Introduction

• A wide range of functions of x can be expressed as an

infinite series (like the Binomial Expansion)

• These are sometimes called a ‘power series’

• These are used very often as they can allow us to find

values of things such as Sinx or Cosx to whatever degree
of accuracy we want

• Remember that many values of Sin and Cos are irrational

numbers, hence cannot always be calculated exactly

• The series sum idea is possibly what your calculator does

to calculate values such as Sin20 etc…
 Differentiate 𝑓′(𝑥)
ln 𝑓(𝑥)
𝑓(𝑥)

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

𝑓 𝑥 = ln(1 + 𝑥)
You can express many functions of x Differentiate using the rule
as an infinite series in ascending 1 for the natural logarithm
powers of x, by using Maclaurin’s 𝑓′ 𝑥 =
expansion 1+𝑥
Differentiate by power formula
1
Express ln(1 + x) as an infinite series 𝑓 ′′ (𝑥) = − 2
1+𝑥
in ascending powers of x, up to and Differentiate by power formula
including the term in x3 2
𝑓 ′′′ (𝑥) = 3
1+𝑥

Substitute x = 0 into each of these to find the coefficients for the

form above
𝑓 𝑥
𝑓 0 = ln(1 + 0) 𝑓 0 =0
𝑓′′(0) 2
= 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 + 𝑥
2! 𝑓′ 0 =
1
𝑓′ 0 = 1
𝑓′′′(0) 3 1+0
+ 𝑥
3! 1
𝑓 ′′ (0) = − 2
𝑓 ′′ (0) = −1
1+0

2
𝑓 ′′′ (0) = 3 𝑓 ′′′ (0) = 2
1+0
6B
 𝑓′′(0) 2 𝑓′′′(0) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

You can express many functions of x Put these values into Maclaurin’s form above
as an infinite series in ascending
powers of x, by using Maclaurin’s
expansion 𝑓′′(0) 2 𝑓′′′(0) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥
2! 3!
Sub in the values we
Express ln(1 + x) as an infinite series just calculated
in ascending powers of x, up to and 𝑓 𝑥 = (0) + (1)𝑥 +
(−1) 2 (2) 3
𝑥 + 𝑥
including the term in x3 2! 3! Simplify, calculating the
factorials where needed
 Using the form above, you will 1 1 (ie – 2/3! = 2/6 = 1/3)
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 − 𝑥2 + 𝑥3
need to find f(x) (which you’re 2 3
given), f’(x), f’’(x) and f’’’(x)

 Once you have these, you can

substitute x = 0 into all of them to
find the values which need to be
used in the expansion

𝑓 0 =0 𝑓′ 0 = 1

𝑓 ′′ (0) = −1 𝑓 ′′′ (0) = 2

6B
 𝑓′′(0) 2 𝑓′′′(0) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

Find successive differentials of f(x), and substitute x = 0 into each
You can express many functions of x
as an infinite series in ascending 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑓 0 =0
powers of x, by using Maclaurin’s
expansion 𝑓′ 𝑥 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑓′ 0 = 1

Find the Maclaurin expansion for sinx, 𝑓 ′′ (𝑥) = −𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑓 ′′ (0) = 0

up to the term in x5. Then use your
expansion to find an approximation for 𝑓 ′′′ (𝑥) = −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑓 ′′′ 0 = −1
sin10˚.
𝑓 ′′′′ (𝑥) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑓 ′′′′ (0) = 0
 As on the previous example, you
need to find the differentials of 𝑓 ′′′′′ (𝑥) = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑓 ′′′′′ (0) = 1
f(x), up to f’’’’’(x).
Now sub these into Maclaurin’s expansion

 Then you need to substitute x = 0

into these to find the values to 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 +
𝑓′′(0) 2 𝑓′′′(0) 3 𝑓′′′′(0) 4 𝑓′′′′(0) 5
𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥
use in the expansion above. 2! 3! 4! 5!

1 3 1 5 0 2 −1 3 (0) 4 (1) 5
𝑓 𝑥 =𝑥− 𝑥 + 𝑥 𝑓 𝑥 = 0 + 1 𝑥+ 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥
3! 5! 2! 3! 4! 5!

1 3 1 5
𝑓 𝑥 =𝑥− 𝑥 + 𝑥
3! 5!
6B
 𝑓′′(0) 2 𝑓′′′(0) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

The angle MUST be in radians for this process to work…
You can express many functions of x
as an infinite series in ascending
 10˚ = π/18 radians
powers of x, by using Maclaurin’s
expansion
(since 180˚ = π)

Find the Maclaurin expansion for sinx,

1 3 1 5
up to the term in x5. Then use your 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 = 𝑥 − 𝑥 + 𝑥
expansion to find an approximation for 3! 5!
Sub in x = π/18
sin10˚. 𝜋 𝜋 1 𝜋 3 1 𝜋 5
𝑠𝑖𝑛 = − +
18 18 3! 18 5! 18
 As on the previous example, you Calculate
need to find the differentials of = 0.173648127864 …
f(x), up to f’’’’’(x).

 Then you need to substitute x = 0

into these to find the values to
use in the expansion above.
1 3 1 5
𝑓 𝑥 =𝑥− 𝑥 + 𝑥
3! 5!

6B
 Maclaurin and Taylor Series
You can find an approximation to a
function of x close to x = a, where
a ≠ 0, using Taylor’s expansion of
the function

 The Maclaurin expansion is very

effective and relatively
straightforward to use, but as
you’ve seen, it has some
limitations

The idea of the Taylor Series came from the

 Some functions, such as e√x and
Scottish mathematician James Gregory, but was
lnx cannot be expanded
formally introduced later by the English
mathematician Brook Taylor
 In addition to this, you have seen
that the expansion focuses of
values of x that are equal to or
very close to 0

 We can use Taylor’s expansion in

a wider range of cases
6D
 𝑓′′(0) 2 𝑓′′′(0) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

You can find an approximation to a 𝑔 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑓(𝑥)
If these are equal,
function of x close to x = a, where the differentials
a ≠ 0, using Taylor’s expansion of will be as well
𝑔𝑟 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑓 𝑟 (𝑥)
the function
𝑟 = 1,2,3 𝑒𝑡𝑐 Let x = 0
Imagine we have two functions, f and
g, linked as shown to the right. 𝑔𝑟 𝑎 = 𝑓 𝑟 (0)

What this means is:

 Note that we are using g here,
but Taylor’s expansion will be in  If we write our function f(x) as g(x + a) instead
terms of f, same as Maclaurin’s
 We have to change all the fr(0) terms to gr(a) terms (so all
the differentials change as r can take any integer value)

This is one form of 𝑓′′(0) 2 𝑓′′′(0) 3

Taylor’s expansion 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3! Replace ‘x’ with
‘x + a’, and all
𝑔′′(𝑎) 2 𝑔′′′(𝑎) 3 fr(0) with gr(a)
𝑔 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑔 𝑎 + 𝑔′ 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3!

6D
 Maclaurin and Taylor Series
𝑓′′(𝑎) 2 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 3
You can find an approximation to a 𝑓 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓′ 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
function of x close to x = a, where 2! 3!
a ≠ 0, using Taylor’s expansion of
Replace all ‘x’ terms
the function
with ‘x – a’ terms

You can also change the Taylor

expansion into a slightly different 𝑓′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′′(𝑎)
form… 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓 ′ 𝑎 (𝑥 − 𝑎) + (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)3 …
2! 3!

Both these forms can be used under different

circumstances as Taylor expansions

 You will need to decide which to use based on

the question!

6D
 𝑓′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′(𝑎) 2 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓 ′ 𝑎 (𝑥 − 𝑎) + (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)3 … 𝑓 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓′ 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3! 2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

You can find an approximation to a You need to find successive differentials up to f’’’(x)
function of x close to x = a, where
a ≠ 0, using Taylor’s expansion of  The substitute ‘a’ into these (instead of 0 as you would
the function have done with the Maclaurin expansion)

 The value ‘a’ will be -4 (compare the form of the

Find the Taylor expansion of e-x in
expansion with the bracket!)
powers of (x + 4) up to and including
the terms in (x + 4)3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓 −4 = 𝑒 4
 First you need to decide which
form to use… 𝑓′ 𝑥 = −𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓′ −4 = −𝑒 4

 As you are asked for the

𝑓′′ 𝑥 = 𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓′′ −4 = 𝑒 4
expansion using powers of a
bracket (x + 4), you should use
the form to the left at the top of 𝑓′′′ 𝑥 = −𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓′′′ −4 = −𝑒 4
the screen

 From here you effectively work Now we can substitute these values into the
through in a similar way as for Taylor expansion form…
the Maclaurin expansion

6D
 𝑓′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′(𝑎) 2 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓 ′ 𝑎 (𝑥 − 𝑎) + (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)3 … 𝑓 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓′ 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3! 2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

You can find an approximation to a 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓 −4 = 𝑒 4
function of x close to x = a, where
a ≠ 0, using Taylor’s expansion of 𝑓′ 𝑥 = −𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓′ −4 = −𝑒 4
the function

𝑓′′ 𝑥 = 𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓′′ −4 = 𝑒 4
Find the Taylor expansion of e-x
in
powers of (x + 4) up to and including
the terms in (x + 4)3 𝑓′′′ 𝑥 = −𝑒 −𝑥 𝑓′′′ −4 = −𝑒 4

 First you need to decide which Now we can substitute these values into the
form to use… Taylor expansion form…

𝑓′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′′(𝑎)
 From here you effectively work 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓 ′ 𝑎 (𝑥 − 𝑎) + (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)3 Sub in the
2! 3!
through in a similar way as for values for a,
the Maclaurin expansion as well as the
𝑒4 𝑒4
𝑒 −𝑥 = 𝑒 4 − 𝑒 4 𝑥 + 4 + 𝑥+4 2
− (𝑥 + 4)3 differentials
2 6
You can factorise
this expansion
1 1
𝑒 −𝑥 = 𝑒 4 1 − 𝑥 + 4 + 𝑥+4 2
+ (𝑥 + 4)3
2 6

6D
 𝑓′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′(𝑎) 2 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓 ′ 𝑎 (𝑥 − 𝑎) + (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)3 … 𝑓 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓′ 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3! 2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

𝜋 1
You can find an approximation to a 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑓
6
=
2
function of x close to x = a, where
a ≠ 0, using Taylor’s expansion of 𝑓′
𝜋
=
3
𝑓′ 𝑥 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
the function 6 2
𝜋 1
𝑓 ′′ (𝑥) = −𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑓 ′′ =−
Show that the Taylor expansion of 6 2
sinx in ascending powers of (x – π/6)
up to the term in (x – π/6)2 is:
𝑓′′(𝑎)
1 3 𝜋 1 𝜋 2 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓 ′ 𝑎 (𝑥 − 𝑎) + (𝑥 − 𝑎)2
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = + 𝑥− − 𝑥− 2!
2 2 6 4 6 Sub in the
values we have
1 calculated
Then use the series to find an 1 3 𝜋 − 𝜋 2
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = + 𝑥− + 2 𝑥−
approximation for sin40, in terms of 2 2 6 2 6
π. Simplify where
possible
1 3 𝜋 1 𝜋 2
 Based on the question, we should 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = + 𝑥− − 𝑥−
2 2 6 4 6
use the form to the left at the
top…

 Find the differentials we need

and substitute π/6 into them
6D
 𝑓′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 𝑓′′(𝑎) 2 𝑓′′′(𝑎) 3
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓 ′ 𝑎 (𝑥 − 𝑎) + (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)3 … 𝑓 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 𝑓 𝑎 + 𝑓′ 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 …
2! 3! 2! 3!

Maclaurin and Taylor Series

You can find an approximation to a The angle MUST be in radians for this process to work…
function of x close to x = a, where
a ≠ 0, using Taylor’s expansion of  40º = 2π/9 radians
the function

Show that the Taylor expansion of

sinx in ascending powers of (x – π/6) 1 3 𝜋 1 𝜋 2
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = + 𝑥− − 𝑥−
up to the term in (x – π/6)2 is: 2 2 6 4 6
Sub in x = 2π/
9
1 3 𝜋 1 𝜋 2 2
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = + 𝑥− − 𝑥− 1 3 2𝜋 𝜋 1 2𝜋 𝜋
2 2 6 4 6 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = + − − −
2 2 9 6 4 9 6
Calculate the
Then use the series to find an 2 bracket parts
1 3 𝜋 1 𝜋
approximation for sin40, in terms of 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = + −
π. 2 2 18 4 18
Simplify
1 𝜋 3 𝜋2
 Based on the question, we should 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = +
2 36
−
1296
use the form to the left at the
top…

 Find the differentials we need

and substitute π/6 into them
6D
 Summary
• You have learnt the forms of the
Maclaurin and Taylor series

• You have seen how they create an

infinite sequence that can converge to a
function.