UP MOCK LAW APTITUDE EXAM
2019 QUESTIONAIRE
PREPARED AND COLLATED BY THE UNIVERSITY STUDENT COUNCIL WITH
CONTRIBUTIONS FROM THE ALPHA SIGMA FRATERNITY, DELTA LAMBDA SIGMA
SORORITY, PORTIA SORORITY, SIGMA RHO FRATERNITY, AND WOMEN IN LAW
I. LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY AND
GRAMMAR
INSTRUCTIONS: This part of the exam tests
your mastery in the use and application of
the English language. This includes proper
vocabulary, grammar, sentence
construction, as well as verbal analogies.
This part has 25 items. You are given 20
minutes to answer this test. DO NOT
PROCEED TO THE NEXT PART UNTIL
INSTRUCTED TO BY THE PROCTOR.
VOCABULARY: Select the answer which
best defines the given word.
1. talon
A. frank; straight-forward
B. claw of a bird of prey
C. (person) with superior tastes
D .not paying proper attention
2. liberality
A. free giving; generosity
B. laziness
C. weariness; tiredness
D. person appealing not to reasons
3. husk
A. praise; approval
B. worthless; outside part of anything
C. becoming rotten
D. person dishonestly claiming to
something
4. mundane
A. worldly as opposed to spiritual
commonplace everyday
B. like a seed constituting a source;
originative
C. difficult to comprehend; obscure
D unmoved; feeling no sign of passion
5. depredation
A. prevent from carrying out
B. take in by swallowing
C. put under water liquid sink out of sight
D. plundering
6. proclivity
  a. change to a thick and solid state 
  b. inclination 
  c. lazy slow-moving person 
 d.  authority written order guarantee 
7. pedantic
 a.  publicly mock or ridicule 
  b. bookish showing off learning 
  c. negotiation 
 d.  flag/badge 
SENTENCE CORRECTION: Determine the
error in the given sentence and choose the
item which makes the sentence correct.
8. Most energy analysts now agree that
the costs of building and maintaining
nuclear reactors are too high for nuclear
power to likely prove cheaper than coal
or oil in the long run.
a. too high for nuclear power to
likely
b. high enough for nuclear power to
be unlikely to
c. high enough that it is unlikely
nuclear power will
d. so high that nuclear power is
unlikely to
9. Returning to her province after a
twenty-year absence, the desperate
poverty Jennylyn saw there shocked and
saddened her.
a. the desperate poverty Jennylyn
saw there shocked and saddened
her
b. the desperate poverty Jennylyn
saw there was shocking and also
sad to her
c. Jennylyn, shocked and saddened
by the desperate poverty she saw
there
d. Jennylyn was shocked and
saddened by the desperate
poverty she saw there
10. New Jersey’s is one of the five highest
number of reported cases of Lyme
disease in the United States.
a. New Jersey's is one of the five
highest number of reported
b. New Jersey's is one of the five
highest numbers in reporting
c. New Jersey has a report of one
of the five highest numbers
of
d. New Jersey has one of the five
highest numbers of reported
11. In ancient times, Nubia was the
principal corridor where there were
cultural influences transmitted between
Black Africa and the Mediterranean
basin.
a. where there were cultural
influences transmitted
b. through which cultural influences
were transmitted
c. where there was a transmission of
cultural influences
d. for the transmitting of cultural
Influences
12. Researchers at Cornell University have
demonstrated that homing pigeons can
sense changes in the earth's magnetic
field, see light waves that people cannot
see, detect low-frequency sounds from
miles away, sense changes in air
pressure, and can identify familiar odors.
a. sense changes in air pressure,
and can identify familiar odors
b. can sense changes in air
pressure, and can identify familiar
odors
c. sense changes in air pressure,
and identify familiar odors
d. air pressure changes can be
sensed, and familiar odors
Identified
13. The end result of her laziness was a
failing grade.
a. end
b. result
c. A or B
d. neither A nor B
14. Many artists protested against the
censorship of the exhibit.
a. protest against
b. protest to
c. protested
d. protested for
15. You must thoroughly discuss what the
theory is about and its application. 20. SPECIES : ORGANISM ::
a. the process of it a. specialty : physician
b. how it is applied b. origin : idea
c. how its process is c. family : ancestry
d. no error d. genre : literature

16. A student must learn, not only to read, 21.. OUTFOX : STRATEGY ::
but to assess, examine, and how to apply a. outrun : speed
theory. b. outlast : force
a. but how to assess, examine, and c. outdo : trickery
apply theory. d. defeat : stamina
b. but to assess, to examine, and
how to apply theory. 22. COAX : BLANDISHMENTS ::
c. but to assess, examine, and a. amuse : platitudes
apply theory. b. compel : threats
d. but the assessment, examination, c. deter : tidings
and application of theory. d. batter : insults

17. One must learn the basic 23. ERRATA : BOOKS : : FLAWS:
fundamentals of basketball to be able to a. Manuscripts
write a commentary on it. b. Metals
a. must learn the fundamental c. Speech
d. Charter
basics of
b. must fundamentally learn the
24. TRIAL : JURY ::
basics of basketball
a. dispute : arbiter
c. must learn the basics of basketball b. poll : contestant
d. must learn the fundamentals to c. championship : spectator
Basketball d. conference : speaker

25. IMPLAUSIBLE : ABSURD ::

VERBAL ANALOGY: Determine the
relationship between the two words and
select the given set of words with the same
pattern.
a. shadowy : illuminated
b. flamboyant : public
c. surprising : shocking
d. superfluous : truncated

18. VEGETATE : ACTIVE ::

a. resist : beaten
b. mope : gloomy ----------DO NOT PROCEED------------
c. grow : small
d. accept : questioning

19. PROPONENT : THEORY ::

a. non-believer : sin
b. traitor : country
c. adherent : belief
d. scientist : hypothesis

II. READING COMPREHENSION AND
CRITICAL THINKING
INSTRUCTIONS: This part of the exam tests
your mastery in reading and critically
understanding texts, passages, and
selections. This part has 30 items. You are
given 40 minutes to answer this test. DO
NOT PROCEED TO THE NEXT PART UNTIL
INSTRUCTED TO BY THE PROCTOR.
A. CRITICAL THINKING
I. Excerpt from “The Crucible of Free
Speech” from Florin T. Hilbay
The test of a society’s commitment to
freedom of expression lies in its defense
of marginalized forms of speech. I say in
class, free speech is for speech that you
hate, not for speech that you like. The
logic of the principle is simple: we don’t
need to protect society’s treasured ideas
and institutions—they pose no danger to
us; we pose no danger to them. It is for
those forms of expression that disturb,
offend, and even anger us that we actually
need freedom of expression, as these types
of speech are those in danger of being
suppressed if society were not serious
enough about a democratic culture.
Freedom of speech applies to political
speech as much as to artistic expression.
This should be emphatically true in the case
of the Philippines, because of Lino Brocka’s
contribution to our present Constitution.
During the deliberations in the Constitution
Commission, the famed director apparently
insisted on including the phrase “of
expression” to the standard free speech
clause to make it read: “no law shall be
passed abridging the freedom of speech, of
expression, or of the press....”
QUESTIONS:
26. Which among the following
statements would the author most
likely make?
a. “People are free to make any obscene
gesture they want anywhere they want.”
b. “Mocking the government in posters
and pasting them in public areas are
impotent subversive acts.”
c. “The government has no right to
compel artists not to mock certain
groups of people.”
d. “Writers should not criticize private
individuals because they cannot fight
back in substantial manner.”
27. Which among the following laws
would the author likely support?
a. A law imposing punishing editors of
newspapers for publishing obscene
articles
b. A law establishing guidelines for the
content of art exhibits
c. A law dissolving the Movie and
Television Review and Classification
Board (MTRCB)
d. A law requiring F. Sionil Jose’s novels
to be part of the high school curriculum
28. The author would likely regard the
following as protected forms of
speech except:
a. A painting depicting President
Noynoy Aquino as a puppet controlled
by Uncle Sam
b. A sculpture of Emilio Aguinaldo
stabbing Andres Bonifacio at the back
c. A homily of a Catholic priest about the
divinity of Jesus Christ
d. None of the above
29. The Author in the entire passage
suggests that:
a. The freedom of speech is absolute
b. Only the speech we hate is entitled to
the protection of the constitutional
guarantee to freedom of expression
c. The speech we hate are those that
disturb, offend, and anger us
d. The freedom of speech covers forms
of expression that seek to offend us
II. DOE monitors movement of oil
prices, says Malacañang
MANILA, Sept. 8 -- Malacañ ang assured
the public that the Department of Energy
(DOE) is closely monitoring the oil
companies to ensure that oil price increases
would be justified. In a regular news
briefing held in Malacañ ang on Thursday,
Presidential Spokesperson Edwin Lacierda
said the DOE regularly monitors the oil
prices to ensure if these accurately reflect
the prices of petroleum products in the
international market.
“We follow the market forces. Ang
mahalaga ay namo-monitor ng DOE ang
pagtaas at alam nila kung anong range ang
dapat itaas at kung anong range ang
ibababa,” Lacierda said. While the oil
players had imposed a series of oil price
increases, Lacierda said, “Over the weekend
yata bababa
ulit iyong presyo ng langis.”
Lacierda said the Palace will discuss with
Energy Secretary Rene Almendras whether
the government will continue the Pantawid
Pasada Program of giving subsidy to
legitimate passenger jeepneys, buses and
tricycles franchise owners to help them
cope with the impact of the oil price hikes.
PhilippineNews Agency
QUESTIONS
30. What is the news article refusing to
state?
a. Oil price increases are justified
b. The government is helpless in
stopping oil price increases
c. The price of petroleum products will
not drop
d. The government is helping drivers
cope with the oil price hikes
31. What is the role of the government
as implied by the article?
a. Passively monitor the rise and fall of
oil prices
b. Help public utility drivers cope with
the increase in oil prices
c. Keep the price of petroleum products
at an affordable range
d. Regulate the oil industry
32. The news article shows bias
towards:
a. Oil companies
b. The public
c. The government
d. Transport groups

III. “The fact that superior service can
generate a competitive advantage for a
company does not mean that every
attempt at improving service will create
such an advantage. Investments in
service, like those in production and
distribution, must be balanced against
other types of investments on the basis
of direct, tangible benefits such as cost
reduction and increased revenues. If a
company is already effectively on a par
with its competitors because it provides
service that avoids a damaging reputation
and keeps customers from leaving at an
unacceptable rate, then investment in
higher service levels may be wasted, since
service is a deciding factor for customers
only in
extreme situations. This truth was not
apparent to managers of one
regional bank, which failed to improve
its competitive position despite its
investment in reducing the time a
customer had to wait for a teller. The
bank managers did not recognize the
level of customer inertia in the consumer
banking industry that arises from the
inconvenience of switching banks. Nor
did they analyze their service improvement
to determine whether it would attract new
customers by producing a new standard of
service that would excite customers or by
proving difficult for competitors to copy.
The only merit of the improvement was
that it could easily be described to
customers.“
QUESTIONS
33. The primary purpose of the
passage is to
a. contrast possible outcomes of a type of
business investment
b. suggest more careful evaluation of a type
of business investment
c. illustrate various ways in which a
type of business investment could
fail to enhance revenues
d. trace the general problems of a
company to a certain type of
business investment
34. According to the passage,
Investments in service are
comparable to investments in
production and distribution in
terms of the contrast possible
outcomes of a type of business
investment
a. tangibility of the benefits that they
tend to confer
b. increased revenues that they
ultimately produce
c. basis on which they need to be
weighed
d. insufficient analysis that managers
devote to them
35. The passage suggests which of the
following about service provided by
the regional bank prior to its
investment in enhancing that service?
a. It enabled the bank to retain
customers at an acceptable rate
b. It threatened to weaken the bank's
competitive position with respect to
other regional banks
c. It had already been improved after
having caused damage to the bank's
reputation in the past.
d. It was slightly superior to that of the
bank's regional competitors.
B. READING COMPREHENSION
The potato, like other root crops, has an
unearned reputation in some countries as
an inferior food, or a port person’s staple.
While roots are the main ingredient of a
diet of half a million people, the potato’s
nutritive content of protein, fiber,
minerals, and vitamin B1, B2, and C hardly
 makes it inferior.Medical researchers
report that potatoes are even better than
milk for malnourished children, who often
cannot digest milk. Potatoes provide a
high-quality protein similar to that in
dairy products. Unfortunately, the potato
is still out of reach of a poor person’s
budget in many developingcountries such
as Indonesia and the Philippines.
QUESTIONS
36. According to this passage, why might
potatoes be better than milk for children
who are improperly nourished?
a. Potatoes contain quite a bit of calcium.
b. Potatoes have more B vitamins than milk.
c. These children often cannot assimilate
milk.
d. These children often cannot find a supply.
37. The potato __________.
a. does not deserve its bad reputation
b. is the main food for half a million people
c. is not available in many developing
countries
d. can hardly be called nutritious
Tall children score slightly higher on
intelligence tests and perform somewhat
better academically than their shorter
classmates, perhaps because more is
expected of them, researchers for a National
Health Examination survey have found. The
magnitude of the difference is not large,
however, and certainly not worth giving
children growth hormones to make them
taller, said Dr. Darrell Wilson of Stanford
University. He and his colleagues concluded
there was a definite link between height
and scores on tests of both intelligence and
achievement. The association remained
even after controlling for other factors,
including socioeconomic status, birth order,
family size and rate of physical maturity. Dr.
Wilson said the difference was small but
significant.
The researchers based their findings on
data from a study involving nearly 14,000
children from six to 17 years old.
38. One cause the researchers suggested for
the connection between height and test
scores was the tall children’s __________.
a. greater rate of physical maturity
b. increased growth hormone production
c. response to greater expectations
d. general health and better nutrition
39. The researchers found that the
difference between the tests scores of tall
and short children __________.
a. can be linked to socioeconomic status.
b. is meaningful although it is small.
c. appears to be inexplicable.
d. is worthless for measuring intelligence.
The Pronunciation Research Unit, which is
made up of three linguists and clerk, is
charged with upholding the standard of
spoken language at the British Broadcasting
Corporation (BBC). Today, the unit
concerns itself mostly with proper nouns,
leaving ordinary vocabulary and grammar
to the discretion of the announcers, who
deliver the 2,000 hours of BBC broadcasting
each week. Though many stills peak the
Queen’s English, or the plummy, southern
English known as received pronunciation,
there is a good deal of room for variation
now.
40. The author suggests that __________.
a. the BBC broadcasters have learned to be
very discreet.
b. the pronunciation of people from the
south of England is changing.
c. nouns are the least problematic in terms
of pronunciation
d. accents other than received
pronunciation are not acceptable.
Text:
1. It is just before dawn and the garden
cross spider is getting ready for another hot
summer’s day. It is still dark, and being
cold-blooded, he is feeling rather chilly. But
he gets up and eats a few key strands of his
web, and then sets about spinning a new
one to serve for the coming day.
2. Theories abound as to why garden cross
spiders (and most other web-building
spiders) should find this seemingly
pointless daily ritual necessary, and why
they should do it in the cold pre-dawn.
Researchers at Oxford University believe
they have found at least part of the answer.
The spiders are not eating their webs; they
are drinking them.
3. Water s a big problem for spiders. Their
lungs must be kept moist, but they lose a lot
of liquid during the course of the day.
Hunting spiders can wander off for a drink
if they are thirsty, but web- builders must
stick around – as It were – for their prey.
Worse still, their webs are generally built in
exposed places – good for catching flies, but
bad for getting dried out by the wind. Flies
are juicy, and satisfy thirst as well as
hunger, but if they are scarce, the spiders
have a problem.
4. The researchers found that the webs
catch a lot of moisture, as well as flies. By
eating its web, a spider can take up enough
water to restore 10 per cent of its daily
respiratory loss. Webs are consumed in the
humid pre-dawn because this is when they
are wettest. And, as a bonus, a web sun in
the moist morning air is better able to soak
up water the following day.
5. The water taken up by the spider silk also
helps capture its prey. The glue with which
the spiders coat their webs is stickier when
wet. Maximizing the water content of the
thread thus increases the chances of
catching and keeping unwary flies. It also
contributes to the extraordinary elasticity
which shows a web to intercept fling insects
without snapping.
6. Spiders’ webs are made from two
different types of silk – structural and
capture thread. Structural silk is rigid and
gives the web strength. It is the capture silk
that does the clever tricks. It can stretch out
without strain by up to four times its
original length to absorb the momentum of
an incoming fly. It then springs back
without sagging when the strain is
removed.
7. The presence of water is crucial to these
properties. The researchers had previously
found that a liquid droplet on the stretched
silk acts as a miniature windlass, reeling it
back in by the power of its surface tension.
They also knew that the water was
necessary for te capture web to be able to
stretch in the first place. But they did not
know why.
8. So they enlisted the help of some
chemists from Cambridge, who discovered
that the capture web has regions of highly
mobile molecules – more like a liquid than a
solid. The chemists believe that these
molecules are flexible “springs” connecting
rigid crystalline regions of the silk. With a
little more research, they should be able to
work out the composition of both the
flexible and the rigid units. Armed with this
information, they might even be able to
produce their own drinkable stretch
material one day.
Now mark the one phrase which best
completes the statement in the multiple
choice questions which follow.
41. Spider’s webs __________.
a. are eaten when it rains heavily
b. are eaten for their water content
c. are less efficient when wet
d. absorbs less moisture early in the day
42. Which of the following is NOT cited as a
reason why web-building spiders get
thirsty?
a. They cannot leave their webs to look for
water.
b. They frequently spin their webs in places
unprotected from the wind.
c. A shortage of flies can leave them with
insufficient moisture.
d. They get very sticky after they have spun
their webs.
43. The capture web__________.
a. retains its elasticity after impact.
b. can absorb a fly four times its own size.
c. gives the web its main strength
d. does not break when the prey is removed.
44. The word ‘it’ in paragraph 7 means
__________.
a. a liquid droplet
b. stretched silk
c. a miniature windlass
d. water
45. The chemists from Cambridge __________.
a. discovered how to make even better
stretch material
b. discovered the existence of flexible and
rigid units in the capture web
c. believe that the function of the flexible
units is to stabilize the web
d. believe that the rigid crystalline areas
could be made more flexible
University student enrolment passes half-
million mark
FOR THE FIRST TIME in history, the
number of full time students at the
Canadian universities has passed the half-
million mark, reports the Association of
Universities and Colleges of Canada (AUCC).
This survey, just completed, of fall
enrolments for the 1989-90 academic year
was conducted by the AUCC in cooperation
with the Association of Atlantic Universities
(AAU) and the Council of Ontario
Universities (COU).
Preliminary figures show an increase in the
total number of fulltime students of 3.2%
over the same period last year, making
1989- 90 the tenth straight record year for
full-time enrolments. Ironically, the 1980s
were widely expected to be a period of
declining enrolments.
As in years past most of this projected
increase is due to substantial growth in full-
time undergraduate enrolments. Unlike
1988-89, however, all provinces share in
the growth: the two provinces that
recorded declines in last year’s survey,
Saskatchewan (-2.4%) and Alberta (-1.5%),
report increases of 1.8% and 3.2%
respectively. Enrolment quotas, limited
growth policies and higher admission
standards at several of these provinces’
largest universities led to last year’s
declines. These measures are still in place
but with some changes in enrolment
ceilings and procedures for applying quotas.
Similarly, the number of first year full-time
undergraduates are higher in all provinces
than they were at the same time last year. In
this category also, Alberta and
Saskatchewan report significant increases
in this year’s survey, compared to a
decrease last year.
The AUCC survey also shows a small
increase in the number of fulltime
undergraduate foreign students studying in
Canada.
The Association of Universities and Colleges
of Canada has as its membership 88
universities and university level colleges. It
promotes cooperation among institutions of
higher education and represents the
university community to government and to
national and international bodies
concerned with university education and
research.
46. Approximately how many full-time
students attended university in the 1989-90
academic year?
a. over ½ million
b. over 1 million
c. No answer
d. All are correct
47. True or False: The AUCC survey also
shows a small increase in the number of
full-time undergraduate foreign students
studying in Canada.
a. True
b. False
c. No answer
d. All are correct
48. What was the % of increase in
enrolment for full-time students in 1989-90
a. 3.6%
b. 3.2%
c. 3.3%
d. No answer
49. What is one reason stated in the text for
last year’s declines?
a. Enrolment quotas
b. Limited growth policies
c. High admission standards
d. All are correct
50. How many institutions are members of
AUCC? Reading Comprehension
a. 88
b. 86
c. No answer
d. All are correct
Today, bicycles are elegantly simple
machines that are common around the
world. Many people ride bicycles for
recreation, whereas others use them as a
means of transportation. The first bicycle
was invented in Germany in 1818. Because
it was made of wood, it wasn’t very strong
nor did it have pedals. Riders moved it by
pushing their feet against the ground.
In 1839, Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish
blacksmith, invented a much better bicycle.
Macmillan’s machine had iron-covered
wheels to keep them from getting worn
down. He also used foot-operated levers,
similar to pedals, so his bicycle could be
ridden at a quick pace. It didn’t look much
like the modem bicycle, though, because its
back wheel was substantially larger than its
front wheel. Although Macmillan’s bicycles
could be ridden easily, they were never
produced in large numbers.
In 1861, Frenchman Pierre Michaux and his
brother Ernest invented a bicycle with an
improved pedal mechanism. They called
their bicycle a velocipede, but most people
called it a “bone shaker” because of the
effect of the wood and iron frame. Despite
the impolite nickname, the velocipede was a
hit. After a few years,
the Michaux family was making hundreds of
the machines annually, mostly for fun-
seeking young people.
Ten years later, James Starley , an English
inventor, made several innovations that
revolutionized bicycle design. He made the
front wheel many times larger than the
back wheel, put a gear on the pedals to
make the bicycle more efficient, and
lightened the wheels by using wire spokes.
Although this bicycle
was much lighter and less tiring to ride, it
was still clumsy, extremely top-heavy, and
ridden mostly for entertainment.
It wasn’t until 1874 that the first truly
modern bicycle appeared on the scene.
Invented by another Englishman, H. J.
Lawson, the safety bicycle would look
familiar to today’s cyclists. The safety
bicycle had equal-sized wheels, which made
it easier to ride. Lawson also attached a
chain to the pedals to drive the back wheel.
By 1893, the safety bicycle had been further
improved with air-filled rubber tires, a
diamond-shaped frame, and easy braking.
With the improvements provided by
Lawson; bicycled became extremely
popular and useful for transportation.
Today they are built, used and enjoyed all
over the world.
51. There is enough information in this
passage to show that
a. several people contributed to the
development of the modern bicycle
b. only a few velocipedes built by the
Michaux family are still in existence.
c. for most of the nineteenth century, few
people rode bicycles just for fun.
d. bicycles with wheels of different sizes
cannot be ridden easily.
transportation
b. describe the problems that bicycle
manufacturers encounter
c. compare bicycles used for fun with
bicycles used for transportation
d. tell readers a little about the history of
the bicycle
54. Macmillan added iron rims to the tires
of his bicycles to
a. add weights to the bicycle
b. make the tires last longer
c. make the ride less bumpy
d. make the ride less tiring
55. Read the following sentence from the
fourth paragraph:
Ten years later, James Starley, an English
inventor, made several innovations that
revolutionized bicycle design.
As it is used in the sentence, the underlined
word revolutionized most nearly means
a. cancelled
b. changed drastically
c. became outdated
d. exercised control over
---------DO NOT PROCEED------------

52. The first person to use a gear on bicycles

was
a. H.J. Lawson
b. Kirkpatrick Macmillan
c. Pierre Michaux
d. James Starley

53. This passage was most likely written in

order to
a. persuade readers to use bicycles for
 57. Six pairs of shoes cost as much as 1 coat,
2 pairs of jeans cost as much as 3 pairs of
shoes, and 4 pairs of socks cost as much as
one pair of jeans. How many coats could I
exchange for 64 pairs of socks?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. None of the above

58. The clock in my lounge room is 10

minutes slower than the clock on my phone,
which is 6 minutes slow. My train always
leaves 6 minutes early, although it is
scheduled for 8:55am. It takes me 20
minutes to get to the train stop. What time
must I leave, according to my lounge room
clock, in order to catch my train?

A. 8:49am
B. 8.35am
C. 8.23am
D. 8.29am
E. None of the above.

59. A container of soft drink was shared

between four work teams of employees.
The first team took 1/3 of the soft drink,
the second team took 1⁄2 of what was
III. NUMERICAL REASONING left, and the remaining two teams
shared the remaining soft drink equally
INSTRUCTIONS: This part of the exam tests between them. If there were originally
240 litres of soft drink, how many litres
your mastery in Mathematics. This part has
of soft drink did the third team get?
30 items. You are given 50 minutes to
answer this test. DO NOT PROCEED TO THE A. 20
NEXT PART UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO BY B. 40
THE PROCTOR. C. 80
D. 160
56. One container has 28 kilograms of flour E. None of the above
and another has 4 kilograms. How many
60. Working mothers who earn $30,000 or
kilograms must be taken from one
less per year receive a rebate on before and
container, so each has an equal amount of
after school care of 75%, plus a school
flour?
bonus of $6,000 that only applies to this
A. 4 category of earnings. Each dollar earned
B. 12 above this amount and up to $40,000
C. 16 reduces the rebate to 55%, and for any
D. 24 amount above this, the rebate drops to
E. None of the above 30%. There are three mothers – Jade earns
$40,001, Emily earns $38,000 and Lucy
earns $29,550. If the cost of before and after
school care is $10,000 per year, what A. $30
amount of money does the person have who B. $56
has the least amount of money left after C. $50
paying for before and after school care? D. $60
E. None of the above
A. $33,000
B. $30,000 65. If a piece of blueberry pie costs $4 and a
C. $40,001 piece of apple pie costs 50% more than a
D. $40,000 piece of blueberry pie, how much does a
E. None of the above piece of apple pie cost?

61. Percy rides his scooter to the station,

which is 10 kilometers away. If Percy rides
at a steady pace of 20 kilometers per hour, A. $3
how many minutes will it take him to ride B. $2
from home to the station? C. $5
D. $6
E. None of the above
A. 2
B. 4 66. Oliver has a box of toy cars, but he is not
C. 40 sure how many he has. If he arranges the
D. 30 cars in groups of four, he has three left over.
E. None of the above If he arranges them in groups of 3, he has
two left over and there are three left over
62. If Bert had 3 cents more he would have when he puts them in groups of five. Oliver
twice as much as Georgia. If he had 4 cents definitely doesn’t have any more than 30
less, he would have the same amount. How cars, so how many does he have?
many cents does Bert have?
A. 27
A. 4 B. 28
B. 7 C. 21
C. 11 D. 22
D. 14 E. None of the above
E. None of the above
67. From home, Mary’s work is two thirds
63. There are 72 apples on my tree at home; along the way to training. Training is 2.5km
38 are red, and the rest are green. I know 46 from work. Mary normally goes to work,
of the apples have worms in them, so I can’t then training and then home again.
use them for cooking. What is the maximum However, today she forgot her shoes. How
number of green apples I could have left to far will Mary travel in total today if she has
cook with? to go home before training to get her shoes?

A. 0 A. 28km
B. 8 B. 15km
C. 12 C. 20km
D. 26 D. 25km
E. None of the above E. None of the above

64. Rebecca must give 5 out of every 6
dollars she earns each week to the tax
department. If Rebecca gets to keep $10 this
week, how much did she earn in total this
week?
68. A sequence of numbers is changing by
the same amount each time. The third,
fourth and fifth numbers are 6 , 2 , and -2.
What is the sum of the first eight items in
the sequence?
 A. -64 kilograms. From another supplier, Robert,
B. 0 she can buy small quantities of corn cobs
C. 70 (100 or less) for $1 per cob or larger
D. 14 quantities (more than 100) for $0.60 per
E. None of the above cob. Mandy charges all of her customers by
weight, so she gets $5 per kilogram of corn
cobs or $1.25 for an individual corn cob. If
Mandy is going to sell over 100 kilograms of
69. It takes 1.5 litres of sugar soap to wash a corn cobs today, what is the best profit per
square meter of ceiling and 0.5 litres of corn cob she can make?
sugar soap to wash a square meter of wall.
Nikki’s room is 4 meters high and each wall A. $0.65
is 5 meters wide. There is one window, B. $0.85
which is 4m2 and a door, which is 9m 2. How C. $0.80
much sugar soap will Nikki need, assuming D. $0.60
she does not wash the door or window (a E. None of the above
room has four walls and a roof)?
73. A motorbike race was scheduled to start
A. 33.5 litres at 4.10pm; however, it started 10 minutes
B. 67 litres behind schedule. If the motorbike that came
C. 71 litres first finished one hour and fifteen minutes
D. 77.5 litres after the race began, and the motorbike that
E. None of the above came in second place finished 15 minutes
after this, at what time did the motorbike
70. Two numbers are each multiplied by that came second cross the finish line?
themselves to give two new numbers. The
difference between these two new numbers A. 5.30am
is less than ten; the difference between the B. 5.40pm
two original numbers was one. The two C. 5.50pm
original numbers added together was more D. 4.30pm
than 7. What is one of the original numbers? E. None of the above

A. 1 74. The Olympic record time for running the

B. 2 endurance event was 4 hours and 40
C. 3 minutes. Amanda recently broke that
D. 4 record, running a time of 3 hours and 20
E. None of the above minutes. What fraction of the original
record time was Amanda’s time?
71. The novels on Suzanne’s bookshelf have
a combined total of 672 pages. If each novel A. 5/9
has 4 chapters and there are 6 pages per B. 6/7
chapter, how many novels are there C. 5/7
altogether? D. 6/9
E. None of the above
A. 26
B. 24 75. Grandma’s Anzac cookie mixture has
C. 28 eight parts flour and six parts sugar. If
D. 27 Grandma needs to make 28 kilograms of the
E. None of the above Anzac cookie mixture for a party, how many
kilograms of flour will she need?
72. Mandy finds she can get a discount on
corn cobs if she buys in bulk. She can get A. 16
100 kilograms of corn cobs for $160 from B. 10
Matt, on condition that she buys at least 100 C. 12
 D. 7 A. 200
E. None of the above B. 300
C. 400
76. In a jar of lollipops there are 6 more D. 600
orange lollipops than green ones and there E. 1050
is only one red lollipop. If there are 47
lollipops in the jar, how many orange ones
are there? 81. If a machine can produce 180 items per
hour, how many could 2 machines produce
A. 20 in 25 minutes?
B. 40
C. 46 A. 50
D. 25 B. 60
E. None of the above C. 75
D. 150
77. How many gold coins are there in a jar E. 240
of 88 coins, if there are 1/3 as many silver
coins as gold coins? 82. A telesales team of 12 are expected to
make 2,400 calls a day. In fact they manage
A. 44 2,640 calls each day for a whole week. What
B. 66 is the percentage change between the daily
C. 33 target number of calls and the actual
D. 22 number achieved?
E. None of the above
A. 5% increase
78. If 50 calls are made each hour and of B. 10% decrease
these 3 results in a sale, how many hours C. 10% increase
would it take to achieve 57 sales? D. 12% increase
E. 0%
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 12 83. If a litre of a liquid product is made by
D. 19 mixing 3 liquids in the ratio of 4: 2: 1 and
E. 21 you need 35 litres of the product, how many
litres of the first ingredient do you need?

79. If 70 out of 520 guests at a hotel were A. 5

children and 4/5 of the adult guests were B. 10
men, how many women stayed at the hotel? C. 18
D. 25
A. 90 E. 20
B. 104
C. 120
D. 220 84. An aircraft flies 930 miles in 75
E. 360 8minutes. How many miles does it fly in
4 hours 45 minutes assuming a constant
speed?
80. To reach target a sales team must
achieve on average 150 sales a month. At A. 3,112
the end of the third quarter, 1,200 sales B. 3,477
have been achieved. How many sales per C. 3,512
month must they realize during the last D. 3,522
quarter to reach target? E. 3,534
85. City B is 8 miles east of City A, City C is 6
miles north of City B. City D is 16 miles east 87. 6 8 17 21 28 34 39
of City C, and City E is 12 miles north of City
D. What is the distance between City A to
a. 47
City E?
b. 42
A. 10 miles c. 49
B. 20 miles d. 46
C. 24 miles
D. 30 miles E. 42 miles 88. 52 54 57 61 66

a. 73
----------DO NOT PROCEED-------- b. 71
c. 70
d. 72

89. 7 4 8 13 7 14

a. 7
b. 17
c. 23
d. 22

90. 7 5 15 12 21 17

a. 12
b. 9
c. 22
IV. ABSTRACT REASONING d. 25

INSTRUCTIONS: This part of the exam tests 91. 78 77 75 80 73 82

your mastery in ABSTRACT REASONING
including pattern recognition. This part has a. 70
30 items. You are given 40 minutes to b. 81
answer this test. DO NOT PROCEED TO THE c. 71
NEXT PART UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO BY d. 84
THE PROCTOR.
92. B H M Q T V
QUANTITATIVE: Directions: Select from
the given choices which should come next a. W
in the following series: b. V
c. R
86. 31 28 33 27 32 23 d. S

a. 18 93. JZ KY LX MW
b. 28
c. 14 a. NU
d. 35 b. MV
c. NW A. 512
d. NV B. 1024
C. 1053
94. 56D 60E 64F 68G D. 65536

a. 70F ABSTRACT: Select from the given images

b. 72F the image which should come next given the
c. 70H pattern:
d. 72H
101. Which figure completes the series?
95. a+b d-e g+h j-k 102. Which figure completes the series?

a. m+n
b. n+o
c. p+q
d. m-n

96. Y V S P M J ?

A. F
B. G
C. H 103. Which figure completes the series?
D. I

97. D N G M J L M ?
104. Which figure completes the series?
A. K
B. L
C. N
105. Which figure completes the series?
D. O

98. ABCZABCYABC???
106. Which figure completes the statement?
A. BCD
B. ABW
C. XAB
D. ABC

99. (1-14) (3-12) (5-10) (7-8) (?-?) 107. Which figure completes the statement?

A. (8-7)
B. (41-1)
C. (9-6)
D. (10-5)
108. Which figure completes the statement?
100. 2 4 16 256 ?
 --------DO NOT PROCEED-----------

109. Which figure completes the statement?

110. Which figure completes the statement?

111. Which figure is the odd one out?

112.Which figure is the odd one out?

113.Which figure is the odd one out?

114. Which figure is the odd one out?

115. Which figure is the odd one out?


V. LOGICAL REASONING
INSTRUCTIONS: This part of the exam tests
your mastery in LOGICAL REASONING. This
part has 19 items. You are given 20 mins
to answer this test. DO NOT PROCEED TO
THE NEXT PART UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO
BY THE PROCTOR.
116. In a nationwide survey, 80% of
dermatologists use Radiance facial soap.
Which one of the following would most
weaken this endorsement for facial
soap?
a. Only ten dermatologists
were surveyed.
b. The dermatologists
endorsed the product for
free.
c. Only five dermatologists do
not use the product.
d. Radiance facial soap smells
better than the other
brands.
e. Radiance facial soap comes
in a better packaging than
the other brands.
117. In Mary and Susan’s science class,
everyone likes chemistry or biology or
both, but Susan does not like biology.
Which of the following statements
cannot be true?
a. Susan likes chemistry and
biology.
b. Mary only likes chemistry.
c. Susan hates chemistry and
biology.
d. None of the students like
biology.
e. Students who do not like
chemistry like biology.
118. Floyd: The big race is tomorrow
and I’m still behind Alberto. I suppose
I’ll just have to take this synthetic
testosterone. I am well aware of the
risks and implications if I get caught, but
I absolutely have to win.
Lance: I don’t think that would bode
well for you. Have you ever thought
of what that will do to your career?
Just ride as much as you are able.
You may or may not win, but one
thing you will never lose is respect.
Lance attacks Floyd’s argument by
a. Attacking his character
b. Applying personal pressure
c. Implying that good triumphs
over evil
d. Presenting another
alternative
e. Suggesting a positive
approach
119. Given that this car is a dud, it must
be a lemon.
The foregoing conclusion can be
properly drawn if it is true that
a. Lemons are generally
serviceable.
b. Only lemons are duds.
c. Other lemons are not totally
duds.
d. Few other lemons are duds.
e. Most other duds are lemons.
For questions 5 to 6:
“Even the smallest café in Paris serves
better coffee than the largest coffee chain in
Seattle,” the visiting connoisseur said. He
was complaining about the quality of the
coffee being served in Seattle. “I was trained
in France,” he added, “so I know coffee very
well. But in America, you only have baristas.
You can tell just by looking at the people
who drink coffee. In Seattle, people line-up,
buy their coffee and go. But in France,
people take the time to relax and savor the
flavour of coffee.”
120. The connoisseur’s conclusions
depend on all the following EXCEPT:
a. If the coffee is good, people
will stay and savor the
flavour.
b. All good coffee connoisseurs
are trained in France.
c. The norm for good coffer is
France.
d. The quality of the coffee can
be determined by the quality
of the café.
e. Nobody hangs out in coffee
chains in America.
121. All of the following are errors in
the reasoning of the speaker in the
passage above EXCEPT:
a. The speaker claims that he
knows how to make great
coffee.
b. The argument takes as fact
what is unproven personal
opinion.
c. The argument assumes that
the largest coffee chain in
Seattle represents American
coffee.
d. The speaker claims
complete knowledge of a
large number of cafes in
Paris.
e. The examples the speaker
cites of good and bad coffee
are vague and unspecific.
122. The presence of the gas X is a
necessary condition, but not a sufficient
condition, for the existence of life on the
planet O. On the basis of the foregoing,
which of the following would also be true?
a. . If no life exists on O, X is the only gas
present.
b. If no life exists on O, X cannot be present.
c. If life exists on O, then the gas X may or
may not be present.
D. If life exists on O, then only the gas X is
present.
e.. If life exists on O, then the gas X is
present.
123. The absence of the liquid Y is a
sufficient condition for the cessation of
life on the planet M, but it is not a
necessary condition. On the basis of the
foregoing, which of the following
would also be true?
A. If life on M ceased to exist, there would
have been an absence of the liquid Y.
B. If all liquid Y were removed from M, life
there would surely perish.
C. If all liquid Y were removed from M, life
there may or may not cease.
D. If all liquid Y were removed from M, the
cessation of life would depend upon other
conditions.
E. Life on M cannot cease as long as Y is
present.
124. Gilas Pilipinas practices twice a
day and simulates game situations to
minimize their errors come game time.
This statement is an example of which
one of the following assumptions?
A. Practice makes perfect.
B. To err is human.
C. Practice allows one to prepare for real
conditions.
D. People make mistakes; that’s why they
put erasers on pencils
E. Simulation is the same as the actual
event.
125. For the post-election party, no
actor or actress was invited to
Malacanang Palace unless he or she
was more than 30 years old. No one
older than 30 was both an
actor/actress and invited to the palace.
Which one of the following conclusions
can be logically drawn from the
statements above?
A. No one but actors or actresses were
invited to the palace.
B. Only persons older than 30 were invited
to the palace.
C. No one over 30 was invited to the palace.
D. No actor or actress was invited to the
palace.
E. Some actors or actresses over 30 were
invited to the palace.
126. No one who is a member of the
basketball team takes any banned
substance. No first-rate athlete takes
banned substances. Therefore, only
first-rate athletes become members of
the basketball team.
The reasoning here is in error since
the conclusion does not allow for
the possibility of
A. A non-substance abuser on the basketball
team who is a second-rate athlete
B. A first-rate athlete who doesn’t play
basketball
C. An ex-substance abuser who is a first-rate
athlete
D. A non-substance abuser who is not a
first-rate athlete
E. A substance abuser who is a first-rate
basketball player
127. Joaquin: Crop circles are turning
up all over the place with the designs
too intricate to be done by human
hands. Strange lights have been seen in
the sky on the night before the crop
circles were discovered, and no human
suspects have ever been found. They
must be created by aliens.
Mel: Maybe it’s some weird cult or
some misfits playing a prank. I don’t
know all the facts of the story, and I
have no certain explanation myself,
but it is unlikely that extra-
terrestrial beings would go to the
extent of making useless crop
circles.
Mel responds to Joaquin’s
explanation by
a. Demonstrating that his
conclusion is inconsistent with
the evidence that is advanced in
its support
b. Questioning the accuracy of the
evidence on which his argument
depends.
c. Providing evidence that
contradicts his conclusion
d. Refusing to deal with the logic of
his argument
e. Offering counter-explanations
128. If people would use soap and
water instead of toilet paper, less
paper would be manufactured. So we
should replace toilet paper with soap
and water, and the forests of the world
will not be consumed so rapidly. This
argument depends on which one of the
following assumptions?
A. Using soap and water will consume
resources less valuable than forests.
B. The cost of soap and water may be less
than toilet paper.
C. The pace at which the forests is being
consumed should be reduced.
D. The economic advantages of using soap
and water outweigh those of using toilet
paper.
E. People are rarely willing to give up a
convenience for an advantage that is not
immediately perceptible.
129. Teacher: Have you studied for this
test?
Student: Yes. I spent at least two
hours on logarithms alone.
Teacher: And you have reviewed
derivatives as well?
Student: I studied that lesson thrice.
Teacher: You aren’t being honest
here. If you’d studied, you wouldn’t
have confused basic facts like
Lagrange’s notation with Leibniz’s
notation.
The professor’s reasoning is flawed
for each of the following reasons
EXCEPT:
a. It does not consider the
possibility that lack of
concentration can cause poor
retention.
 b. It assumes the study regimen 133. Protesting against racial injustice
mentioned by the student would only causes more of it to occur.
be effective. a. Questionable analogy
c. It connects repeated reading b. Slippery Slope
with retention. c. Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc
d. It assumes the basic facts are d. Confusing Cause and Effect
easy to remember.
e. It ignores the possibility that the 134. Immigration to California from
student may have been ill or Mexico increased. Soon after, the
tired during the exam, causing welfare rolls increased. Therefore, the
poor performance. increased immigration caused the
increase in welfare rolls.
130. Left-handed people have above- a. Begging the Question
average IQ. Popoy is left-handed. b. Circular Definition
Therefore, Popoy has above average c. Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc
IQ. The pattern of reasoning in the d. Hasty generalization
argument is flawed most similarly to
which of the following arguments? --------DO NOT PROCEED---------
A. Wolves leave scent trails for the rest of
their pack to follow. Scent trails are
common among social animals. Therefore,
all social animals are wolves.
B. Rice is not a good plant to grow in
containers. Grain is not a good plant to
grow in containers. Therefore, rice is grain.
C. Narra is solid and sturdy. Rubber wood is
less sturdy but also less expensive.
Therefore, rubber wood is the choice of
furniture makes.
D. School staff and custodians often belong
to unions. Jack wants to become a
custodian. Therefore, Jack will probably join
a union.
E. Banana trees provide fruit for wildlife.
Wildlife has many food sources. Therefore,
banana trees are not necessary as wildlife
food source.

131. A book is pornographic if and only

if it contains pornography.
a. Argument from Ignorance
b. Circular Reasoning
c. Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc
d. Hasty Generalization

132. Since scientists cannot prove that

global warming will occur, it probably
won't.
a. Argument from Ignorance
b. Questionable Analogy
c. Circular definition
d. Slippery Slope
 B. Padre Damaso
C. Padre Florentino
D. Padre Felipe

137. What ingredient makes bread dough

rise?
A. flour
B. yeast
C. egg
D. salt.

138. What is the “god” particle (Higgs

boson) short for?
A. godric’s particle
B. godds’ particle
C. goddacious particle
D. goddamn particle

139. Who is the titular merchant in William

Shakespeare’s “Merchant of Venice”?
A. Portia
B. Shylock
C. Bassiano
D. Antonio

140. Which is the largest planet in the solar

VI. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE system?
A. Jupiter
INSTRUCTIONS: This part of the exam tests B. Neptune
your mastery in GENERAL KNOWLEDGE C. Earth
AND CURRENT EVENTS. This test has 25 D. Mars
items. You are given 15 mins to answer
this test. DO NOT PROCEED TO THE NEXT 141. What are a group of Dolphins called?
PART UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO BY THE A. School
PROCTOR. B. Herd
C. Pod
D. Pool
135. Which Brontë sister wrote the
Wuthering Heights? 142. The moon is a :
A. Emily A. Comet
B. Charlotte B. Satellite
C. Anne C. Star
D. Elizabeth D. Planet

136. The Franciscan friar who was one of 143. Who discovered magnetic field of
the antagonists in Rizal’s Noli Me Tangere? electric current?
A. Padre Salvi A. Ampere
 B. Faraday 149. He was one of the most famous poets
C. Fleming of Tondo who became mentor of Francisco
D. Edison Balagtas, the author of Florante at Laura.
a. Jose Abad Santos
144. The equator passes through which of b. Jose de la Cruz (Huseng Sisiw)
the following continents ? c. Jose Cruz
A. Africa d. Jose de la Pen
B. Australia
C. Europe 150. Who wrote the novel “One Hundred
D. North America Years of Solitude”?
a. Mario Vargas Llosa
145. The first coin minted in the Philippines b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
was called? c. Jean Paul Sartre
a. Barillas d. Albert Camus
b. Mamiso e. Leo Tolstoy
c. Both a and b are correct
d. None of the above 151. Word processing, spreadsheet, and
photo-editing are examples of:
146. In 1808, French Emperor Napoleon a. application software
Bonaparte installed his brother as King of b. system software
Spain who later gave Filipinos Spanish c. operating system software
d. platform software
Citizenship and grants the colony
e. surface software
representation in the Spanish Cortes.
What’s the name of this King? 152. A ____________ is approximately one
a. Jose Bonaparte billion bytes.
b. Juan Bonaparte a. bit
c. Leonardo Bonaparte b. kilobyte
d. Joseph Bonaparte c. gigabyte
d. megabyte
147. They were the first Philippine e. terabyte
delegates to the Spanish Cortes who took
153. Which general famously stated 'I shall
their oath of office in Madrid 1812.
return'?
a. Pedro Perez de Tagle and Jose Manuel
a. Bull Hasley
Coretto b. George Patton
b. Pedro Perez de Tagle and Jose Manuel c. Douglas MacArthur
Correa d. Omar Bradley
c. Pedro Perez de Tugade and Jose Manuel e. James Leeway
Coretto 154. The Hundred Years War was fought
d. None of the above between what two countries?
a. Italy and Carthage
148. Where was Napoleon Bonaparte b. England and Germany
c. France and England
defeated?
d. Spain and France
a. Paris
e. Norway and Russia
b. Moscow
c. Madrid 155. Where was Grace Poe abandoned as an
d. Waterloo abandoned newborn baby?
 a. On the footsteps of a Church in
Jaro, Iloilo City
b. Outside the gates of Fernando Poe
Jr.’s house
c. In a trash bin in a public market in
Jaro, Iloilo City
d. Outside the gates of an orphanage

156. Which of the following is not a Moirai

(Greek Fates)?
a. Clotho
b. Portho
c. Lachesis
d. Atropos

157. A duck-billed platypus is:

a. A reptile
b. An amphibian
c. A mammal
d. A fish

158. While inside the chrysalis, what form

does a caterpillar take?
a. Liquid
b. Gas
c. Larva
d. Caterpillar

159. Which fruit is a berry?

a. Strawberry
b. Blueberry
c. Banana
d. Orange

--------DO NOT PROCEED---------


VII. ESSAY
INSTRUCTIONS: Choose one of the two
questions listed below. Write a concise
essay on your chosen topic. You are
given 25 minutes for this final part.
Indicate on your yellow sheet your
chosen question.
QUESTION A:
I. You were invited to be one of the
members of the technical working group to
propose changes to the Family Code of the
Philippines (Code).
One of the provisions that caused a lot of
debate is the current Code's definition of
marriage, which states in part:
Article 1. Marriage is a special
contract of permanent union
between a man and a woman
entered into in accordance with law
for the establishment of conjugal and
family life.
This definition specifically limits marriage
only between a man and a woman. Would
you change this provision? If so, how?
Provide your reason for your choice.
QUESTION B:
II. Speaker Makakapal announced her plan
to pass a bill which will allow the
censorship of fake news in social media.
According to her, the spread of fake news in
social media greatly affected the 2016
elections because many voters were
misinformed regarding the credentials of
several candidates. She also cited the
alarming number of false information which
has been spread against minority groups
such as the Lumad and the Moros, which
breed contempt and hate towards these
groups. Ms. Makakapal believes that
censorship would be the most effective tool
to combat the negative effects of fake news.
Samahan ng mga Malalayang Magsalita
(SMM) oppose this move. They believe that
social media is self-regulating, and that
government intrusion should not be
allowed, especially in determining what
would constitute as fake news. SMM posits
that to allow the government to intervene in
regulating social media might result to
giving the government a monopoly on the
truth, which when abused, could lead to a
dictatorship. SMM believes that the
government should not intervene in the
regulation of social media.
Should the government be allowed to
censor fake news? Why or why not?