity of each project team member is reduced due to reporting requirements

Projects have four stages. What are they? a) Feasibility, development, execution, and closeout

b) Feasibility, design, execution, and closeout


c) Feasibility, development, examination, and closeout d) Feasibility, development, execution, and completion

It is very important to be clear about what things the project will accomplish and what things the project could accomplish, but will not. This will make it much easier to manage scope change throughout the project. In addition to deliverables, your should further describe scope in more specific terms such as: a) Data modified, organizations changed, external processes affected, and equipment purchased b) Data worked with, organizations affected, business processes affected, transactions considered, and other projects impacted c) People affected, systems modified, and new procedures created d) Procedures, manpower, and training required

Objectives are concrete statements describing what the project is trying to achieve. The objective should be written at a level so that it can be evaluated at the conclusion of a project to see whether it was achieved or not. A well-worded objective will be a) Time related, un-measureable, detailed, and specialized b) Geographical, technological, and superficial

c) Objective, high level, and detailed


d) Specific, measurable, attainable/ achievable, realistic, and time bound

Deliverables are the products or results of the work needed to accomplish project objectives. Which of the following is true of deliverables? a) Deliverables are defined during the feasibility stage of the project b) Deliverables are defined when the project is closed out c) Deliverables are identified for each phase of the PPS implementation

d) Deliverables don't need to be developed for complex projects

Activities define the work necessary to produce the deliverables in each phase. Which of the following is a general rule? a) Activities are not necessary for small projects b) Activities should have durations between one week and four weeks long c) Activities should be longer than eight weeks

d) Activities should be less than one week

The objective of developing the work breakdown structure is to capture all the tasks that are necessary to create the deliverables for each phase. Which of the following is true of the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

a) All activities must be sequenced while preparing the WBS


b) The duration of activities should be broken down to a level no larger than the project work reporting cycle

c) Activities durations are not related to the project reporting cycle


d) Activities should take less than one week to complete

To create the network diagram, we sequence the activities in a rough chronological order by determining which activities need to be completed first, second, third, etc. After we have a rough sequence established, we go through the activities again and look for the relationships and dependencies between the activities and finally arrive at a network diagram describing the sequence of all activities leading to completion of the project. In determining the sequence, most activities have what relationship? a) Start to Start b) Finish to Start c) Finish to Finish

d) Start to Finish

After building the WBS and the network diagram, you should look at the other potential obstacles and rank them according to their probability of occurrence. Then you should build in additional activities to mitigate the potential risks. This process is called a) Risk analysis b) Project management

c) Contingency planning
d) Dependency networking

What tasks does the project manager accomplish during the execution stage of the project? a) Planning, documenting requirements, selecting team members b) Preparing the deliverables, the activities, the WBS, and the network diagram c) Conducting life cycle phase and deliverable reviews each week, providing frequent project reports to stakeholders and management, utilizing a formal change control process that includes stakeholder approvals of all changes, and revising activities and work breakdown structure to reflect changes d) Preparing the lessons learned report

The contractor installs all new components, sub-systems, and systems according to manufacturers' requirements and in conformance with all applicable standards. Conversely, the customer and the contractor prepare the following documentation except for: a) Inspections, tests, and documentations for all existing physical protection equipment and signal lines that will be incorporated into the new system b) System operation manuals, maintenance, and troubleshooting documents c) Response procedures describing what actions the response force is to take when responding to incidents d) Alarm assessment procedures providing instructions to system operators on how to assess various alarm conditions and how to dispatch assistance

A customer should look for many things when selecting the contractor or system integrator to install the Physical Protection System. Which of the following is the most important?

a) The integrator has a PSP certification


b) The integrator has experience with the brand of system you are installing c) The integrator has a college degree d) The integrator has been approved by the AHJ

In the event of a power failure, electrified locks may fail in two different conditions. These conditions are: a) Fail Safe and Fail Secure b) Fail Open and Fail Closed c) Fail Outside and Fail Inside

d) Fail Egress and Fail Ingress

Connecting components such that there is a single line to which all components are connected is referred to as: a) Ring configuration b) Star configuration c) Bus configuration

d) Tree configuration

Circuitry that initiates an alarm in response to opening, closing, shorting, or grounding of the conductors is referred to as. a) Line management b) Circuit assessment c) Line supervision

d) End of the line resistance

A ground loop is: a) A current across a conductor, created by a difference in potential between two grounded points b) When three or more buildings have power connected in a loop configuration c) When buildings are connected by fiber optic cable

d) When conductors are installed in the ground

Which of the following is not an example of alarm assessment procedures? a) Access control systems should alarm if an unauthorized person tailgates an authorized person through a door or turnstile into a facility b) Intrusion detection systems should alarm if an intruder opens a door or window at the wrong time or without presenting a valid ID card or code c) A procedure must be developed for each type of alarm that is generated and for each type of scenario that might be encountered by the responding officer d) For each alarm point, security officers use detailed operating procedures describing what actions to take to assess the alarms

Which of the following is not correct concerning the reduction of nuisance alarms? a) Conduct frequent inspections of all components and replace faulty components b) Examine your janitorial program to ensure that cleaning is only done during the day c) Provide signage such as "Keep Doors Closed" in problem areas

d) Correct problems by adjusting guard patrol times so guards are most likely to intervene where employees pass through doors and leave them open

Your legal counsel should periodically review your incident response procedures. The legal review should ensure that your procedures include all but one of the following:

a) Reflect known industry best practices demonstrating the exercise of due care
b) Comply with overall company policies and procedures c) Conform with the National Electrical Code d) Protect your staff from lawsuits

Several operational tests should be conducted periodically by the security staff after PPS implementation. Which of the following tests may require special test equipment?

a) Safety tests
b) Sub-system tests c) Performance tests d) Stress tests

The optimum approach to the formulation of an organizational assets protection plan is to: a) Respond to each loss or potential loss as the hazard occurs and build an overall plan over time. b) Formulate and implement a comprehensive prevention plan to include all types of hazards.

c) Develop an assets protection plan based on the results of investigations and prosecutions of losses as the cases are closed.
d) Formulate a protection plan based on the advice of the crime prevention specialist in the local law enforcement agency.

Implementing the systems approach in security involves: a) Vulnerability analysis, countermeasures choice and program test.

b) Vulnerability analysis, program test and cost control.


c) Countermeasures choice, management approval and testing. d) Vulnerability analysis, cost control and management approval.

When evaluating the probability of the occurrence of a loss event we note that the number of ways that a particular event can occur in given circumstances: a) Has no effect on the probability that it will occur. b) The greater the probability that it will occur. c) The lesser the probability that it will occur.

d) Renders it impossible to determine the probability that it will occur.

One of the most common errors made, and one that negates the effectiveness of the chain link fence is the failure to: a) Establish and maintain a clear zone along the fence.

b) Install and monitor a fence intrusion detection alarm system.

c) Install warning signs on the fence at intervals not exceeding 50 feet.

d) Patrol the fence line at least twice on each security officer tour.

The vehicle checkpoint is a location at which the: a) Identity and contents of inbound and outbound vehicles can be determined before they are allowed to proceed. b) Engine oil and fuel levels of outbound vehicles are checked prior to departure. c) Number and type of vehicles entering and departing from the facility are tabulated. d) Number of passengers in vehicles are counted to ascertain the effectiveness of the company carpooling policy.

The three major activities in risk management are: a) Risk avoidance, risk transfer and loss control or reduction.

b) Risk transfer, risk avoidance and insurance.


c) Loss event profile, loss event probability and loss event criticality. d) Fidelity insurance, all perils coverage and mercantile insurance.

The physical controls at the outer protective layer are generally designed to: a) Provide a strong physical barricade against vehicular entry.

b) Define the property line and channel people and vehicles through designated access points.
c) Delay an intruder until the security force can respond.

d) Prevent unauthorized access by all persons but the skilled and determined intruder.

In physical security planning, the location of inner protective layers, if properly planned would cause an intruder who had penetrated both the outer and middle protective layers to:

a) Immediately activate an alarm condition that would result in a law enforcement response.
b) Be trapped in a maze of corridors and barriers.

c) Immediately activate an alarm condition which would result in a security response.


d) Fail to find anything of value easily accessible.

Cost accounting is described as: a) The overall method of recording transactions or events and classifying or systematically organizing them into categories. b) A specialized form of accounting intended to conform general accounting processes and records to the requirements of tax laws that may require or permit special treatment of transactions not accurately reflected under standard accounting practices. c) A method for isolating all of the elements of cost required to generate a unit of production or provide an amount of service. d) The decision area in financial management that establishes goals and criteria for investing in long-term projects.

What active, LOS, volumetric sensor would be used to detect a person crawling on the ground? a. Bistatic Microwave b. Buried ported coaxial cable c. Seismic

d. Both a & b

What type of light fixture has the poorest color discrimination: a. Incandescent b. Metal Halide c. Mercury Vapor d. Low-pressure sodium

A document that describes in sufficient detail the functions required of the system and what has to be done to install it is called: a. Bidders instructions b. Request for Proposal c. Notification d. Specifications

A technique used by an intruder that involves passing through the detection zone of a sensor without being noticed is called: a. Bypassing b. Cloaking c. Spoofing d. Masking

Protection-in-depth means: a. Use of multiple lines of detection b. That no matter how an adversary attempts to accomplish the goal, effective elements of the PPS will be encountered c. Use of dual-technology sensors d. Use of sensors with a high PD rating

Class A fire speaks to the following: a. Fires of ordinary combustible materials, such as wastepaper, rags, drapes, furniture b. Fires fueled by gasoline, grease oil, or volatile fluids c. Most effectively extinguished by water or water fog d. Both a & c

A local high school is experiencing a recent problem with drugs and gang activity in the existing smoking area thats located out back behind the school. The principle decided to make use of an under-utilized open court yard located in the middle of the school that is surrounded on all four sides by classrooms. By moving the smokers in here the thinking was the smokers would get the sense they were being watched all the time and therefore be on their best behavior, and it worked. What CPTED principle would best describe this? a. Improve scheduling of space b. Place safe activities in vulnerable areas c. Place vulnerable activities in safe areas d. Overcome distance and isolation

What is the best probability of detection (Pd) that a sensor can have? a. 1.0 b. 0.1 c. 100 d. None of the above

A procurement process that involves the customer completing his own design including selection of hardware and software is called: a. b. c. d. Request for Proposal Invitation to Bidders Sole Source None of the above

An access card that has an encoded magnetic stripe located along one edge of the card or badge is called? a. b. c. d. Proximity Bar Code Wiegand None of the above

Drawings of vertical surfaces to show how security devices are mounted on a wall are called: a. b. c. d. Plan Drawings Riser Drawings Elevation Drawings Detail Drawings

Maintenance that corrects faults and returns the system to operation in the event of hardware or software component failures is formally called: a. b. c. d. Corrective Remedial Preventive Break & Fix

Which sensor type would not be a good application where there is thin gypsum board walls encompassing the protected room with activity/motion on the other side of the walls?

a. b. c. d.

Passive Infrared Line detection Microwave Ultrasonic

What is not an example of passive design? a. b. c. d. Bollards Fencing Alarm system None of the above

Taking actions to lower the risk if possible to lower the severity of the loss is what risk management approach? a. b. c. d. Reduction Avoidance Transfer None of the above

An access card technology that has a series of parallel wires embedded in the card is called: a. b. c. d. Proximity Smart card Wiegand None of the above

A process used to search packages for metal objects is called: a. b. c. d. CT Scan ECD IMS Chemiluminescence

A sensor that combines microwave with passive infrared is called: a. Bistatic b. Dual Technology c. Multitech d. None of the above

Technology used for banks or high security facilities whereby a single dedicated phone line is supervised at the Central Station is called: a. b. c. d. Telephone Dialer Digital Communicators Direct Wire Systems None of the above

A procurement tool used for making a bidder legally responsible for making good on payments and/or performance is called a: a. b. c. d. Bond Warranty Indemnity & Insurance Statement of Compliance

A long pathway separates a university campus from the main residence. A recent security concern, particularly for female students walking along the pathway late at night has been raised by Campus Police. A decision was made to make improvements that include the installation of improved lighting along the pathway as well as installing panic buttons every 50 feet on freestanding posts that ring through to campus Police. What CPTED principle would best describe this? a. b. c. d. Overcome distance and isolation Place vulnerable activities in safe areas Design space to increase the perception of natural surveillance Provide clearly marked transitional zones

Which network architecture provides for redundancy in that if the network becomes severed, the device will continue to communicate along an alternate path?

Ring Star Point-to-Point Loop

Dry powder is usually the most and in some cases the only effective extinguishing agent for what type of fire? a. b. c. d. Class A Class B Class C Class D

The physical layer may consist of twisted pair wires and another example would be: a. A modem b. Error Checking c. Fiber-Optics supporting very high bandwidth d. Handling flow control, receipt/acknowledgement and routing

AC&D uses the Open Source Interconnection (OSI) model of network layers utilizing only the lowest three layers that being: Link, Application and Physical Link, Network and Physical Physical, Transport and Link Transport, Physical and Network

Which sensor is best used where you want the least amount of nuisance alarms? a. b. c. d. Active Passive Covert LOS

What technology is highly resistant to video tampering as it can be easily detected? a. b. c. d. Two-wire twisted pair Coaxial Cable Ethernet Fiber-optics

Impressioning is a lock defeat method that involves: a. Using a wire to push the pins up and down inside the key way to read the pin codes or cuts b. Inserting a blank in the lock and twisting hard with pliers thus creating an image of the pins on the blank c. Following or entering behind a person who unlocks a secure door giving the impression you have rightful access d. None of the above

Stabilized aqueous foam is considered to be a: a. Passive barrier b. Active barrier c. Dispensable barrier d. Formulation of food-grade glycol

A forceful attack on a safe whereby a burglar uses tools to cut a hole through the walls or door is known as: a. b. c. d. Drilling Peeling Punching Ripping

What light fixture has the slowest re-strike time making it unfit for use in highsecurity applications? a. b. c. d. High-pressure sodium Low-pressure sodium Metal Halide Mercury vapor

The single most important measure of an AC&D system is: a. The ratio of how many times it provides correct detection of false to nuisance alarms b. How quickly and clearly it communicates alarm data to the operator c. The reliability of the PD value d. All of the above

Rapping is an attack on a padlock that can be best described by: a. Lug pulling with a wrench or pliers b. Tapping the lock rapidly thus causing the pins to jump up inside the cylinder c. A process that involves both drilling and punching the lock to access the internal barrier d. Breaking the combination dial off with a hammer and then defeating the internal barriers with a screwdriver

Knowing the capabilities, intentions and motivations of an adversary is a critical step in: a. b. c. d. Determining PPS design objectives Determining threat definition Sabotage fault tree analysis None of the above

A church has a day care center that looks after children while parents are attending the church service. Concerns of child safety when in the care of others is generally on the rise in society. The church decides to be proactive and install large viewing windows in all the classrooms so that people walking by can see at all times whats going on inside. This has resulted in caretakers knowing they are always being watched and therefore need to be on their best behaviour. What CPTED principle would best describe this? a. b. c. d. Improve scheduling of space Place vulnerable activities in safe areas Design space to increase the perception of natural surveillance Re-designate the use of space to provide natural barriers

Which is not an active barrier? a. b. c. d. Hydraulic bollards Automatic gate Motorized sliding doors None of the above

Assessment has 2 purposes, one is to determine if the alarm is false and the second to: a. b. c. d. Provide specific details of the alarm Tell how many people are possibly involved Tell why the person did it Both a & b

Classification and Identification differ in that classification: a. b. c. d. Identifies specifics of the objects Detects presence of an object Identifies sufficient information about the object by class Provides more specifics than identification

For camera lighting systems, the most important parameters are: a. b. c. d. Minimum intensity and evenness of light Maximum intensity and evenness of light Minimum intensity and colour of light Maximum intensity and foot candles of light

The most efficient type of outdoor light but creates a yellowish colour which make them unusable with colour cameras is: a. b. c. d. Mercury vapor Metal halide Moveable High pressure sodium

Lighting that is used only when an adversary is detected is called: a. b. c. d. Continuous Standby Moveable Emergency

AC&D must communicate three things about an alarm: a. b. c. d. When, what and who Why, what and who How, who and if When, who and how

What do all buried sensors have in common? a. b. c. d. Covert and terrain-following Freeze up in winter making them un-reliable Fail often and require frequent maintenance Utilize pressurized fluid inside a buried line

What covert, terrain-following sensor uses geophones for detection? a. b. c. d. Ported coaxial cable Seismic Fiber Optics None of the above

What sensor is not an interior type sensor? a. b. c. d. Microwave Volumetric LOS Active Infrared

Microwave & Ultrasonic sensors operate on what technology that is activated by a shifting amplitude effect? a. b. c. d. Doppler Electromechanical Radio Frequency PIR

Typically to extinguish a fire, what side(s) of the fire triangle need to be removed? a. b. c. d. Oxygen Heat Fuel Any one of the above

An indoor type sensor that is passive, covert and detects a change in an electrostatic field when someone touches the protected object is called: a. b. c. d. Vibration Electromechanical Sonic None of the above

A well engineered PPS will exhibit the following characteristics that being protection-in-depth, balanced protection and: a. b. c. d. Sensors with a high Pd Detection, delay and response People, procedures and equipment Minimum consequence of component failure

Performance measures of a PPS are: a. b. c. d. Detection, delay and response Quantity of Nuisance Alarms or NAR over a given period of time Based on the amount of breaches in security actually reported Measured by the overall sensitivity or Pd of each sensor

The single most important factor in proper lens selection as it determines the relative magnification of the object: a. b. c. d. Format F-Number Distance and Width Approximation Focal length and field of view

Fires fueled by gasoline, grease oil, or volatile fluids are called: a. b. c. d. Class A Class B Class C Class D

Backscatter X-Ray technology is used primarily for: a. Package and container search b. Explosives vapour detection c. IED detection d. None of the above

Bidders instructions primarily: a. Describes requirements for qualifications for bidders such as licenses they are required to have b. Document security system requirements in sufficient detail c. Specify door hardware and lock schedules to be followed d. Describes submittal format, warranty and notification processes the bidder is to follow

Preventive maintenance is best described as: a. Waiting until something breaks before you fix it b. Taking appropriate action in advance to prevent breakdowns c. Correcting faults and returning the system to operation in event of a hardware or software failure d. None of the above

Reliability testing is: a. Performed at the factory with the customer as a witness before the product is even shipped to or installed on site b. Performed to demonstrate both the hardware & software function properly prior to the consultant or owner giving final acceptance of the system c. Performed after site acceptance testing is all complete, all training is complete and all deficiencies are resolved d. Performed throughout the system installation and then a final test is conducted upon acceptance of the system by the owner or consultant

An RFP is used typically: [need to research this one] Where the customer issues functional requirements of the PPS When the customer has provided a detailed design of what he wants When the customer only wants one bidder to provide a price None of the above

Riser Diagrams are drawings that: Give you an area view of where particular security devices need to be installed Show how devices are to be installed on vertical surfaces such as walls and columns Provide cable terminations or special mounting requirements Show complete security sub-systems, their devices, and how they are connected

The stages of fire occur in the following order: a. b. c. d. Incipient, flame, smoldering, heat Smoldering, incipient, heat, flame Heat, smoldering, flame & Incipient None of the above

CDP (Critical Detection Point) can be defined as: a. The minimum amount of time required for detection of the adversary in order for the response force to have enough time to interrupt b. Is where the minimum delay along the remaining portion of the path just exceeds the guard response time. c. Is the point on the path where the delay time remaining first exceeds the response force time d. All of the above

The four major project stages include Feasibility, Development, Execution and: a. b. c. d. Sign-off Close-out Final Acceptance Evaluation & Lessons learned

Objectives would best be described as: a. High level statements about what the project hopes to achieve b. Concrete statements describing what the project is trying to achieve c. The provision for as many details as possible to inform bidders about what you want them to do d. Statements pertaining to costs, major risks and potential downtime

The bomb threat plan that deals with the prevention and access control to the building is the: a. b. c. d. Physical security plan Bomb incident plan Disaster Recovery Plan None of the above

The type of detector that detects the smoldering stage of a fire is called: a. b. c. d. Infrared Ionization Photoelectric None of the above

The best time to conduct a security survey is: a. b. c. d. After a crisis within the corporation After a breaking and entering or major larceny After a break-in All of the above

Common factors that may affect loss frequency are: a. b. c. d. Access to vulnerable areas Likely hood of natural disasters Both a & b None of the above

A bugging device that can be concealed in a wall plug is called a: a. b. c. d. High-gain audio amplifier Hook & Bypass Device Telephone Analyzer Carrier Current Transmitter

A technique that transforms the telephone into a listening device is known as: a. b. c. d. Line Tapping Hook & Bypass Spoofing None of the above

The type of detector that operates when exposed to invisible products of combustion is called: a. b. c. d. Smoke Infrared Photoelectric Ionization

A device used to determine if audio information is being transmitted over a pair of wires is called a: a. b. c. d. Telephone analyzer High-gain audio amplifier Non-linear junction detector Digital volt-ohm meter

What is the best response to a credible bomb threat? a. b. c. d. Ignore it Open all windows and evacuate immediately Search and evacuate if warranted Wait for Police to arrive and follow their instructions

What should you not do if you find a device that you believe to be a bomb? a. b. c. d. Touch it Use two-way radios Close all windows to contain blast All of the above

What is not true regarding a bomb threat search? a. b. c. d. If lights or circuits are off then leave them off Bombs found in searches are typically near exits Only guard staff or Police should search Searches go on for 20-30 minutes

A PPS should be designed first and foremost to protect against: a. b. c. d. Loss of human life The maximum credible threat What Police say is likely good enough Only what the cost/benefit analysis can reasonably justify

What type of fire extinguisher would be applied to a chemical fire? a. Water b. CO2 c. Dry Chemical d. Both b & c

SMART is an abbreviated term associated with: a. CPTED design b. Sensor selection c. Project Management d. Risk Management

A technique used to quantify & prioritize loss potential showing how the reasons for implementing security measures will provide a good ROI is called: a. Security analysis b. Risk assessment c. Cost/benefit analysis d. EASI

A chain link security fence should be constructed as follows: a. 7 recommended height, 9 gauge or heavier & 4 sq. in. or smaller openings b. 8 recommended height, 10 gauge or heavier & 4 sq. in. or smaller openings c. 7 recommended height, 12 gauge or heavier & 4 sq. in. or smaller openings d. None of the above

Outriggers on a fence should be: a. On a 45 degree angle pointing away from the building b. On a 45 degree angle pointing toward the building c. Pointing either way as it really doesnt matter d. None of the above

Windows require protection if: a. Less than 16 feet from the ground b. Less than 18 feet from the ground c. Less than 14 feet from trees d. Both b & c

Three performance measurements of a sensor is Probability of Detection (Pd), NAR and: a. Installation b. FAR c. Vulnerability to defeat d. None of the above

An active exterior sensor that is both visible and line detection would be: a. Bistatic Microwave b. Ported co-axial cable c. Fence disturbance d. Active Infrared

What is not a tangible asset? a. Jewelery b. Vice-president of sales c. Computer disks d. None of the above

What statement is not true? a. Detection without assessment is not detection b. Detection before delay is not detection c. Detection should be as far from the target as possible and delays near the target d. Detection is best performed by equipment, not people

What statement is not true about insiders: a. Can be active non-violent b. Responsible for the majority of security breaches in both physical and computer security systems c. Security guards are typically trustable d. Have system knowledge that can be used to their advantage

The level of security that would Impede and detect and assess most unauthorized external activities and some internal activities is known as:

a. Level 1 minimum security b. Level 2 low-level security c. Level 3 medium security d. Level 4 High-level security

The possibility of deterring crime or apprehending a criminal may be increased by: a. b. c. d. Use of lighting for observation capabilities Alarms that signal an intrusion Barriers that delay intrusion All of the above

UL2000 is a standard that speaks to: a. New CPTED approaches that must meet with all Building Codes and Standards b. Energy saving monitors & terminals for use in the security industry c. Safety & security personnel working closely together to design systems that will be effective in all circumstances d. None the above

A logic diagram is used to: a. b. c. d. Troubleshoot an electrical circuit Determine root cause of a recent security breach Determine vital areas Both b & c

The type of procurement process that involves only one bidder is called: a. b. c. d. Sole Source RFP Invitation to Bidders Single Bidding

What type of fire extinguisher would be applied to a chemical fire? a. Water b. CO2 c. Dry Chemical d. Both b & c

An Adversary Sequence Diagram: a. Is a flowchart depicting response force effectiveness b. Shows the paths an adversary may take to accomplish sabotage or theft c. Shows the minimum amount of time required for an adversary to reach the target d. None of the above

What type of light fixture that has excellent colour discrimination but would be the worst solution where you would want a fast re-strike time? a. b. c. d. Incandescent Metal Halide Mercury Vapor Low-pressure sodium

To be effective, protective lighting should first of all discourage or deter attempts at entry and the second most important would be: a. b. c. d. Avoid casting annoying or dangerous light into neighboring areas Secure it against attack Make detection likely if entry is attempted Have back-up power supply in event of power failure

An analysis performed on a high-security facility to ensure the effectiveness of the PPS design is referred to as: a. b. c. d. Security Survey Qualitative Analysis Quantitative Analysis Both a & c

A record safe that can protect up to 1,850 DegF has a UL classification of: a. 350-4 b. 350-2 c. 350-1 d. 150-2

Video presence detectors are used to detect covert tampering. They do this by: a. Monitoring the video level and then produce an alarm if the signal increases or decreases in strength b. Detecting when the video sync signal amplitude has been reduced c. Monitoring the signal-to-noise ratio d. Both a & b

The single most important factor in proper lens selection as it determines the relative magnification of the object is: a. Format b. F-Number c. Distance and Width Approximation d. Focal length and field of view