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C0
A
X
B
B
ri
y0
Total Investments A C0
y1
I0 X
Individual 2
Individual 1
C0
max EU (C1 , C2 )
C1 ,C2
*
y1 C
subject to W0 y0 C0
* 1
1 r 1 r
U2
A
U1
C0
W0
With capital market, an agent can move from A to B, reaching a higher utility.
On the capital market line, one’s wealth does not change. But consumption
differs.
The slope of the capital market line is –(1+r).
L1: Capital Market, Consumption and Investments 6
Slope of Capital Market Line
C1*
W0 C *
1 r
0
We have: C1* W0 (1 r ) (1 r )C 0*
And since W0(1+r)=W1. We thus have:
C1* W1 (1 r )C 0*
W1 is the intercept; -(1+r) is the slope of the capital market line.
http://research.stlouisfed.org/fred2/categories/18
W1
Individual 1
P1
Individual 2
C0
P0 W0
• CWS, 1.5&1.6
• What is meant by “separation” in the Fisher’s separation
theorem?