Nice to Know

Questions
 Clinical Microscopy
Which of the following is more numerous
in bronchial washing?
A. Macrophages
B. Neutrophils
C. Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial
cells
D. Lymphocytes
 Clinical Microscopy

Ciliated columnar bronchial

epithelial cells are more numerous
in bronchial wash specimens than in
BAL because of more vigorous
washing technique” (Strasinger, 6th
Ed. p. 294)
 Clinical Microscopy
Hartnup’s Disease is sometimes
referred to as the:
A. Orange sand in diapers
B. Red Diaper Syndrome
C. Blue Diaper Syndrome
D. Sulfur odor of urine
 Clinical Microscopy
“Hartnup disease is sometimes made when a
mother reports a blue staining of her infant’s
diapers, referred to as Blue Diaper
Syndrome”. (Strasinger, 6th Ed. p. 168)
 Clinical Microscopy
Desired fluid volume for BAL analysis:
A. 30 mL
B. 100-300 mL
C. 10-20 mL
D. Few to 50 mL
 Clinical Microscopy
“The desired volume for analysis of
BAL is 10-20 mL (minimum of 5
th
mL)” (Strasinger, 6 Ed. p.293)
 Clinical Microscopy
Which of the following immunologic
marker is associated to renal stone
disease?
A. IL- 2
B. CD 6
C. IL – 6
D. IL - 12
 Clinical Microscopy
IL-6 is associated to stone disease.
(Henry 21st Ed.)
 Clinical Microscopy
Which of these structures is highly
suggestive of cholelithiasis in biliary tract
if found in the duodenal bile?
A. Uric Acid
B. Bile sand
C. Bilirubinate crystal
D. Cholesterol crystal
 Clinical Microscopy
The finding of bile sand is highly
suggestive of cholelithiasis and
calculus elsewhere in the biliary
tract. (Henry, 17th Ed.)
 Clinical Microscopy
In semen analysis, what are round
cells?
A. Immature sperm and leukocytes
B. Circular sperm
C. Perinuclear halo within the sperm
D. Incomplete penetration of an egg
cell
 Clinical Microscopy
Round cells are immature sperm and
leukocytes. (Strasinger, 6th Ed. p. 210)
 Clinical Microscopy
A doughnut shape RBC w/ one or more
membrane bleb which is more specific
for diagnosing glomerular hematuria.
A. Dysmorphic cells
B. Shadow cells
C. G1 Cells
D. Morulla Cells
 Clinical Microscopy

G1 cells are doughnut shape

RBC w/ one or more membrane
bleb which is more specific for
diagnosing glomerular
hematuria (Henry 21st Ed., p.
410)
 Clinical Microscopy
Which of the following exhibit maltese-cross
formation?
1. B. microti
2. Starch granules
3. Oval Fat Bodies
4. Cholesterol
A. 1 & 2
B. 2, 3 & 4
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
 Clinical Microscopy

BOCS – maltese-cross
formation
Babesia microti
Oval Fat Bodies
Cholesterol crytsals
Strach granules
 Clinical Microscopy

PSEUDO
MALTESE-CROSS
crystal –

LEUCINE
They are birefringent with polarized light, with a
pseudo maltese cross pattern.
(http://www.cap.org/apps/docs/committees/hema
tology/microscopy_discussion_2007_cmb.pdf)
 Clinical Microscopy

In a 24-hr sample for 5-HIAA assay,

what preservative should be used?
A. Thimerosal
B Formalin
C. Boric acid or HCl
D. NaHCO3 & Ether
 Clinical Microscopy

In a 24-hr sample for 5-

HIAA assay, boric acid or
HCl should be used as
preservatives. (Strasinger,
6th Ed. p. 169)
 Clinical Microscopy

What is the recommended method

for detecting septic meningitis?
A. Gram Stain
B. Culture
C. AFB
D. AOTA
 Clinical Microscopy

Gram Stain is still the

recommended method
for detecting septic
meningitis. (Strasinger,
6th Ed. p. 197)
 Clinical Microscopy

In a yellow-green frothy adherent vaginal

discharge, a non-motile Trichomonas can
be commonly mistaken as?
A. Clue cells
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Chilomastix mesnili
D. WBC
 Clinical Microscopy

A non-motile Trichomonas
can be mistaken as a WBC
(Strasinger, 6th. Ed. p. 274)
 Clinical Microscopy

The pathognomic cells found in

vaginal discharge of patients with
Bacterial vaginosis are?
A. Shaggy cells
B. Shadow cells
C. Parabasal cells
D. Mystery cells
 Clinical Microscopy

Clue cells are granular,

irregular in apperance and
sometimes described as
shaggy. (Strasinger, 6th. Ed.
p.273)
 Clinical Microscopy

What is added in a vaginal fluid on a

KOH preparation to prevent
specimen deterioration?
A. Acetic acid
B. 10% glycerin
C. Mineral Oil
D. Egg Albumin
 Clinical Microscopy

10% glycerin is added after

KOH preparation of vaignal
fluid to prevent
deterioation of specimen.
(Strasinger, 6th. Ed. p. 276)
 Clinical Microscopy

For the diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis,

what standard must be met according to
Amsel's Diagnostic Criteria?
A. At least 2 out of 5 features
B. At least 2 out of 4 features
C. At least 3 out of 4 features
D. At least 1 out of 4 features
 Clinical Microscopy

Three of the ff. four features must

be present for the diagnosis of BV. 1.
Thin, white, homogenous discharge
2. Vaginal fluid greater than 4.5 3.
Positive amine (whiff test) 4.
Presence of clue cells on microscopic
exam (Strasinger, 6th. Ed. p. 278)
 Clinical Microscopy

Minimal change disease is

associated to what HLA marker?
A. HLA-B8
B. HLA-B26
C. HLA-DR4
D. HLA-B12
 Clinical Microscopy

Although the etiology is unknown

at this time, allergic reactions,
recent immunization, and
possession of the HLA B-12
antigen have been associated
with MCD. (Strasinger, 6th Ed.)
 Clinical Microscopy

This cast may be present in

somewhat large numbers in the
urine of normal newborns?
A. RTE cells
B. Fatty Casts
C. Transitional Cells
D. Neocyte Cast
 Clinical Microscopy

RTE cells may be present in

somewhat large numbers
in the urine of normal
newborns(Henry, 21st Ed.
p. 411)
 Clinical Microscopy

Also known as "brick dust":

A. Calcium phosphate
B. Uric Acid
C. Amorphous Urate
D. Calcium Oxalate
 Clinical Microscopy

When large amounts are present,

the urine sediment may appear pink-
orange to reddish brown on
macroscopic exam; the appearance
of amorphous urates has been
referred to as "brick dust" (Henry,
21st Ed. p. 415)
 Clinical Microscopy

What crystal is characterized by fine silky

needles that may be arranged in sheaves or
clumps, especially after refrigeration and
appears black as the microscope is focused?
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Leucine
C. Tyrosine
D. Ammonium biurate
 Clinical Microscopy

Tyrosine may be colorless

or yellow, appearing
black as microscope is
focused. (Henry, 21st Ed.
p. 417)
 Clinical Microscopy

Which of the following renal stones can form a

1-2 mm mustard-colored stones, giving a
bright blue fluoresence when dissolved in
butanol and with exposure to UV light?
A. Triamterene
B. Calcium
C. Phosphate
D. Calcium Oxalate
 Clinical Microscopy

Triamterene (Dyazide,Dyrenium) can

form a 1-2 mm mustard-colored
stones, giving a bright blue
fluoresence when dissolved in
butanol and with exposure to UV
light. (Henry, 21st Ed. p. 422)
 Clinical Microscopy
Confirmatory tests for Alkaptonuria:
1. Ferric Chloride
2. Silver nitrate
3. Paper or Thin Layer Chromatography
4. Capillary electrophoresis
A. 1 & 2
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 3 & 4
 Clinical Microscopy

Confirmatory tests include

Paper or Thin Layer
Chromatography and Capillary
electrophoresis for
alkaptonuria. (Henry, 21st Ed.
p. 423)
 Clinical Microscopy

This substance is elevated in ureter stones,

infection, prostate and bladder cancer but a
considered as a nonspecific marker for
inflammation or tumor:
A. NMP-22
B. PSA
C. BFP
D. Fibronectin
 Clinical Microscopy

Urinary basic fetoprotein (BFP) can be

measured by latex agglutination
nephelometric immunoassay . This
substance is elevated in ureter stones,
infection, prostate and bladder cancer
but a considered as a nonspecific marker
for inflammation or tumor. (Henry, 21st Ed.
p. 424)
 Clinical Microscopy

Patients taking L-dopa may have

a urine of what color?
A. Yellow orange
B. Cola color
C. Greenish-brown
D. Burgundy
 Clinical Microscopy

Cola-colored urine seen in

patients with
Rhabdomyolysis or
patients taking L-dopa
(Henry, 21st Ed. p. 394)
 Clinical Microscopy

What is the most common cause of

Nephrotic Syndrome in children?
A. Nil lesion
B. Eating a high fat diet
C. Tangier's disease
D. Fanconi's Syndrome
 Clinical Microscopy

The most common cause of

Nephrotic Syndrome in children is
Minimal Change Disease (Nil
lesion is also known as Minimal
Change Disease) (Henry, 21st Ed.
p. 399)
 Clinical Microscopy

What urine sediment can be a reliable

criteria for detecting acute allograft
rejection after the third postoperative
day?
A. Granular Cast
B. Broad Cast
C . RTE cells
D. Waxy Cast
 Clinical Microscopy

In transplant units, these RTE

cells contistitute one of the
more reliable criteria for
detecting acute allograft rejection
after the third postoperative day.
(Henry, 21st Ed. p. 414)
 Clinical Microscopy

In the urine of patients with Hemolytic Uremic

Syndrome, what sediment were observed as
up to 30,000/uL have been demonstrated by
phase contrast microscopy and confirmed by
electron microscopy?
A. RBC
B. Platelets
C. Tumor cells
D. Bacteria (E.coli O157:H7)
 Clinical Microscopy

Platelets were seen up to

30,000/uL which have been
demonstrated by phase contrast
microscopy and confirmed by
electron microscopy. It was seen
in patients with HUS. (Henry, 21st
Ed. p. 418)
 Clinical Microscopy

Staghorn renal calculi:

A. Calcium Oxalate
B. Urate
C. Cysteine
D. Struvite
 Clinical Microscopy

Struvite stones may become

large, forming cast of the
kidney pelvis and show
staghorns. (Henry, 21st Ed.
p. 420)
 Clinical Microscopy

In alleged rape cases, what can be used

to enhance the specimen and be checked
under phase-contrast microscope?
A. Xylene
B. Pap's Stain
C. Carbowax
D. Ether
 Clinical Microscopy

Xylene is used to enhance

the specimen and be
checked under phase-
contrast microscope
(Strasinger 6th Ed. p. 212)
 Clinical Microscopy

Motile sperm can be detected for up to

___ hours after intercourse, whereas
nonmotile sperm can persist for ____
respectively.
A. 24 hours, 3 days
B. 3 days, 24 hours
C. 1 day, 7 days
D. 7 days, 72 hours
 Clinical Microscopy

Motile sperm can be detected

for up to 24 hours after
intercourse, whereas
nonmotile sperm can persist
for 3 days, respectively.
(Strasinger 6th Ed. p. 212)
 Clinical Microscopy

What is the CD4/CD8 ratio in BAL in

cases of Tuberculosis & Malignancy?
A. Increased
B. Normal
C. Decreased
D. Depends on how it is tested
 Clinical Microscopy

In cases of TB &
Malignancies, CD4/CD8
ratio is normal in BAL.
(Strasinger 6th Ed. p. 294)
 Clinical Microscopy

An orange-red BAL is indicative of:

A. Acute Diffuse Alveolar
Hemorrhage
B. Older Hemorrhagic Syndrome
C. Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis
D. AOTA
 Clinical Microscopy

An orange-red BAL is
indicative of Older
Hemorrhagic Syndrome.
(Strasinger 6th Ed. p. 211)
 Clinical Microscopy

A foul or putrid odor gastric fluid

is indicative of:
A. Gastrocolic fistula
B. Alcoholic coma
C. Carcinomatous ulcer
D. Biliary Stenosis
 Clinical Microscopy

The most important electrolyte

tested in a duodenal content:
A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Bicarbonate
D. HCl
 Clinical Microscopy

The most important

electrolyte tested in a
duodenal content is
bicarbonate. (Henry, 17th
Ed.)
 Clinical Microscopy

In urine, what are shadow cells?

A. A red cell where hemoglobin dissolved
out
B. A red cell releasing hemoglobin and
leaves only empty cell membrane
C. Cells with refractile granules
D. A cast with no intracellular component
 Clinical Microscopy

These erythrocytes may

appear as faint, colorless
circles or shadow cells
because hemoglobin may
dissolve out. (Henry, 21st Ed.,
p. 410)
 BLOOD
BANKING
 Blood Banking
Name of the laboratory where Raph
antibody was produced:
A. Mayo Clinic
B. George Town
C. AABB
D. Eleanor Roosevelt
 Blood Banking
“The antigen name is derived from
monoclonal, and Eleanor
Rooselvelt, the laboratory where
the antibody was produced.”
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 207)
 Blood Banking
Who was believed to pioneer the pheresis
technology in 1940?
A. Dr. Emil von Behring
B. Dr. Edwin Cohn
C. Freirich
D. Fisher & Conn
 Blood Banking
Dr. Edwin Cohn (Harmening 6th Ed.)

*Freirich performed the first leukapheresis in patient with CML on

1966.
*Schwab and Fahey performed plasmapheresis on patient with
Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia on 1960.
*MD Andersen performed the first peripheral blood stem cell
collection.
(*http://www.transfusionmedicine.ca/sites/transfusionmedicine/files/
events/Apheresis%20Principles%20(April%209,%202013)_0.pdf)
 Blood Banking
All are destroyed by enzymes except:
1. Fya
2. Fyb
3
3. Fy
4. MNS
A. 1, 2 & 4
B. 1, 2, 3 & 4
C. 3 only
D. NOTA
 Blood Banking

a b 3
Unlike Fy & Fy , the Fy
antigen is not destroyed
by enzymes.
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
197)
 Blood Banking

5
Anti-Fy was discovered in serum of
an Fy(a-b-) black child who later died
of what disease?
A. Fever
B. Leukemia
C. Anemia
D. Pneumonia
 Blood Banking

5
Anti-Fy was discovered in
serum of an Fy(a-b-) black
child who later died of
Leukemia. (Harmening, 6th
Ed. p. 197)
 Blood Banking

Erythroid Kruppel-like Factor was

shown to be associated with what
phenotype?
A. In(Lu)
B. Yus
C. Gerbich
D. Sciana
 Blood Banking

Mutations in the gene for

Erythroid Kruppel-like Factor (EKLF),
a transcription factor, were shown to
be associated with the In(Lu)
phenotype in 21 of 24 In(Lu)
individuals (Inhibitor of Lutheran)
studied. (Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 201)
 Blood Banking

Diego system was named after the

first antibody maker in a family
from?
A. Brazil
B. Mexico
C. Venezuela
D. Guatemala
 Blood Banking

"This system (Diego) was named

after the first antibody maker
in a Venezuelan family during
an investigation of HDFN."
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 202)
 Blood Banking

The Xg antigen was named after the X

chromosome and g for ____ where the
patient was treated.
A. Georgia
B. Greece
C. Germany
D. Grand Rapids
 Blood Banking

The Xg antigen was named

after the X chromosome and g
for Grand Rapids where the
patient was treated(Harmening,
6th Ed. p. 203)
 Blood Banking

ERMAP/Erythroid Membrane
Associated Protein is associated to
what system?
A. Colton
B. Scianna
C. Diego
D. Dombrock
 Blood Banking

ERMAP is a product of SC
(Scianna) gene located
on chromosome 1
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
204)
 Blood Banking

Most common antibody in

Gerbich:
2
A. Anti-Ge
1
B. Anti-Ge
4
C. Anti-Ge
3
D. Anti-Ge
 Blood Banking

2
Anti-Ge is the most
common antibody in
Gerbich. (Harmening,
6th Ed. p. 205)
 Blood Banking

In Ok System, Anti-Oka was named after

the first antibody maker named:
A. From a person in Oklahoma
B. Mrs. Okatawa
C. Mrs. Kobutso
D. From a Japanese woman named Mrs.
Kosawa who's child died because of HDN.
 Blood Banking

a
Anti-Ok was identified in
1970 and was named after
the antibody maker, Mrs.
Kobutso. Harmening, 6th
Ed. p. 206)
 Blood Banking

Gill Antigen is found in:

A. Glycerol Transporter
Aquaporin 3 (AQP 3)
B. Aquaporin 1
C. CD108
D. Complement Receptor 1
 Blood Banking

Glycerol Transporter Aquaporin

3 (AQP 3), a member of the
major intrinsic protein of water
channels where Gill antigen can
be found. (Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
207)
 Blood Banking

At(a-) is:
A. Common in blacks
B. At for Atlanta
C. At for Atypical antibody
D. NOTA
 Blood Banking

a
Anti-At was first described in
1967 in the serum of a black
woman named Mrs. Augustine.
Ata is a high prevalence antigen
and all At(a-) individuals have
been black. (Harmening, 6th Ed.
p. 208)
 Blood Banking

a
The soluble form of Sd found in
urine is:
A. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
B. WBC
C. RBC
D. Epithelial cells
 Blood Banking

a
The soluble form of Sd
found in urine is Tamm-
Horsfall Protein.
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 208)
 Blood Banking

Helgeson phenotype:
A. Knops null
B. Gerbich null
C. Cellano null
D. LW null
 Blood Banking

The Helgeson phenotype

represents the serologic null
phenotype for the Knops
blood group; Kn(a-b-), McC(a-
), Sl(a-), Yk(a-). (Harmening,
6th Ed. p. 207)
 Blood Banking

The null phenotype LW(a-b-) was

found in one individual who made
anti-LWab named:
A. Mr. Large
B. Mrs. Big
C. Mrs. Aborigen
D. Mr. Landsweiner
 Blood Banking

The null phenotype LW(a-b-)

was found in one individual
who made anti-LWab
named Mrs. Big.
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 205)
 Blood Banking

Which of the following is implicated with

shortened survival of transfused cells and
post-transfusion jaundice?
a
A. Anti-Lu
b
B. Anti-Lu
C. Anti-PP1Pk
D. Anti-P
 Blood Banking

b
Anti-Lu has been
implicated with shortened
survival of transfused cells
and post-transfusion
jaundice. (Harmening, 6th Ed.
p. 200)
 Blood Banking

Acquired K-like antigen is associated

to what type of infection?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus faecium
C. Streptococcus pnemoniae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
 Blood Banking

McGinnis and coworkers,

desxribed a K- patient who
acquired a K-like antigen
during a Streptococcus
faecium infection.
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 195)
 Blood Banking

The IgM Anti-K in an untransfused 20-day

old infant was studied where the mother
did not make anti-K and who's infant has
infection with:
A. E. coli O157:H7
B. E. coli O125:B15
C. E. coli O86
D. S. agalactiae
 Blood Banking

The IgM Anti-K in an

untransfused 20-day old infant
infected with E. coli O125:B15
was studied where the mother
did not make anti-K. (Harmening,
6th Ed. p. 193)
 Blood Banking

Which of the following has been

described as having a "notorious
reputation" in blood bank?
A. Duffy
B. Kidd
C. Lewis
D. Kell
 Blood Banking

Kidd was described as

having a "notorious
reputation" in blood
bank. (Harmening, 6th Ed.
p. 198)
 Blood Banking

What is now considered as the

leading cause of Transfusion-
associated fatalities?
A. Bacterial contamination
B. ABO incompatibility
C. HDN
D. TRALI
 Blood Banking

TRALI is now considered as the

leading cause of Transfusion-
associated fatalities. Surpassing
ABO incompatibility and bacterial
contamination. (Harmening, 6th
Ed. p. 376)
 Blood Banking

Each unit of RBC contains how

many mg of Iron?
A. 80
B. 150
C. 250
D. 450
 Blood Banking

Each unit of RBC

contains approximately
250 mg of iron
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
383)
 Blood Banking

The first marker to appear which can be

detected by PCR before the Australia
antigen reaches detectable levels is:
A. HBsAg
B. HBV RNA
C. HBV Transcriptase
D. HBV DNA
 Blood Banking

HBV DNA. The first

marker to appear which
can be detected by PCR
before HBsAg reaches
detectable levels.
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 407)
 Blood Banking

Most specific test for athropod-

borne Flaviviruses:
A. Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
B. PCR
C. Plaque Reduction Neutralization
Test
D. Immunochromatography
 Blood Banking

Most specific test for

arthropod-borne
Flaviviruses is the Plaque
Reduction Neutralization
Test. (Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
415)
 Blood Banking

Which of the following component

was implicated in some studies
transmissing Parvovirus B-19?
A. Antithrombin III concentrate
B. Granulocyte concentrate
C. Leuko-reduced
D. Cryoprecipitate
 Blood Banking

Because of lack of inactivation in

the manufacturing process, B19 has
been implicated in several studies,
w/ transmission through factor
concentrates and in one study
through an antithrombin III
concentrate. (Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
415)
 Blood Banking

This common isolate of skin, was the

most common bacterial contaminant
in RBCs.
A. Bacillus
B. Yersinia
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Propionebacterium acnes
 Blood Banking

"Study by Kunishima, Propionebacterium

acnes , was the most common bacterial
contaminant in RBCs (Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
417)
*Staphylococcus epidermidis and Bacillus cereus
are the organisms most frequently recovered
from donated blood and contamination of
platelets.
 Blood Banking

The AABB Transfusion Transmitted

Disease Committe (TTD) has described
Babesiosis in what category?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Blue
 Blood Banking

The AABB Transfusion Transmitted

Disease Committe (TTD) has
described Babesiosis in red agent
category. (Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 418)
*Orange for T. cruzi (Harmening, 6th Ed.
p. 419)
 Blood Banking

What is the color of an

autologous blood unit label and
tag?
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Pink
 Blood Banking

The color of an
autologous blood unit
label and tag is green.
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p. 303)
 Blood Banking

Size of a 6 microtube gel card:

A. 2 x 8 cm
B. 5 x 7 cm
C. 4 x 6 cm
D. 3 x 6 cm
 Blood Banking

The gel card measures

5 x 7 cm with a 6
microtubes.
(Harmening, 6th Ed. p.
274)
 IS/BB

In latex particle agglutination for

detecting Candida infection, the clinically
significant antibody titer is at :
A. >1:8
B. >1:32
C. >1:164
D. >1:64
 Blood Banking

All fungal infections except

Candida infections (1:8) have
clinically significant antibodies
at 1:32 titer (Mam Leah's
notes :) )
 IS/BB

Type of microscopy used in

Lymphocytotoxicity Testing:
A. Fluorescence Microscopy
B. Inverted Phase Contrast
C. Compensated Polarizing Microscopy
D. Electron Microscopy
 IS/BB

Inverted Phase Contrast

Microscope is used in
Lymphocytotoxicity Testing.
(Turgeon/Mam Leah's
Notes)
 Blood Banking
*DESTROYED by
Enzymes *ENHANCED by Enzymes:
Duffy (Except Fy3) KiRLIP
M,N,S Kidd
Xg Rh
Yt Lewis
Ch/Rg I
P
 Blood Banking

WARM-Reacting COLD-Reacting
Antibodies (IgG): Antibodies (IgM):
(RKeDuKS/RKDKS) (LIPMAN)
Rh Lewis
Kell I
Duffy P
Kidd M
S ABH
N
 Blood Banking

Shows dosage:

DR.KIM
Duffy, Rh, Kidd, I & M
HEMATOLOGY
 Hematology

In Rumpel-Leedes Test, 10-20

petechiae is graded as?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+
 Hematology

1+ = 0-10
2+ = 10-20
3+ = 20-50
4+ = > 50
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

Length of plain capillary tube:

A. 75 cm
B. 6-6.5 mm
C. 75 mm
D. 6.5 cm
 Hematology

Length: 7-7.5 cm
or 70-75 mm
Bore: 1 or 1.2 mm
(Mam Leah’s Notes)
 Hematology

Method of detecting fibrin clot which depends

on the increase in the light scattering
associated with the conversion of soluble
fibrinogen molecules to the insoluble
polymerized fibrin clot:
A. Visual
B. Electromechanical
C. Fibrinometer
D. Photo-Optical
 Hematology

Photo-Optical is the method of

detecting fibrin clot which depends
on the increase in the light scattering
associated with the conversion of
soluble fibrinogen molecules to the
insoluble polymerized fibrin clot.
(Steininger/Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

D-dimer test will be positive as

soon as _____ after onset.
A. 3 hours
B. 240 min.
C. 60 min.
D. 4 min.
 Hematology

The D-dimer test is positive in DIC

as soon as 4 hours after onset.
Fibrinogen levels may decrease in
4-24 hrs. Platelets decrease up to
48 hours after onset.
(Steininger/Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

Protamine sulfate test and Ethanol

gelation test are based on what
principle?
A. Condensation
B. Colorimetry
C. Electrophoresis
D. Paracoagulation
 Hematology

Protamine sulfate test and

Ethanol gelation test are based
on Paracoagulation.
(Steininger/Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

Specimen of choice to determine

M:E Ratio:
A. BM Biopsy
B. Marrow aspirate
C. Whole removal of marrow
D. BM Tissue
 Hematology

Bone marrow aspirate is the

appropriate type of specimen
for determination of M:E ratio.
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A normal marrow cell which is

commonly misidentified as
megakaryocytes:
A. Macrophage
B. Monocytes
C. Osteoblast
D. Osteoclasts
 Hematology

Osteoclasts are commonly

misidentified as
megakaryocytes. (Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Hematology
This precursor cell is characterized by having a
CHECKERBOARD APPEARANCE, it's
PARACHROMATIN remains unstaine and the
mingling of blue (RNA) & pink (Hgb) gives a
MUDDY/GRAY APPEARANCE:
A. Pronormoblast
B. Basophilic normoblast
C. Rubricyte
D. Diffusely basophilic erythrocyte
 Hematology

Polychromatophilic normoblasts
(Rubricytes) are characterized by having
a CHECKERBOARD APPEARANCE, it's
PARACHROMATIN remains unstained and
the mingling of blue (RNA) & pink (Hgb)
gives a MUDDY/GRAY APPEARANCE
.(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A single pronormoblast gives rise

to how many mature RBCs?
A. 400
B. 32
C. 16
D. 2,000 - 4,000
 Hematology

16 (Henry, Harmening,
Steininger)
*8-32 (Wintrobe)
*8 (Rodak)
 Hematology

Maturation period of most granulocytes

from blast stage until to the release of
mature granulocytes into the peripheral
blood:
A. 5 days
B. 14 days
C. 10 days
D. 8-11 days
 Hematology

Maturation period of most

granulocytes from blast stage
until to the release of mature
granulocytes into the peripheral
blood usually takes 14 days. (Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

What cell has a diurnal variation

in relation to ACTH?
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocytes
 Hematology

A marked diurnal variation is found in

eosinophil numbers, with the highest
numbers seen in the morning. Acute
infections, ACTH, glucocorticoids,
prostaglandins and epinephrines
decrease eosinophil numbers. (Becker,
2001)
Thorn's Test (Steininger) Eosinophil
(Rodak)
 Hematology

This cell is characterized by having a

PARACHROMATIN stained light purple w/ deep
purple heterochromatin giving an appearance
of a CRUSHED VELVET & SCANTY CYTOPLASM
(clear blue).
A. Lymphoblast
B. Prolymphocyte
C. Rubricyte
D. Mature lymphocyte
 Hematology

The nuclear parachromatin of the

lymphocytes tends to stain light
purple w/ deep purple
heterochromatin giving an
appearance of a CRUSHED VELVET.
(Steininger/Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

When differentiating the

megakaryoid series, what should be
the basis?
A. Nuclei
B. Granules
C. Cytoplasmic apperance
D. Chromatin strcuture
 Hematology

In differentiating the maturation

stages of the megakaryocytic cells,
emphasis should be placed on the
cytoplasmic appearance rather than
the number of nuclei or chromaton
structure.(Steininger)
 Hematology

A hemoglobin derivative associated with

bacteremia due to C. perfringes and a
condition known as enterogenous
cyanosis.
A. Carboxyhemoglobin
B. Sulfhemoglobin
C. Methemoglobin
D. Deoxyhemoglobin
 Hematology

Sulfhemoglobin - A hemoglobin
derivative associated with
bacteremia due to C. perfringes
and a condition known as
enterogenous cyanosis. (Mam
Leah’s Notes)
 Hematology

The majority of acquired aplastic

anemia cases usually results from
which of the following?
A. Unknown cases
B. Pregnancy
C. Chloramphenicol exposure
D. Radiation exposure
 Hematology

"Approximately 70% of
acquired aplastic anemia
cases are idiopathic.
(Rodak, 2012)" *Question
from Elsevier*
 Hematology

The area of pallor is one-half of

the cell diameter is graded as:
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+
 Hematology

Grading of HYPOCHROMASIA:
1+ - one-half of the cell diameter
2+ - two-thirds
3+ - three-quarter
4+ - THIN RIM of hemoglobin
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

Thinner variant of codocyte:

A. Target cell
B. Oat cell
C. Knizocytes
D. Leptocell
 Hematology

Leptocell is a thinner
variant of codocytes.
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A red cell membrane abnormality

most commonly seen in patients
with Uremia:
A. Acanthocytes
B. Stomatocyte
C. Schistocyte
D. Burr cells
 Hematology

Burr cells are commonly

seen in patients with
Uremia. (Steininger/Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A banked blood stored for a long

period of time can develop into what
red cell membrane abnormality?
A. Acanthocyte
B. Stomatocyte
C. Schistocyte
D. Spherocyte
 Hematology

A banked blood stored for a

long period of time can change
red cell’s morphology into
spherocytes. (Steininger/Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

Also known as meniscocytes:

A. Sickle cell
B. Semi-lunar bodies
C. Schistocyte
D. NOTA
 Hematology

Sickle cell/Meniscocyte/
Drepanocytes.
(Steininger/Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

An RBC inclusion which resembles a

FIGURE OF EIGHT & said to be the
remnant of microtubules of mitotic
spindle.
A. Howell-Jolly Bodies
B. Heinz Bodies
C. Cabot Rings
D. Hb H inclusion
 Hematology

Cabot Rings an RBC inclusion

which resembles a FIGURE OF
EIGHT & said to be the remnant
of microtubules of mitotic
spindle. (Steininger/Mam Leah's
Notes)
 Hematology

Pyrimidine-5-nucleotidase deficiency
can lead to what RBC inclusion?
A. Pitted golf ball
B. Basophilic Stippling
C. Hgb SC Crystals
D. Pappenheimer Bodies
 Hematology

Basiphilic Stippling are commonly seen in

lead poisoning and associated to Pyrimidine-
5-nucleotidase deficiency. Fine stippling -
increased polychromatophilia (increased
production of red cells) & Coarse stippling -
lead poisoning & impaired hemoglobin
synthesis. May resemble also Pappenheimer
bodies. (Steninger/Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A 2+ Dacryocytes grade in blood

smear is equal to?
A. > 20/field
B. > 1-5/field
C. > 6-10/field
D. > 10/field
 Hematology
“PoHDASS” “POvEBBiTS”
Polychromatophilia Poikilocytosis
Helmet Cell Ovalocytes
Dacryocytes/Teardrop RBCs Elliptocytes
Acanthocytes Burr cells
Schistocyte Bizarre-shaped RBCs
Spherocyte Target Cell
Grade: Stomatocytes
1+ = 1-5/field 1+ = 3-10/field
2+ = 6-10/field 2+ = 11-20/field
3+ = >10/field 3+ = > 20/field
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A MT counted 10 drepanocytes on a blood film from

a patient with pneumonia on a single field under
OIO. How will he report it?
A. Report it as is (10/field)
B. Average the cell per field and grade it semi
quantitatively (few, moderate, many etc.)
C. Grade as positive only
D. Nevermind because it's just normal for the
patient.
 Hematology

Grade as POSITIVE only!

Sickle cell (Drepanocytes)
Basophilic Stippling
Pappenheimer Bodies
Howell-Jolly Bodies
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A 21-yr old female was rushed to the hospital and

her CBC result was: RBC= 5.5x109/L; Hct= 25%;
Hgb= 6 g/L; MCV= 46fL; MCHC= 20 g/L; Serum Iron
was moderately low and TIBC is markedly
increased.
Which of the following is the best suggestive
diagnosis?
A. Anemia of Chronic Disease
B. Iron Overload
C. Vitamin B12 Def.
D. IDA
 Hematology

Microcytic, Hypochromic
“SPLITC/ASPLIT/SPLITA”
Sideroblastic Anemia
Porphyria
Lead Poisoning
Iron Deficiency Anemia
Thalassemia
Anemia of Chronic Disease
 Hematology

In factor deficiencies, normal PT and

aPTT results may be recorded until a
factor level is ____?
A. < 30%
B. < 50%
C. < 75%
D. < 100%
 Hematology

Because of compensation of other

factors in the hemostatic pathway
and sensitivity of the reagents, factor
levels must be reduced to 30% or
less before prolongation is observed.
(Elsevier, 2015)
 Hematology

Which of the following properties

renders the vessel wall prothrombotic?
A. Negatively charged surface
B. Production of prostacyclin and nitric
oxide
C. Release of tissue factor
D. Inactivation of thrombin
 Hematology

Once damaged, tissue factor is

one of the substances released
that favors clot formation. Other
prothrombotic substances
include the secretion of platelet-
activating factor and vWF.
(Elsevier, 2015)
 Hematology

The step necessary for the

functionary factors II, VII, IX and X is
called ______ step?
A. Oxidation
B. Hydrolysis
C. Cleavage
D. γ-Carboxylation
 Hematology

Vitamin K is required for

the carboxylation step in
the formation of Factors II,
VII, IX & X and Protein C &
S. (Elsevier, 2015)
 Hematology

When performing platelet aggregation assays,

which of the following is an important
preanalytical factor?
A. The patient should have fasted overnight
B. The patient must refrain from aspirin-
containing products for 7 days before testing
C. After collection, the specimen can be frozen
before transport to the laboratory
D. All of the above are important
 Hematology

The goal of the platelet aggregation

assay is to assess platelet function. If
platelets are not functional, as is the case
when aspirin is ingested, the results will
not be reflective of the patient's
platelets. Fasting is not required. Freezing
the plasma will cause the platelets to
aggregate before evaluation. (Elsevier,
2015)
 Hematology

What is the most practical mean of

correcting prolongation of PT/APTT?
A. Reduce the volume of the
anticoagulant
B. Reduce the concentration of the
anticoagulant
C. Increase the amount of calcium
D. All of the above.
 Hematology

The third and most practical

means of correcting the
prolongation problem is by
decreasing the concentration
of the anticoagulant.
(Steininger)
 Hematology

What is the best RBC diluting

fluid?
A. Acetic Acid
B. Gower's
C. Formol citrate
D. Toisson's
 Hematology

Formol citrate, also

known as Dacies fluid is
the best RBC diluting
fluid. (Mam Leah's
Notes)
 Hematology

Automated staining procedure for

blood smear preparation:
A. Ehrlich
B. Beacom
C. Spreader slide tech.
D. Spun smear
 Hematology

Spun smear is an automated

staining procedure for blood
smear preparation.
(Steininger/Mam Lea's Notes)
 Hematology

Appropriate dilution for WBC

count <3.0 x 10^9/L:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
 Hematology

Whenever the WBC drops below 3.0 x

10^9/L, a smaller dilution of blood should be
used to achieve a more accurate count. In this
situation, the blood may be diluted 1:11 (0.02
mL whole blood + 0.2 mL diluting fluid) or
drawn up to 1.0 mark in a Thoma white cell
piper and diluted to the 11 mark with the
white count diluting fluid for a dilution
of 1:10. (Brown)
 Hematology

A MT counted & observed 6-10

WBCs/hpf, what is the estimated
total WBC count?
A. 4,000 - 7,000WBCs/uL
B. 7,000 - 10,000 WBCs/uL
C. 10,000 - 13,000 WBCs/uL
D. 13,000 - 18,000 WBCs/uL
 Hematology

2-5 WBCs/hpf = 4,000 - 7,000WBCs/uL

4-6 WBCs/hpf = 7,000 - 10,000 WBCs/uL
6-10 WBCs/hpf = 10,000 - 13,000 WBCs/uL
10-20 WBCs/hpf = 13,000 - 18,000 WBCs/uL
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

Platelet count estimate of 600,000-

800,000/uL should be reported as:
A. Slightly increased
B. Very increased
C. Moderately increased
D. Markedly increased.
 Hematology

600,000-800,000/uL –
Moderately Increased
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

Which of the following cause an either

positive or negative error under the
hematology instrumental error?
A. Aperture plugs
B. Bubbles
C. Excessive lysing of RBCs
D. Imporper setting of aperture current
or threshold
 Hematology

Imporper setting of
aperture current or
threshold (either
positive of negative)
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

A 3 degree (angle) tilt of an ongoing

ESR test can cause what percent
error?
A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 45%
D. Not affected
 Hematology

A 3 degree (angle) tilt of

an ongoing ESR test can
cause 30% error on the
assay. (Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

What is the effect of an increased

albumin & lecithin on ESR?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. No effect
D. Variable
 Hematology

Increased albumin &

lecithin levels on ESR
can decrease the result.
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

If a patient's WBC count is below 1.0

x 10^9/L, how many cells should be
counted?
A. 50
B. 25
C. 100
D. 200
 Hematology

50 cells are counted if the

patient's WBC count is
9
below 1.0 x 10 /L. (Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

True about microhematocrit method?

A. 2,000 - 3000g for 30 mins
B. Capillary tube is 11.5cm or 115m
C. Bore of the capillary tube is 1 mm
D. Bore of the capillary tube is 3 mm
 Hematology

Bore of the capillary tube

is 1 mm
Length: 30 cm/300 mm
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Hematology

What is the effect of trapped

plasma in patient's hematocrit?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Variable
D. No effect
 Hematology

Trapped plasma is the amount of

plasma that still remains in the RBC
portion after the microhematocrit
has been spun. Increased in
macrocytice anemia, spheryocytosis,
thalassemia, hypochromic anemia
and sickle cell anemia. (Mam Leah's
Notes)
HISTOPATHOLOGY/MTLE
 HP/MTLE
What method of schiff reagent
preparation where thionyl chloride is
used?
A. Barger & Delamater
B. De Tomasi-Coleman
C. Itikawa & Oguru
D. AOTA
 HP/MTLE
Barger & Delamater - Thionyl
chloride;
De Tomasi-Coleman - Sodium of
potassium metabisulfite;
Itikawa & Oguru - Sulfur dioxide gas
(Gregorios 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
The water temperature on
emergency eyewash stations should
be set at?
A. 45 C
B. 15-35 C
C. 37-38.5 C
D. 4-25 C
 HP/MTLE
Current recommendations are to
have such emergency eyewash
stations no more than 100 feet
from hazardous work areas, and
water temp should be controlled
to a range of 15-35 C. (Gregorios,
2nd Ed)
 HP/MTLE
When removing dust during maintenance or
while cleaning a routine microscope, how
should it be done?
A. Blow it through mouth
B. Use an air bulb
C. Use a clean gauze pad
D. Call the operator or technician to clean it
for you.
 HP/MTLE

Removal of dust
should be done with
an air bulb. (Gregorios
2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE

What is the normal tube length of

a typical microscope?
A. 10 cm
B. 160 mm
C. 16 mm
D. 60 cm
 HP/MTLE

Normal tube length of

160 mm. (Gregorios,
2nd Ed)
 HP/MTLE
Which of the following can be used to
fix brain tissues for rabies diagnosis?
A. Flemming's
B. Zenker
C. Zamboni's PAF
D. Carnoy's
 HP/MTLE

Carnoy‘s fluid being the most

rapid and acetone, a well-known
fixative ideal for fixing brain
tissues are used for brain tissue
fixation in aiding to the diagnosis
of rabies. (Gregorios 2nd Ed)
 HP/MTLE

A paraffin substitute which

contains rubber?
A. Malinol
B. Paraplast
C. Tissue Mat
D. Carbowax
 HP/MTLE

Tissue Mat is a product of

paraffin, containinf rubber,
w/ the same property as
paraplast. (Gregorios 2nd
Ed)
 HP/MTLE
Which of the following plastic (resin)
embedding media infiltrates fastest?
A. Araldite
B. Epon
C. Spurr
D. Benzoyl peroxide
 HP/MTLE

Cyclohexene dioxide-based
plastic (Spurr) can be
obtained pure, have very
low viscosity and infiltrate
fastest. (Gregorios, 2nd Ed)
 HP/MTLE
Ideal embedding medium for
UNDECALCIFIED BONE & other HARD
TISSUES:
A. Polyglycol methacrylate
B. Methyl methacrylate
C. Uranyl acetate
D. Bezoyl peroxide
 HP/MTLE

MMA (Methyl Methacrylate) are

also widely used because of its
hardness as the ideal embedding
medium for undecalcified bone
and other hard tissues.
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed. )
 HP/MTLE
The first microtome developed in
1789.
A. Rocking
B. Rotary
C. Freezing
D. Sliding
 HP/MTLE
Sliding microtome was developed by
Adams in 1789. The first microtome
developed!
Rotary microtome was invited by Minot in
1885-1886.
Paldwell Trefall invented the Rocking
microtome in 1881.
Queckett invited freezing microtome in
1848.
 HP/MTLE
A type of hone which is much
coarser and used only for badly
nicked knives:
A. Belgium Yellow
B. Arkansas
C. Fine Carborundum
D. AOTA
 HP/MTLE

Fine carborundum is much

coarser than the first two
types and is used only for
badly nicked knives...
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed)
 HP/MTLE

What is considered as the best

vital dye?
A. Janus Green
B. Acridine Orange
C. Neutral Red
D. Trypan Blue
 HP/MTLE

Neutral Red - Probably the

best vital dye. (Gregorios
2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
Probably the best & PREFERRED by some
as clearing agent in the embedding
process of tissues because it penetrates
and clears tissues rapidly:
A. Chloroform
B. Xylene
C. Benzene
D. Toluene
 HP/MTLE
Benzene is preferred by some as
clearing agent in the embedding
process of tissues because it
penetrates and clear tissues rapidly.
However, tt may damage the bone
marrow resulting to aplastic
anemia.(Gregorios 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE

Irishman's stain is for?

A. Parasite
B. RBC differential
C. WBC differentiation
D. Collagen fibers
 HP/MTLE

Like Giemsa, Irishman

stain is alo used for WBC
differentiation.
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
A contrast stain for Gram's technique in
acid fast & Pap's method and for staining
diphtheria organisms.
A. Carmine
B. Luxol Fast Blue
C. Bismarck Brown
D. Celestine Blue
 HP/MTLE

Bismarck Brown is a contrast

stain for Gram's technique in
acid fast & Pap's method and
for staining diphtheria
organisms. (Gregorios)
 HP/MTLE
Stain recommended for the
demonstration of Nissl granules or
chromophilic bodies.
A. Prussian blue
B. Victoria blue
C. Toluidine blue
D. Picric Acid
 HP/MTLE
Toluidine Blue - Stain
recommended for the
demonstration of Nissl
granules or chromophilic
bodies(Gregorio's 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE

Most sensitive of the oil soluble

dyes:
A. Sudan Black
B. Scarlarch R
C. Sudan III
D. Sudan IV
 HP/MTLE

Sudan Black. Most sensitive of

the oil soluble dyes. (Gregorios)
 HP/MTLE
What is added in apathy's medium to
prevent bleeding of metachromatic
stains for amyloid?
A. Potassium acetate
B. Benzoic acid
C. Digitonin
D. Thymol
 HP/MTLE

Addition of 50 g potassium
acetate or 10 grams sodium
chloride will prevent bleeding
of metachromatic stains for
amyloid. (Gregorios, 2nd Ed.
2015)
 HP/MTLE
Useful for staining encapsulated
organism fungi like Cryptococcus
neoformans:
A. Alcian blue
B. Southgate's mucicarmine technique
C. Von Kossa stain
D. Van Gieson stain
 HP/MTLE

Southgate's mucicarmine
technique is useful for staning
encapsulated fungi e.g
Cryptococcus neoformans
 HP/MTLE

Sakaguchi's Test stains what

protein or amino acid?
A. Glutamine
B. Arginine
C. Cysteine
D. Histidine
 HP/MTLE

Sakaguchi's Test for arginine

uses NaOH, sodium
hypochlorite (Milton's reagent)
and pyridine chloroform (red-
orange - arginine) (Gregorios
2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
What is the greatest single factor
that causes deterioration and
precipitation of Silver solution?
A. Light
B. Air
C. Dust
D. Bacterial contamination
 HP/MTLE

Dust - the greatest single factor

that causes deterioration and
precipitation of Silver solutions.
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
The METHOD OF CHOICE in many
laboratories for demonstrating
AMYLOID.
A. Alkaline Congo Red
B. Krajian's Amyloid Stain
C. Iodine
D. Higman's Congo Red
 HP/MTLE

Alkaline Congo Red is the METHOD

OF CHOICE in many laboratories
for demonstrating AMYLOID.
(Gregorios 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
ROUTINE STAINING METHOD OF CHOICE
for BONE HISTOLOGY
A. Lissamine Fast - Red Tartrazine
Method
B. Schmorl's Picro-Thionin Method
C. Mallory's PTAH
D. Von Kossa Stain
 HP/MTLE

Routine staining method of

choice for bone histology is
Lissamine Fast - Red
Tartrazine Method.
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
A stain used for the demonstration of
reactive astrocytes:
A. PTAH Stain
B. Holzer's Method
C. Modified PTAH Stain
D. Weil's Method
 HP/MTLE

Modified PTAH Stain is the

stain used for the
demonstration of reactive
astrocytes. (Gregorios 2nd
Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
Gold standard for demonstrating copper
and copper-associated protein:
A. Von Kossa's Stain
B. Lindquist's Mod. Rhodanine Technique
C. Masson Fontana
D. Mallory's Fuchsin
 HP/MTLE
Lindquist's Mod. Rhodanine
Technique is the method of
choice for demonstrating copper
and copper-associated protein. It
uses the reagent dimethyl-
aminobenzylidine rhodanin.
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed)
 HP/MTLE
Preferred mounting media to
prevent fading of copper in
Rhodanine technique.
A. Canada balsam
B. Eukitt
C. Apathy's Media
D. Clarite
 HP/MTLE

Apathy's Media is the preferred

mounting media to prevent
fading of copper in Rhodanine
technique, in archived material
which might happen with other
synthetic mountants. (Gregorios 2nd
Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
Also known as the tissue gram stain.
Useful also for Nocardia and
Actinomyces:
A. Kinyoun
B. Brown & Brenn
C. Modified Steiner & Steiner Method
D. Gram Twort Stain
 HP/MTLE

Brown & Brenn - Tissue gram

stain. Useful also for Nocardia
and Actinomyces. (Gregorios,
2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
Recommended for blood and marrow
parasites, inclusion conjunctivitis,
Toxoplasma, spirochetes & other bacteria.
A. Modified Gram's stain.
B. Wright’s
C. May Grunwald
D. Dilute Giemsa
 HP/MTLE

Dilute Giemsa is
recommended for blood and
marrow parasites, inclusion
conjunctivitis, Toxoplasma,
spirochetes & other bacteria.
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE

A staining method which can be

used to demonstrate HBsAg:
A. Grocott Methanamine
B. Orcein
C. Hematoxylin
D. Cresyl Violet Acetate
 HP/MTLE

Orcein - staining method

which can be used to
demonstrate HBsAg
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
Cytocentrifuge for cytological studies
is usually done at what speed?
A. 2,000 RPM for 2 minutes
B. 2,000 - 2,300 RPM for 10 minutes
C. 10,000 - 15,000 RPM for 5 minutes
D. 3,000 RPM for 6 mins.
 HP/MTLE

Cytocentrifuge for cytological

studies is usually done at
2,000 RPM for 2 minutes.
(Gregorios, 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
For proper fixation if spray is used, the
slide should be kept in a distance from
the slide (approx. ___ away)
A. 1 meter
B. 6 inches
C. 12 inches
D. Half meter
 HP/MTLE

For proper fixation if spray is

used, the slide should be kept
in a distance from the slide
approx. 1 feet away/12 in.
away. (Gregorios, 2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
When a solid lesion in FNA is aspirated,
what is the most diagnostic material for
the cytologic evaluation.
A. Few drops from the tip of the needle
B. Last portion to be aspirated out
C. Any portion of the specimen
D. Middle portion
 HP/MTLE

When a solid lesion in FNA is

aspirated, few drops from the tip
of the needle is the most
diagnostic material for the
cytologic evaluation. (Gregorios
2nd Ed.)
 HP/MTLE
Who should be the permanent
chairperson of PNAC (Phil Nat'l AIDS
Council)?
A. PAMET Representative
B. President of the Philippines
C. Secretary of Health
D. Director from RITM.
 HP/MTLE

The Secretary of Health

should be the permanent
chairperson of PNAC (Phil Nat'l
AIDS Council)(MTLE, Rabor-
Navarro)
 HP/MTLE
If no pathologists are available in a certain area, a
physician with a three month training on clinical
laboratory medicine, quality control and laboratory
management may manage what category of clinical
laboratories?
A. Primary only
B. Secondary and Tertiary only
C. Primary & Secondary only
D. Primary, Secondary & Tertiary
 HP/MTLE
If no pathologists are available in a
certain area, a physician with a three
month training on clinical laboratory
medicine, quality control and laboratory
management may manage primary &
secondary laboratory. Certified by BHFS.
(MTLE, Rabor-Navarro)
 HP/MTLE
A MT on duty negligently poked the forearm of his co-staff
with a used needle in the laboratory. After testing the
specimen collected for HIV Testing (using the same needle), it
was screened and confirmed positive. What would be the
appropriate action for this?
A. The MT can suffer a penalty of imprisonment for 6 to 12
yrs.
B. He should just say, "Sorry it was a mistake."
C. The MT can also poke himself to be fair
D. The MT can suffer a penalty of lifetime imprisonment and a
fee of 10,000 pesos to 100,000 pesos
 HP/MTLE
Section 14 of RA 8504 (Penalties for
unsafe practices and procedures)
The MT can suffer a penalty of
imprisonment for 6 to 12 yrs.
(MTLE, Rabor-Navarro)
 HP/MTLE
TB DOTS:
A. Tuberculosis Directly Observed Treatment
Short Course
B. Tuberculosis Directional Office and
Transportation & Short services
C. Tuberculosis Department Of Treatment &
Services
D. To Be Decontaminated of Tuberculosis
Superinfection.
 HP/MTLE

TB-DOTS
Tuberculosis Directly Observed
Treatment Short Course
 HP/MTLE
Panunumpa ng Kasapi
"Patnubayan Nawa Ako ng ______"
A. Bathala
B. Diyos
C. Panginoon
D. Maykapal
 HP/MTLE

“Patnubayan Nawa Ako

ng Maykapal.” (Mam
Leah's Notes)
 HP/MTLE
When was the revised code of ethics
approved?
A. May 5, 1994
B. April 7, 2004
C. March 7, 1997
D. September 28, 1980
 HP/MTLE

Approved on March 7, 1997 at

PAMET Office, Makati City,
Philippines.
(http://aufmcmedtechinterns.bl
ogspot.com/p/code-of-
ethics.html?m=1)
 HP/MTLE
Upon suspension by the Board of Medical
Technology, he must surrender his COR for
within how many days?
A. As long as he want
B. Within 30 days
C. Immediately upon suspension
D. Wait for the police to claim the COR at
home
 HP/MTLE

Section 24 - Administrative
Investigation-Revocation or
Suspension of Certificates of
RA 5527. COR should be
surrendered within 30 days.
(MTLE, Rabor-Navarro)
 HP/MTLE
A mobile laboratory is only allowed to
operate around what radius from the
main lab?
A. Within 100 km
B. Within 1000 km
C. Within 10 km
D. As long as it is at the Philippine Area of
Responsibility
A mobile laboratory is only
allowed to operate around
100 km from the main
laboratory. (MTLE, Rabor-
Navarro)
MICROBIOLOGY &
PARASITOLOGY
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Serological test for detection of

pneumococcal antibodies:
A. Forshay's Test
B. Anton's Test
C. Francis Test
D. Fernando's Reaction
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Francis Test for detection of

pneumococcal antibodies
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Also known as the "Tularemia

Skin Test"?
A. Shicks Test
B. Dick's Test
C. Forshay Test
D. Roemer Test
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Causative agent of Erythrasma:

A. S. pyogenes
B. E. rhusiopathiae
C. C. minutissimum
D. S. marcescens
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Type of microscopy used in Todd-
Hewitt broth culture method for β-
Streptococcus :
A. Darkfield Micrscopy
B. Brightfield Microscopy
C. Polarizing Micrscopy
D. Fluoresence Microscopy
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Fluoresence Microscopy is
used in Todd-Hewitt broth
culture method for β-
Streptococcus. (Mam Leah's
Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Pea-Soup Stool:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Salmonella typhi
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Pea-soup stool –
Salmonella spp. (Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Gold standard test for identification
of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli:
A. Gas Liquid Chromatography
B. Culture
C. Gram Staining
D. Glove-Box
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Gas Liquid Chromatography is the
gold standard test for identification
of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli.
(Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
An anerobic gram-negative bacilli having
a colonial morphology described as
OPALESCENT WITH SPECKLES when
viewed under a STEREOSCOPE.
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Fusobacterium nucleatum
C. Fusobacterium necrophorum
D. Prevotella melaninogenica
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Fusobacterium nucleatum, an
anerobic gram-negative bacilli having
a colonial morphology described as
OPALESCENT WITH SPECKLES when
viewed under a STEREOSCOPE.
(Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
An anaerobic gram positive organism unique
for being RESISTANT TO SODIUM
POLYANETHOL SULFONATE & resistant also to
kanamycin & colistin:
A. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
B. Peptococcus
C. Veillonella
D. Prionebacterium acnes
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius, an
anaerobic gram positive organism unique
for being RESISTANT TO SODIUM
POLYANETHOL SULFONATE (SPS) &
resistant also to kanamycin & colistin.
(Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
What is the gold standard for toxin
identification of C. difficile?
A. Tissue culture
B. Toxigenicity test
C. Serologic test
D. Virulence test
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Tissue culture remains as

the gold standard for
toxin identification of C.
difficile. (Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
A gram stain revealed a small, gram-
negative rod with BIPOLAR STAINING.
Important pathogen causing SHIPPING
FEVER in cattles:
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Brucella abortus
D. Francisella tularensis
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Pasteurella multocida an
important pathogen causing
SHIPPING FEVER in cattles. On
gram staining, it is small, gram-
negative rod with BIPOLAR
STAINING. (Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Causative agent of Red Leg

Disease?
A. Aeromonas hydrophila
B. Pseduomonas aeruginosa
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Plesiomonas shigelloides
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Organism which can be grown in
Granada medium:
A. S. pyogenes
B. Bang's bacillus
C. S. agalactiae
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
 Microbiology & Parasitology

S. agalactiae – can be
grown in a Granada
medium. (Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
An important cause of onion bulb rot in
plants and foot rot in humans. Also
causes severe pneumonia in patients w/
cystic fibrosis.
A. P. cepacia
B. P. pseudomallei
C. P. aeruginosa
D. P. mallei
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Pseudomonas (Burkholderia)
cepacia causes onion bulb rot in
plants and foot rot in humans. Also
causes severe pneumonia in patients
w/ cystic fibrosis. (Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
A phenomenon wherein large
quantities of toxin are released as
bacteria dies during treatment.
A. Jarisch-Herxheimer
B. Fernandez Reaction
C. Mitsuda Reaction
D. Blanch Phenomena
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Jarisch-Herxheimer - a
phenomenon wherein large
quantities of toxin are released
as bacteria dies during
treatment (Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Wirtz & Conklin Stain:

A. Capsule
B. Spores
C. Cell wall
D. Flagella
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Bacterial SPORES stain:

“DSW”
Dorner
Schaeffer & Fulton
Wirtz & Conklin
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
In the test for urease production, the
presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea
to which of the ff.?
A. Ammonia & CO2
B. Putrescine
C. Amines & CO2
D. Amines & Water
In the test for urease
production, the presence
of the enzyme hydrolyzes
urea to ammonia & CO2.
(Elsevier, 2015)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Bull's Eye Rash:

A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Borrelia leptospira
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Staphylococus rashiaea
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Borrelia burgdorferi - Bull's

Eye Rash (Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Which of the following groups of

virus contains the SARS Virus?
A. Calicivirus
B. Coronavirus
C. Flavivirus
D. Filovirus
 Microbiology & Parasitology

SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory

Syndrome) Virus is under the
family of Coronaviridae. (Elsevier,
2015)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Leishmanial Skin Test?

A. Dr. Montenegro Skin Test
B. Bachman's Test
C. Beck's Test
D. Sabin-Feldman Dye Test
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Dr. Montenegro Skin Test

for Leishmanial Skin Test
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
A possible culture media for
Plasmodium spp.:
A. RPMI 1640
B. MalaBROTH
C. Sakazakii Agar
D. Modified Sheep Blood Agar w/
Cysteine
RPMI 1640 - Roswell Park Memorial Institute
- a medium commonly referred to as RPMI
medium, is a form of medium used in cell
culture and tissue culture. It has traditionally
been used for growth of human lymphoid
cells.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malaria_culture
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Largest fluke parasitizing man.

A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Fasciola gigantica
C. Opistorchis felineus
D. Fasciola hepatica
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Fasciolopsis buski is the

largest fluke parasitizing man.
(Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Schistosoma spp. having
a prominent & bent terminal spine:
A. S. haematobium
B. S. mekongi
C. S. intercalatum
D. S. japonicum
 Microbiology & Parasitology
S. intercalatum, is characterized by
having a prominent & bent terminal
spine. (Cheesbrough)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Causative agent of Alveolar

Hydatid Disease:
A. E. granulosus
B. E. multilocularis
C. E. vogeli
D. E. oligarthus
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Multilocular or Alveolar Hydatid

Disease is caused by E.
multilocularis. (Henry, 21st Ed.
p. 1158)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Granulomatous Amoebic
Meningoencephalitis caused by
leptomyxid amoeba known as:
A. Hartmanella
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Balamuthia mandrillaris
D. Naegleria fowleri
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Granulomatous Amoebic
Meningoencephalitis is also
caused by a similar leptomyxid
amoeba known as Balamuthia
mandrillaris. (Henry, 21st Ed. pg
1138)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Causative agent of Secondary Amoebic
Meningoencephalitis
A. Hartmanella
B. E. histolytica
C. Naegleria fowleri subs. fowlerica
D. Acanthamoeba castellani
 Microbiology & Parasitology

E. histolytica is the
causative agent of
Secondary Amoebic
Meningoencephalitis.
(Rabor)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Associated with "40 Day Fever”:

A. CMV
B. Rotavirus
C. L. interrogans serovar
hebdomadis
D. RSV
 Microbiology & Parasitology

CMV is associated with "40

Day Fever” among some organ-
transplanted individuals. (Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Previously known as Enterovirus

Type 72:
A. Hepatitis E
B. Hepatitis A
C. Poliovirus
D. Rotavirus
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Hepatitis A was
previously known as
Enterovirus Type 72.
(Delost/Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Torres-Councilman Bodies:
A. Yellow Fever
B. Rabies
C. Norwalk
D. Norovirus
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Yellow Fever - Torres-

Councilman Bodies. (Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
The leading cause of myocarditis.
Also known as the Viral Heart
Disease is caused by?
A. Coxsackie Virus B
B. Coxsackie Virus A
C. Cardivovirus
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Coxsackie Virus B
The leading cause of myocarditis.
Also known as the Viral Heart
Disease.
(http://www.healthline.com/health/hear
t-disease/viral#Overview1)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Exoantigen H & M Bands (+):

A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidiodes immitis
C. Paracoccidioses braziliensis
D. Blastomyctes dermatitidis
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Exoantigen H & M Bands (+) -

Histoplasma capsulatum (Mam
Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Most common cause of Mycetoma:
A. Exophilia wernecki
B. Phialpophora verrucosa
C. Pseudolleacheria boydii
D. Apiospermium scedospermium
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Pseudolleacheria boydii is the

most common cause of
Mycetoma. (Delost/Mam Leah's
Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Germ tube test positive:

A. Candida albicans
B. Candida dubliniensis
C. Candida stellatoidea
D. AOTA
 Microbiology & Parasitology
C. albicans – well-known Germ
tube + organism. As well as
two other species of Candida:
(C. stellatoidea - Delost,
C. dubliniensis - Henry)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
A hyalohyphomycetes with a septate, hyaline
or dark to blue-green hyphae producing a
BRUSH-LIKE CONIDIOPHORE resembling
HANDS OF SKELETON that gives rise to
phialides:
A. Acremonium
B. Penicillium marneffei
C. Fusarium
D. Scopulariopsis
 Microbiology & Parasitology
Penicillium marneffei - A
hyalohyphomycetes with a septate,
hyaline or dark to blue-green hyphae
producing a BRUSH-LIKE
CONIDIOPHORE resembling HANDS
OF SKELETON that gives rise to
phialides. (Delost)
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Indicator employed in DTM

(Dermatophyte Test Medium):
A. Phenol Red
B. Neutral Red
C. Methyl Red
D. Bromthymol Blue
 Microbiology & Parasitology

Phenol Red is an
indicator employed in
DTM. (Mam Leah's Notes)
 Microbiology & Parasitology
"Star-shaped w/ four to six points"
colonial characteristic is best
exhibited by?
A. A. actinomycetemcomitans
B. C. hominis
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 Microbiology & Parasitology
A. actinomycetemcomitans colonies are
described as having star-shaped w/ four to six
points. The characteristic colonial morphology can
be commonly seen after 48 hours of incubation.
(Mahon)
*PAMET-PASMETH 2013 Quiz Show*
 CLINICAL
CHEMISTRY
 Clinical Chemistry
Studies have shown that reusable
tourniquets have the potential to
transmit organism which include:
A. Malazzesia furfur
B. MRSA
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Candida albicans
 Clinical Chemistry

Studies have shown that

reusable tourniquets have the
potential to transmit MRSA
(Methicillin-Resistant
Staphylococcus aureus). (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Most commonly used method for
measuring the changes in colligative
properties of a solution:
A. Osmometry
B. Barometer
C. Specific gravity
D. Densitometer
 Clinical Chemistry
Freezing-point depression
osmometry is the most commonly
used method for measuring the
changes in colligative properties
of a solution. (Dean Rodriguez,
2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

A general cleaning solution for

glassware:
A. Acid dichromate
B. HCl
C. Potassium permanganate
D. 3% HNO3
 Clinical Chemistry

Acid dichromate -
cleaning solution for
glassware. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

Standard length of butterly

needle infusion set:
A. 1/2 - 3/4 inch
B. 1-1.5 inch
C. 1/3 - 2-3 inch
D. 1 - 1.2 mm
 Clinical Chemistry

Standard length of
butterly needle infusion
set is 1/2 - 3/4 inch.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Preferred needle used by skilled/trained
personnel for blood collection through the
scalp and tiny veins of premature infants and
neonate:
A. 25 g
B. 22 g
C. 19 g
D. 21 g
 Clinical Chemistry

25 g - preferred needle used by

skilled/trained personnel for
blood collection through the
scalp and tiny veins of premature
infants and neonate. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Rinsing glasswares with blood clots
can be accomplishes by using:
A. 5% HNO3/5% HCl
B. 10% NaOH
C. 20% HNO3
D. 50% KOH (Contrad 70)
 Clinical Chemistry

10% NaOH - rinsing

glasswares with blood
clots. (Dean Rodriguez)
 Clinical Chemistry
After water purification, the most
common organism which can be
isolated is?
A. Gram + bacilli
B. Gram - bacilli
C. Fungal contam.
D. M. gordonae
 Clinical Chemistry

After water purification,

the most common
organism which can be
isolated are Gram Negative
Organisms. (Dean Rodriguez)
 Clinical Chemistry
What is the common angle set in a
fixed-angle/angle-head centrifuge?
A. 37 degree
B. 90 degree
C. 52 degree
D. 68 degree
 Clinical Chemistry

The common angle set in a

fixed-angle/angle-head
centrifuge is set at approx.
52 degree angle.
(Sir Gab's Notes/Mam Leah’s
Coaching Notes)
 Clinical Chemistry
Type of assay which detect random
errors that affect precision:
A. Repeated Assay
B. Matrix Effect
C. Assayed control
D. Outliers
 Clinical Chemistry

Matrix Effect detects

random errors that affect
precision. (Dean Rodriguez,
2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Used to check spectrophotometer's
linearity:
A. Didymium or holmium oxide
B. Nickel sulfate
C. Neutral density filter/dichromate
solution
D. Probe light
 Clinical Chemistry
Neutral density filter/dichromate
solution can be used to check
spectrophotometer's linearity. (Dean
Rodriguez/Sir Gab’s Notes)
 Clinical Chemistry
More than 1 test is analyzed
concurrently on a given clinical
specimen:
A. Batch testing
B. Parallel testing
C. Sequential testing
D. Send-out testing
 Clinical Chemistry

Parallel testing - More

than 1 test is analyzed
concurrently on a given
clinical specimen. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Definitive test for hypoglycemia but
not commonly performed nowadays:
A. 5-h OGTT
B. 72-h Fasting
C. 4-h PPGT
D. AOTA
 Clinical Chemistry
72-hr fasting
Normal individuals can still maintain
normal levels during this period. If
patient has hypoglycemia, there
would be a noticeable drop in
glucose levels over the 3-day fast.
(Sir Gab's Notes)
 Clinical Chemistry

Condensation method for

glucose:
A. O-toluidine
B. Folin-Wu
C. Hagedorn-Jensen
D. Neocuproine
 Clinical Chemistry

O-toluidine (Dubowski) is also

known as the condensation
method for glucose
determination. (Dean
Rodriguez)
 Clinical Chemistry

What converts α-D-glucose to β-

D-glucose?
A. Dextrose
B. Cellobiose
C. Mutarotase
D. Molybdate
 Clinical Chemistry

Mutarotase will convert α-

D-glucose to β-D-glucose.
(Dean Rodriguez)
 Clinical Chemistry
Also known as the Single Dose Method for
OGTT which is the most common test
performed and preferred for female patients
with high risk of GDM (Henry):
A. Janney-Isaacson
B. Exton-Rose
C. Rosenthal White
D. MacDonald
 Clinical Chemistry

Janney-Isaacson – single-
dose method for
OGTT. (Dean Rodriguez)
 Clinical Chemistry
Lipoprotein variant specific and
sensitive indicator of cholestasis:
A. B-vLDL
B. Lipase
C. Lp(a)
D. LpX
 Clinical Chemistry

LpX - Lipoprotein variant

specific and sensitive
indicator of cholestasis.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
CDC Reference Method for
Triglyceride:
A. Abell-Kendall Assay
B. Modified Van Handel &
Zilversmith
C. Hantzsch Condensation
D. Liebermann-Burchardt Test
 Clinical Chemistry

Modified Van Handel &

Zilversmith
- CDC Reference Method
for Triglyceride. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Added to Modified Van Handel &
Zilversmith Method to remove
phospholipids from chloroform extract:
A. Sialic Acid
B. Silisic Acid
C. Acetic Acid
D. Heparan Manganese
 Clinical Chemistry

Silisic Acid to remove

phospholipids from
chloroform extract.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Increased levels of this protein leads
to as a common cause of dialysis-
associated amyloidosis:
A. Albumin
B. β2-Microglobulin
C. α2-Macroglobulin
D. Siderophilin
 Clinical Chemistry

B2-Microglobulin – is
associated as common
cause of dialysis-associated
amyloidosis. (Dean
Rodriguez)
 Clinical Chemistry

Most common method/dye used

for albumin determination:
A. BCP
B. HABA
C. BCG
D. Methyl Orange
 Clinical Chemistry

BCG (Bromcresol Green) is the

most common method/dye used
for albumin determination. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
An enzyme which can transiently
decrease after blood transfusion:
A. AST
B. LDH
C. ALP
D. CK
 Clinical Chemistry

Transient low serum ALP

may occur after blood
transfusion or
cardiopulmonary bypass.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

What is the most specific substrate for

quantitative endpoint analysis for ACP
determination?
A. Thymolphthalein monophosphate
B. α-naphthyl PO4
C. PNPP
D. Phenyl PO4
 Clinical Chemistry
Thymolphthalein monophosphate is the
specific substratel substrate of choice for
quantitative endpoint reaction for ACP
method. (Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
More sensitive and specific screening
test for postransfusion hepatitis or
occupational toxic exposure:
A. ALT
B. GGT
C. AST
D. 5’-nucleotidase
 Clinical Chemistry

ALT measurement is a more

sensitive and specific screening
test for postransfusion hepatitis
or occupational toxic exposure
compared to AST. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Most predominant pancreatic amylase
isoenzyme in acute pancreatitis:
A. Total amylase
B. P1
C. P2
D. P3
 Clinical Chemistry
81% - total amylase
91% - P2 isoenzyme
98% - P3 isoenzyme
- based on diagnostic specificity
(Malfertheiner, 1986)
P3 - Most predominant pancreatic amylase
isoenzyme in acute pancreatitis. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Amylase remains elevated and
present in urine for up to how many
days?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 3 days
D. 10 days
 Clinical Chemistry

Amylase remains elevated and

present in urine for up to 7
days. Wheat germ lectin
inhibits salivary amylase.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Which of the following is the
preferred method for dry slide
technology for LDH measurement?
A. Wacker
B. Wrobleuski La Due
C. Wrobleuski Cabaud
D. Berger broida
 Clinical Chemistry

Wrobleuski La Due
(Reverse/Indirect Reaction)
reactive at pH=7.2
Preferred method for dry slide
technology. (Dean Rodriguez,
2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

α-HBD represents what LD

isoenzyme?
A. LD 1
B. LD 3
C. LD 4
D. LD 5
 Clinical Chemistry
α-HBD (Hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase)
represents the LD 1 activity. (Dean Rodriguez,
2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

What is the major isoenzyme of

CK in normal healthy persons?
A. CK-BB
B. CK-MB
C. CK-MM
D. Mitochondrial-CK
 Clinical Chemistry

CK-MM (94-100%) is the major

isoenzyme in the sera normal
healthy persons.
*CK is LIGHT & pH sensitive.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Single most important analyte in
terms of an abnormality being
immediately life threatening:
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Phosphorus
D. Sodium
 Clinical Chemistry

Potassium - single most

important analyte in terms of
an abnormality being
immediately life threatening.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
For every 100 mg/dl decrease in
blood glucose, serum sodium is
decreased by?
A. 1.6 mmol/L
B. 3.14 mmol/L
C. 2.32 mmol/L
D. 0.5 mmol/L
 Clinical Chemistry

For every 100 mg/dl

decrease in blood glucose,
serum sodium decreases
by 1.6 mmol/L.
 Clinical Chemistry
What is the most common
electrolyte disorder?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
 Clinical Chemistry
Hyponatremia is the most common
electrolyte disorder, defined as reduced
plasma sodium concentration to a value
less than 135 mmol/L.
*IN VITRO HEMOLYSIS – is the most
common, yet not widely known cause of
pseudohyponatremia. (Dean Rodriguez,
2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
What is the most common cause of
hypokalemia?
A. Reduced dietary intake
B. Impaired renal function/renal loss
C. Vomiting
D. Acidosis
 Clinical Chemistry
Impaired renal function/renal loss is the
most common cause of hypokalemia.
Increased renal wasting of potassium can
be attributed to increased activity of
aldosterone or other mineralocorticoids;
primary and secondary
hyperaldosteronism are other causes.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

The only anion to serve as an

enyme activator:
A. Chloride
B. Bicarbonate
C. Lithium
D. Sulfate
 Clinical Chemistry

Chloride is the only anion to

serve as an enyme activator.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
All of the following are not true about
inorganic phosphorus except:
A. Inversely related to calcium
B. Maximally absorbed in the duodenum
C. Essential for the PTH-mediated entry of
calcium into cells
D. Most phosphate in serum is in organic form
 Clinical Chemistry
Inorganic Phosphorus
- Inversely related to calcium
- Maximally absorbed in the JEJUNUM
- Essential for the insulin-mediated entry of glucose
into cells
- Most phosphate in serum is in INORGANIC form.
- Blood collection is affected by circadian rhythm.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
In TIBC measurement, the excess iron is
then removed by the addition of what
reagent to measure the bound iron?
A. EDTA
B. Magnesium carbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. HNO3
 Clinical Chemistry

The excess iron is then

removed by the addition
magnesium carbonate to
measure the bound iron.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:

A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Excess intake of acidic foods
D. B & C
 Clinical Chemistry
Respiratory Acidosis – HYPOventilation
Respiratory Alkalosis – HYPERventilation
Metabolic Acidosis – HYPERventilation
Metabolic Alkalosis – HYPOventilation
(Mam Leah’s Technique) 
 Clinical Chemistry
In Natelson Gasometric Assay, what
functions as an anti-foam reagent?
A. Mercury
B. Caprylic alcohol
C. Lactic acid
D. NaOH & NaHSO3
 Clinical Chemistry
Natelson Gasometer:
Mercury – to produce vacuum
Caprylic alcohol - anti-foam reagent (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
For blood gas analysis, when blood is collected in a
plastic tube, how should it be transported?
A. Transport specimen within 4 hours at room temp.
B. Freshly drawn and transport specimen on ice (4C)
C. Freshly drawn and avoid cold (on ice) temperature
D. Transport specimen within 1 hr at body temp.
If blood collected for blood gas
analysis is done using a plastic
tube, AVOID transporting it at
cold temperature because low
temperature increases solubility
of oxygen. (Bishop)
 Clinical Chemistry
For ACTH measurement, blood
should be collected using?
A. Plastic tube
B. Glass tube
C. Both A & B
D. Heparinized tube
 Clinical Chemistry

For ACTH method, collect

blood in a plastic tube because
ACTH adheres to glass tube
which can alter the
measurement. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

Kober reaction measures:

A. Urinary estrogen
B. 17-ketosteroids
C. 17-hydroxyketosteroids
D. Cathecolamines
 Clinical Chemistry
Kober Reaction measures urinary
estrogen. Uses H2SO4 + hydroquinone = (+)
Reddish brown
Zimmerman measures 17-ketosteroids =
(+) Reddish purple
Porter-Silber measures 17-
hydrocorticosteroids
= (+) Yellow
 Clinical Chemistry

Specimen of choice for

Tacrolimus & Cyclosporine test:
A. WB EDTA
B. Serum
C. Citrated Plasma
D. Heparinized Plasma
 Clinical Chemistry

WB EDTA - Specimen of choice

for Tacrolimus & Cyclosporine
test. (Dean Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

Antibiotic associated w/ Red Man

Syndrome?
A. Sulbactam
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Sulfonamides
D. Vancomycin
 Clinical Chemistry

Vancomycin – only
TROUGH levels are
monitored RED MAN
SYNDROME.
 Clinical Chemistry
An anticonvulsant which is used as a
treatment for congenital
hyperbilirubinemia:
A. Primidone
B. Ethosuximide
C. Neurontin
D. Phenytoin
 Clinical Chemistry

Primidone (Mysoline) used as a

treatment for congenital
hyperbilirubinemia. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
What is the single most important
factor in TDM?
A. Timing of specimen collection
B. Dosage of drug intake
C. drug level before and after intake
D. NOTA
 Clinical Chemistry

Timing of specimen collection

is the single most important
factor in TDM. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
For TDM, which of the following are
unaffected when collected in a SST?
A. Theophylline
B. Salicylate
C. A & B
D. NOTA
 Clinical Chemistry

Theophylline & Salicylate

levels have NO effect on
measurements when
collected in SST. (Dean
Rodriguez, 2014)
 Clinical Chemistry

What should be tested in urine in

cases of Cadmium toxicity?
A. GGT
B. Ionized Cadmium
C. AST
D. LDH
 Clinical Chemistry

GGT in urine are measured

in cases of Cadmium
toxicity. (Dean Rodriguez,
2014)
 Clinical Chemistry
Unable to stand or walk, vomiting
and impaired consciousness:
A. 0.18-0.30
B. 0.27-0.40
C. 0.35-0.50
D. 0.09-0.25
 Clinical Chemistry

0.27-0.40 - Unable to stand or

walk, vomiting and impaired
consciousness.
 Clinical Chemistry

Associated w/ wrist drop or foot

drop:
A. Lead
B. Cyanide
C. Arsenic
D. Carbon monoxide
 Clinical Chemistry

Lead toxicity can damage

nervous system, associated
with wrist drop/foot drop.
(Dean Rodriguez, 2014)