20.

A feather key is one of the following types of

a. sunk b. tapered c. parallel d. tangent

a. sunk

21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and fitting into key ways broached into the mating hub. a. Square Keys b. Splines c. Woodruff keys d. Kennedy Keys

b. Splines

22. A type of square key with bottom two corners beveled is called
a. Flat Key b. Feather Key c. Barth Key d. Woodruff Key

c. Barth Key

23. The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed

a. 600 psi b. 800 psi c. 1000 psi d. 1200 psi

c. 1000 psi

24. The two keys are angularly spaced a. 45 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 75 degrees d. 90 degrees

d. 90 degrees

25. The three keys are angularly spaced

a. 60 degrees b. 90 degrees c. 120 degrees d. 180 degrees

c. 120 degrees

26. The permissible crushing stress is about ____ times the permissible shear stress. a. 1.5 b. 1.7 c. 1.9 d. 1.10

b. 1.7

27. Practical considerations required that the hub length should be at least ___ to obtain a good grip. a. 1.2D b. 1.5D c. 1.7D d. 1.9D

b. 1.5D

28. For three keys, a _____ percent overload often is used.

a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

b. 15

29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one end radial through hole in the other end. a. Clevis pins b. Taper pins c. Dowel pins d. Taper pins

a. Clevis pins

30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar devices onto shafts for light-duty service. a. Clevis pins b. Taper pins c. Dowel pins d. Taper pins

d. Taper pins

31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and mating member is called:
a. Key way b. Key path c. Key hole d. None of these

a. Key way

32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where there is danger of injury to machines or to materials in process. a. Flange Couplings b. Involute serrations c. King pins d. Shear pins

d. Shear pins

33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional forces induced by pulling the flanges toward each other over slotted tapered sleeves known as: a. Flange Couplings b. Flange Compression Couplings c. Rib Compression Couplings d. Rigid Couplings

a.Flange Compression Couplings

34. What is used for absorbing some shock and vibration that may appear on one shaft and of preventing the occurrence of reversed stresses caused by shaft deflecting at the coupling.
a. Flange coupling b. Flexible coupling

c. Rigid coupling d. None of these

b. Flexible coupling

35. For a single Hookes coupling, the shaft angle should not be greater than
a. 10 degrees b. 12 degrees c. 15 degrees d. 30 degrees

c. 15 degrees

36. A universal coupling is a. A rigid coupling b. A type of flange coupling c. Used for collinear shafts d. Use for non-collinear shafts

d. Use for non-collinear shafts

37. A flange coupling is a. flexible b. Used for collinear shafts c. Used for non-collinear shafts d. Used only on small shafts rotating at low speed

b. Used for collinear shafts

39. In flange coupling, the flange bolts are designed for

a. fatigue b. shear forces c. compression d. tensile forces

b. shear forces

40. Which of the following mechanical devices is used for uniting or connecting parts of a mechanical system. a. Coupling b. Keys c. Splines d. Flexible coupling

a. Coupling

41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular flexibility between the input and output of shafts a. Rigid coupling b. Flexible coupling c. Hydraulic coupling d. Oldham coupling

c. Hydraulic coupling

42. Which of the following type of coupling is used with collinear shafts.
a. Collar coupling b. Rigid coupling c. Flexible coupling d. Hydraulic coupling

b. Rigid coupling

43. A type of coupling used to connect shafts that have lateral misalignment
a. b. c. d. Compression coupling Collar coupling Chain coupling Oldham coupling

d. Oldham coupling

44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted members, which are connected by a continuous steel spring, and lies in the slots.
a. Ajax coupling b. Falk coupling c. Lord coupling d. Slip coupling

b. Falk coupling

45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several purposes. The most common purpose of shafting is
a. To provide for the connection of shafts of units that are manufactured separately b. To provide for the misalignment of the shafts c. To reduced the transmission of shock loads from one shaft to another d. All of the above

d. All of the above

46.Typical hub length falls between ____ where D is the shaft diameter.
a. 1.2D and 1.8D b. 1.25D and 2.4D c. 1.30D and 2.5D d. 1.35D and 3.0D

b. 1.25D and 2.4D

47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should be _____ the shaft diameter.
a. b. 1/3 c. d. 3/2

a. 1/4

48. The most common type of sliding action fastener and is used on doors is the a. Pawl fastener b. Magnetic fastener c. Sliding latch d. Screw fastener

c. Sliding latch

49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience has shown that the permissible crushing stress is about __ times the permissible shear stress.
a. 1.3 b. 1.5 c. 1.7 d. 1.9

c. 1.7

50. The mechanical fastening that connects shafts together for power transmission. a. Coupling b. Key c. Splines d. None of the above

a. coupling

ELEMENTS IN MACHINE DESIGN (KINEMATICS) *ME BD. OCT 1999

1. It deals with the motion of bodies without reference to the forces that cause them. a. Kinetics b. Motion c. Kinematics d. Acceleration

c. Kinematics

2. Progressive change in position of a body is called:

a. acceleration b. Motion c. Force d. Momentum

b. Motion

3. Cam in general maybe divided into two classes; uniform motion and ___ motion cam. a. Reverse b. Gravity c. Decelerated d. Accelerated

d. Accelerated

4. Product of mass and linear velocity is known as:

a. Impulse b. Linear momentum c. Angular momentum d. Impact

b. Linear momentum

5. It is the motion of an object diminished/decreased speed.

a. Deceleration b. Retarded motion c. Negative impulse d. All of these

b. Retarded motion

6. It is a property of matter, which cause it to resist any change in its motion or state of rest. a. Brake b. Friction c. Inertia d. Impulse

c. Inertia

7. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during which motion takes place is called: a. Deceleration b. Uniform motion c. Acceleration d. None of these

b. Uniform motion

8. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium means the body cannot
a. Have any type of motion b. Be acted upon by more than one force c. Undergo any displacement d. Have any type of acceleration

a. Have any type of motion

9. It is a science of motion that can solved in terms of scalar or vector algebra. a. Kinematics b. Curvilinear translation c. Projectile d. Acceleration

a. Kinematics

10. An object thrown upward will return to earth the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to a. Zero b. One-half the initial velocity c. Twice the initial velocity d. Initial velocity

d. Initial velocity

11. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane perpendicular to the axis of the rotation of the cam. a. Radial cam b. Cylindrical cam c. Cam curves d. Tangential cam

a. Radial cam

12. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of the rotation. a. Cam curves b. Cylindrical cam c. Tangential cam d. Radial cam

b. Cylindrical cam

13. A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at the large end. a. Cone distance b. Back cone c. Root cone d. Cone center

b. Back cone

14. The ability of moving body to perform work is called:

a. Internal energy b. Potential energy c. Kinetic energy d. Flow work

c. Kinetic energy

15. A slider crank mechanism is made up of:

a. One turning and one sliding pair b. One turning and two sliding pairs c. Two turning and one sliding pair d. Three turning and one sliding pair

d. Three turning and one sliding pair

16. A Scoot-Russell mechanism is made up of:

a. Rotating pair only b. Sliding and turning pairs c. Turning and rotating pairs d. Turning pair only

b. Sliding and turning pairs

17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of:

a. Rotating and sliding pairs b. Rolling pairs c. Sliding and rotating pairs d. Turning pairs

d. Turning pairs

18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of the cam is called: a. Circular cam b. Cylindrical cam c. Reciprocating cam d. Tangential cam

b. Cylindrical cam

19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link of in a four bar mechanism lies on: a. A point obtain by intersection of extending adjoining links b. Left side pivot of this link c. Right side pivot of this link d. Any of the choices above

a. A point obtain by intersection of extending adjoining links

20. A vector quantity that describes both how fast it is moving and the direction in which it is heated. a. Acceleration b. Displacement c. Motion d. Velocity

d. Velocity

21. Which of the following is the rate at which the velocity is changing?
a. Acceleration b. Linear c. Motion d. Vertical

a. Acceleration

22. The direction of the ____ is toward the center of the circle in which the study moves. a. Centripetal acceleration b. Centrifugal acceleration c. Radial cam d. Tangential cam

a. Centripetal acceleration

23. It is a device that changes the magnitude, direction or mode of application of a torque or force while transmitting it for a particular purpose.
a. Frame b. Machine c. Mechanism d. Structure

b. Machine

24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any number of vectors.

a. Scalar quantity b. Vector composition c. Vector quantity d. Vector resolution

b. Vector composition

25. It has magnitude, direction and sense

a. Scalar quantity b. Absolute quantity c. Vector quantity d. Relative velocity

c. Vector quantity

26. A plate cylinder or other solid with a surface of contact so designed as to caused or modify the motion of piece. a. Cam b. Disc c. Gear d. Pulley

a. Cam

27. When the acceleration is zero, the a. Velocity is constant b. Velocity is negative c. Velocity is variable d. Velocity is zero

a. Velocity is constant

28. When the velocity is changing, the acceleration is

a. Constant b. Not constant c. Variable d. Zero

a. Constant

29. Klein's construction is used to determine the

a. Acceleration of various parts b. Angular acceleration of various parts c. Displacement of various parts d. Velocity of various parts

a. Acceleration of various parts

30. Klein's construction can be used as a. Crank has a uniform angular acceleration b. Crank has uniform angular velocity c. Crank has a non uniform angular velocity d. B and C above

d. B and C above

31. The cam angle is a. The angle subtended by live portion of the cam at the cams center b. The angle of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower c. The angle subtended at the cams center by the portion of cam during which the follower moves d. The angle subtended by the cam at the cam center when the follower dwells

b. The angle of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower

32. The pitch point refers to a. Any point on the pitch curve b. A point at a distance equal to pitch circle radius from the center c. The point of cam pitch circle that has the maximum pressure angle d. None of the above

c. The point of cam pitch circle that has the maximum pressure angle

33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism

a. b. c. d. None of the links should be fixed One of the link should be fixed There is no criterion Two links should be fixed

b. One of the link should be fixed

34. Hart mechanism has how many links?

a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

c. 8

35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8

d. 8

36. A cam with a follower would constitute which type of pair?

a. Close pair b. Higher pair c. Lower pair d. Open pair

b. Higher pair

37. Kinematics pair are those pair that have

a. Element of pairs not held together mechanically b. Point or line contact between the elements when in motion c. Surface contact between the two elements in motion d. Two elements that allow relative motion

d. Two elements that allow relative motion

38. A pantograph is a mechanism having

a. b. c. d. Higher pairs Lower pairs Rolling pairs Spherical pairs

b. Lower pairs

39. The number of pantograph is equal to

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

links

in

b. 4

40. In elliptical trammels a. All four pairs are turning b. One pair turning and three pairs sliding c. Three pairs turning and one pair sliding d. Two pairs turning and two pairs sliding

d. Two pairs turning and two pairs sliding

41. The Kleins method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism

a. Enables determination of Coriolis component b. Is a simplified form of instantaneous center method c. Is based on acceleration diagram d. Utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine.

d. Utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine.

42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that changes both in magnitude and direction at any instant, then a. It must have only unidirectional acceleration b. It must have two components of acceleration e.g. centripetal and centrifugal c. It must have three components of acceleration e.g. centripetal, centrifugal and tangential d. It must have three components of acceleration e.g. centripetal, centrifugal and gravitational

b. It must have two components of acceleration e.g. centripetal and centrifugal

43. Select the one that is the higher pair

a. Crosbys indicator mechanism b. Harts straight line mechanism c. Thomson indicator mechanism d. Both gearing mechanism

d. Both gearing mechanism

44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a

a. Cylindrical pair b. Higher pair c. Lower pair d. Sliding pair

c. Lower pair

45. The total number of instantaneous center for a mechanism of N links is equal to a. 2N b. (N-1)(N+1) c. 2N(N-1) d. N(N-1)/2

d. N(N-1)/2

46. A kinematics minimum of

chain

needs

a. 2 links and 2 turning pairs b. 3 links and 3 turning pairs c. 3 links and 2 turning pairs d. 4 links and 4 turning pairs

d. 4 links and 4 turning pairs

47. For kinematics chain formed by lower pair the relation between the number of joint J is given by a. L=2/3(J+2) b. L=3/2(J+2) c. L=2/3(L+2) d. J=3/2(L+2)

a. L=2/3(J+2)

48. In case of an elliptical trammels a. One pair turns and two pairs slide b. Two pairs turns and two pairs slide c. Three pairs turns and one pair slide d. All four pairs turns

b. Two pairs turns and two pairs slide

49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found in

a. A four bar mechanism b. Mechanism of steam engine c. Higher pair d. Whitworth-quick-retuen mechanism

d. Whitworth-quick-retuen mechanism

50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by the action of any external force or load. a. Rigid body b. Structure c. Frame d. Mechanism

a. Rigid body

ELEMENTS IN RIVETS AND WELDED JOINTS

1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual stress in the welding it is normally stress relieved of a. Quenching b. Normalizing c. Tempering d. Drawing

b. Normalizing

2. A type of welding whereby a wire or powder from the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas flame, arc or plasma jet and then molten particles are projected in a form of a spray by means of compressed air or gas is known as
a. Electro-slug building b. Electro-beam welding c. Plasma-arc welding d. Metal spray welding

d. Metal spray welding

3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be taken across the weld with one face substantially parallel to and within a. in. b. 1/32 in. c. in. d. 1/16 in.

c. in.

4. A joint between two overlapping members in whom the overlapped edge of one member is welded with a fillet weld is called: a. A single welded lap joint b. Double welded lap joint c. A single-welded lap joint with backing d. Track weld

a. A single welded lap joint

5. A weld place in a groove between two butting members is called

a. Butt joint b. Tack weld c. Butt weld d. Fillet weld

c. Butt weld

6. A weld of approximately triangular cross-section that join two surfaces at approximately right angles as in lap joint, tee joint, corner joint. a. Single welded lap joint b. Fillet weld c. Tack weld d. Butt weld

b. Fillet weld

7. A fillet whose size is equal to the thickness of the inner joint member is called a. b. c. d. Butt joint Butt weld Tack weld Full-fillet weld

d. Full-fillet weld

8. A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made a. Butt weld b. Tack weld c. Fillet weld d. Full-fillet weld

b. Tack weld

9. Test is designed primarily for application to electric-welded tubing for detection of lack of penetration or overlaps resulting from flash removal in the weld a. Butt weld b. Paste c. Lap weld d. Double butt weld

c. Lap weld

10. The internal stresses existing in a welded connection are

a. Relieved by x-ray analysis b. Maybe relieved when weld is penned c. Not relieved when weld is penned d. Not relieved by heat treatment

c. Not relieved when weld is penned

11. A welding operation in which a nonferrous filler metal melts at a temperature below that of the metal joined but is heated above 450 degrees C
a. Spot welding b. Gas welding c. Brazing d. Arc welding

c. Brazing

12. Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a different metal which is applied between the two in molten state a. Casting b. Welding c. Soldering d. Brazing

c. Soldering

13. Joining metals by means of high current at low voltage. During the passage of current, pressure by the electrodes produces a forge weld
a. Spot welding b. Resistance welding c. Steam welding d. Gas welding

b. Resistance welding

14. A fusion in which the metal is heated together into a solid joint
a. Electric arc welding b. Gas welding c. Spot welding d. Projection welding

a. Electric arc welding

15. As one example, the ASME code for riveted joints permits the design surface compressive stress to be about __ higher than the design tensile stress.
a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70%

c. 60%

16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of the minimum strength of joint to the strength of solid joint is known as a. Efficiency b. Joint efficiency c. Performance factor d. Relative strength

d. Relative strength

17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety maybe taken as

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

d. 5

18. Are resistance welds, usually round in the same form as the electrodes that press the sheets together a. Edge joint b. MIG welds c. Spot welds d. TIG welds

c. Spot welds

19. Consist of short lengths (2 to 3 in. long) of welds with space between as 6 in. on centers a. Intermittent weld b. MIG welds c. Spot welds d. TIG welds

a. Intermittent weld

20. An interment weld, lightly done to hold the members in position for assembly purposes or for principal welding
a. Edge weld b. Tack welds c. Black welds d. Half weld

b. Tack welds

21. A welding operation that uses hot flame and metal rod known as
a. Gas welding b. Arc welding c. Resistance welding d. Automatic welding

a. Gas welding

22. The arc is covered with a welding composition, and bare electrode wire is fed automatically. a. Resistance welding b. Submerged arc welding c. Induction welding d. Spot welding

b. Submerged arc welding

23. Treating the weld as a line, the amount of inertia about center of gravity of a circular weld of diameter d would be
a. b. c. d. (d2)/36 (d2)/6 (d3)/36 (d3)/4

d.

3 (d )/4

24. For butt welding of two plates each of which is 25mm thick, the best process would be a. TIG welding b. MIG welding c. Gas welding d. Electro slag welding

d. Electro slag welding

25. What would be the maximum size of the fillet weld?

a. 2mm b. 3mm c. 5mm d. 7mm

b. 3mm

26. What is the maximum size of the fillet weld that can be made in single pass is a. 3mm b. 6mm c. 8mm d. 12mm

b. 6mm

27. Which diamond riveted can be adopted?

a. Butt joint b. Lap joint c. Double riveted lap joint d. All types of lap joint

a. Butt joint

28. Wiping is the process of a. Applying flux during welding process b. Cleaning the welded surface after the welding operation is over c. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy d. Low temperature welding

c. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy

29. A collimated light beam is used for producing heat in

a. Laser welding b. MIG welding c. Plasma welding d. TIG welding

a. Laser welding

30. During MIG welding, the material is transferred in the form of

a. Fine spray of metal b. Continuous flow of molten metal c. Electron beam d. solution

a. Fine spray of metal

31. If t is thickness of sheet to be spot welded then electrode tip diameter is

a.
b. 1.5
c. 2.5 d. 2

c. 2.5

32.Weld spatter refers to a. Flux b. Filler material c. Welding defect d. Welding electrode

c. Welding defect

33. Which of the following metals can be suitably welded by TIG welding?
a. Aluminum b. Magnesium c. A and B above d. Stainless steel

c. A and B above

34. Arc blow takes place in a. Arc welding when straight polarity is used b. Arc welding when reversed polarity is used c. Gas welding d. Welding stainless steel

d. Welding stainless steel

35. Unlike materials or materials of different thickness can be butt welded by a. Adjusting initial cap b. Adjusting time duration of current c. Control of pressure and current d. All the above

c. Control of pressure and current

36. The phenomenon of weld decay takes place in

a. Brass b. Bronze c. Cast iron d. Stainless steel

d. Stainless steel

37. Laser welding is widely used in a. Electronic industry b. Heavy industry c. Process industry d. Structural work

a. Electronic industry

38. Up to what thickness of plate, edge preparation for welding is not needed?
a. 2mm b. 4mm c. 8mm d. 12mm

b. 4mm

39. Grey cast iron is best welded by a. Arc b. MIG c. Oxy-acetylene d. TIG

c. Oxy-acetylene

40. In resistance welding, the pressure is released

a. Just at the time of passing the current b. After completion of current c. After the weld cools d. During heating

c. After the weld cools

41. Half corner weld is used a. Where severe loading is encountered and the upper surfaces of both pieces must be in the same plane b. Where efficiency of joint should be 50% c. Where longitudinal shear is present d. None of the above

d. None of the above

42. Projection welding is. a. Continuous spot welding process b. Multi spot welding process c. Used to form frameworks d. All of the above

b. Multi spot welding process

43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxyacetylene welding with

a. Excess oxygen b. Excess of acetylene c. Equal parts of both gases d. Reduced acetylene

b. Excess of acetylene

44. Brasses and bronzes are welded using

a. Carburizing flame b. Neutral flame c. Oxidizing flame d. Reducing flame

b. Neutral flame

45. One of the following functions is not performed by coating on the welding electrodes is to: a. Increase the cooling rate b. Provide protective atmosphere c. Refuse oxidation d. Stabilize the arc

a. Increase the cooling rate

46. Welding defect called arc blow occurs in

a. Arc welding using current b. Arc welding using dc current c. Gas welding d. MIG welding

d. MIG welding

47. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to

a. Increase fluidity of solder material b. full up gaps in bad joints c. Prevent oxide formation d. Lower the melting temperature of the solder

a. Increase fluidity of solder material

48. The parts are lapped and held in place under pressure
a. Butt welding b. Spot welding c. Steam welding d. Projection welding

b. Spot welding

49. The parts are brought together lightly with current flowing, and then separated slightly a. Mash weld b. Steam weld c. Flush welding d. Percussion welding

c. Flush welding

50. Which of the following produced a series of spot welds made by circular or wheel type electrodes? a. Steam welding b. Mash welding c. Spot welding d. Projection welding

a. Steam welding