хуавей тесты

Typical Campus Network Architectures and Practices (quiz стренажера)
Single-answer question:
1. To save IP addresses, how many bits are used in the subnet mask of the interconnection IP address of network devices on an enterprise network?
A. 28
B. 24
C. 30
D. 29

Для экономии IP-адресов рекомендуется использовать 30-битную маску.
Правильныйответ: С

2. Which of the following functions can be enabled on access switches to prevent employees from accessing small routes carrying DHCP functions?
A. IPSG
B. DHCP Relay
C. DHCP Snooping
D. Port-Security

Функции DHCP Snooping позволяет защититься от атак, организованных с использованием DHCP-протокола.

3. Which of the following layers is not a medium-sized campus network?
A. Core layer
B. Aggregation layer
C. Access layer
D. Equipment layer

Архитектура сети среднего размера:

Правильныйответ: D

4. Which technology is used to allow only fixed users (IP addresses) to log in to the network when you use Telnet or Web to manage devices?
A. NAT
B. ACL
C. AAA
D. CHAP

NAT для трансляции IP-адресов; ААА – авторизация/аутентификация и учет; CHAP-протокол аутентификации.
Правильныйответ: B

Multiple-answer question:
5. Which technologies can be implemented on a campus network to ensure network reliability?
A. iStack
B. CSS
C. VRRP
D. Linkaggregation

Архитектура с основными технологиями:

Правильныйответ: АBCD

6. What is the lifecycle of a campus network project?
A. Planning and design
B. Deployment and implementation
C. Network O&M
D. Networkoptimization

Жизненный цикл проекта кампусной сети описывается следующими этапами:
1) планирование и проектирование (выбирается модель устройства, физическая и логическая топологии, технологии и протоколы);
2) развертывание и внедрение (установка и ввод устройств, миграция, интеграция);
3) эксплуатация и техобслуживание сети (резервное копирование, централизованный мониторинг, обновление ПО);
4) оптимизациясети.


7. Which routing protocols can be used to ensure network connectivity within a campus network?
A. Static route
B. OSPF
C. ISIS
D. BGP

Внутри кампусной сети используются протоколы IGP и статическая маршрутизация.
Правильныйответ: ABC

True or false:
8. Fixed IP addresses can be allocated to special terminals, such as servers and printers.
A. True
B. False

Специальные терминалы, сервера и принтеры редко меняют свои IP-адреса, поэтому их рекомендуется задавать статически. К тому же,
необходимо знать адреса таких устройств.
Правильный ответ: A

9. For small-sized campuses, the network architecture is simplified as much as possible.
A. True
B. False


10. For the centralized NMS, SNMPv3 adds authentication and encryption, which greatly improves NMS security.
A. True
B. False

В SNMPv3 по сравнению с предыдущими версиями, добавляются аутентификация и шифрование.
§ 1. (a) Data Communication and Network Basics (quiz стренажера)
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a tree network?

A. A node with a higher layer causes more serious network problems.
B. A hierarchical star structure.
C. It can quickly connect multiple star networks.
D. Easy to expand the network scale

Вопрос о том, каким недостатком обладает древовидная (tree) топология.
tree-топология имеет вид:

Ответ А предупреждает о том, что узел на наивысшем уровне может привести к серьезным сетевым проблемам. Давайте посмотрим.
Действительно, если откажет верхний уровень, то коммуникация между узлами может быть нарушена и это действительно серьезный
недостаток:

Ответы C (может быстро соединять между собой несколько топлогий типа star) и D (легко изменить размер сети) являются
преимуществами, а не недостатками. Ответ B (про иерархическую звездную структуру) также не может быть недостатком, так как
иерархия вносит определенные преимущества в управлении сети.
Правильный ответ: А.

2. Which type of network has the highest reliability?
A. Star network
B. Ring network
C. Full mesh network
D. Treenetwork

У какого типа сети наивысшая надежность? Представим себе, что узлы будут выходить из строя в каждой из топологий. В которой из них
будет сохраняться связность?

Очевидно, что это full-mesh, т.к. все узлы между собой связаны.
Правильный ответ: С

3. What are the functions of the firewall?

A. Isolate networks of different security levels.
B. Access control between networks of different security levels
C. Remote access
D. Implement data encryption and VPN services.
E. Perform network address translation.

Требуется перечислить функции брандмауэра (firewall). Брандмауэры ставят на выходе из локальной сети и позволяют выполнять
множество функций. Безусловно, это связано с безопасностью на разных уровнях (A, B), а также как граничное устройство выполняет
функции туннелирования, шифрованя данных, VPN-сервисов (D), удаленного доступа (C) и может работать как NAT (E). На eNSP можно
изучить функции брандмауэра на примере USG6000.
Правильный ответ: ABСDE

4. Which of the following types of networks can be classified according to geographical coverage?
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. Campus network

Типы сетей по географическому охвату:
LAN — локальная (Local Area Network, «сеть локальной зоны»);
MAN — городская (Metropolitan Area Network, «сетьметрополии»);
WAN — глобальная (Wide Area Network, «сетьширокогоохвата»).
Campus-сети – это группа локальных сетей одного предприятия, следовательно, это понятие не имеет отношения к географическому
охвату.
Правильный ответ: ABС

5. What devices are commonly used on the network?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Firewall
D. WirelessController

Какие устройства обычно используются в сети? Все перечисленные устройства довольно распространены. Хотя, конечно, не все из них
являются обязательными, поэтому ответ не слишком однозначный. Например, Wireless Controller не нужен, если у вас нет точек
доступа Fit AP, которые требуют централизованного управления.
Правильный ответ: ABСD

True or false:
6. The star network has strong robustness and is not easy to fail.
A. True
B. False

Посмотрите на топологию звезды (star) во втором вопросе – устойчива ли она к выбросам? Если центральный узел упадет, то крайние
узлы не смогут связываться друг с другом.
Правильный ответ: B

7. Routers can isolate broadcast domains.
A. True
B. False

Broadcast-домен (широковещательный домен) представляет собой домен L2 (второго уровня), а Router (маршрутизатор) – домен третьего
уровня, поэтому он легко может изолирвоать между собой широковещательные домены.

8. On a network, switches and routers can be used interchangeably.
A. True
B. False

В сетях, коммутаторы и роутеры использоваться как взаимозаменяемые. На самом деле отчасти да, в некоторых ситуациях это
действительно возможно, особенно, если речь идет об L3-коммутаторах. Но в большинстве случаев это не так и нужно применять оба
типа устройств.

9. On a network, a router can function as a gateway.
A. True
B. False

В сети роутер может работать как шлюз. Это так и очень часто такая схема применяется. На интерфейсе роутера указывается IP-адрес с
той же подсети, что и адрес хоста. Далее, хосту указывают адрес шлюза (маршрута по умолчанию), и хост через роутер получает доступ
ко всем маршрутам.

10. Two computers are connected through a network cable to form the simplest network.
A. True
B. False

Два компьютера действительно можно соединить между собой по кабелю, образуя простейшую сеть.
§2 (a). Network Reference Model (quiz стренажера)
1. The Open System Interconnection Reference Model divides a network into seven layers, from bottom layer to top layer. Which of the following
are the layers from bottom layer to top layer?
A. Physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, session layer, presentation layer and application layer
B. Physical layer, data link layer, network layer, session layer, transport layer, presentation layer, and application layer
C. Physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, presentation layer, session layer, and application layer
D. Physical layer, data link layer, transport layer, network layer, session layer, presentation layer, and application layer

В вопросе просят перечислить все уровни семиуровневой модели OSI. Просто оставлю это здесь:

Главное, не путайте вопросы по моделям OSI и TCP/IP. Внимательнее читайте! Обидно будет на таком потерять баллы.

2. Which of the following port numbers is used by Telnet?
A. 6
B. 23
C. 17
D. 21

Для удобства запоминания UDP и TCP-портов я составила «шпаргалку» (https://forum.huawei.com/enterprise/ru/шпаргалка-1-к-hcia-
datacom-udp-и-tcp-порты/thread/800607-100649).

3. What are the functions of the network layer?
A. Provide logical addresses for devices on the network.
B. Establish connections between processes on hosts.
C. Sends packets from the source host to the destination host.
D. Forwarddatapackets.

К функциям сетевого уровня относят предоставление логических адресов (IP-адреса) для устройств в сети (A), отправка пакетов от
источника до назначения (C) и пересылка пакетов данных (D).
Правильный ответ: ACD

4. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Application layer: layer closest to users in the OSI reference model, providing network services for applications.
B. Transport layer: provides connection-oriented or non-connection-oriented data transfer and error detection before retransmission.
C. Network layer: Defines logical addresses for routers to determine paths and is responsible for transferring data from the source network to the
destination network.
D. Session layer: establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions between presentation layer entities.

Какие из следующих утверждений верны?
A. Прикладной уровень: ближайший к пользователям уровень в эталонной модели OSI, предоставляющий сетевые сервисы для
приложений.
B. Транспортный уровень: обеспечивает передачу данных с установлением или без установления соединения и обнаружение ошибок
перед повторной передачей.
C. Сетевой уровень: определяет логические адреса для маршрутизаторов для определения путей и отвечает за передачу данных из
исходной сети в целевую.
D. Сеансовый уровень: устанавливает, управляет и завершает сеансы связи между объектами уровня представления.
Я думаю, что комментарии излишне и все ответы верные.
Правильный ответ: ABCD

5. Which of the following flags in the TCP header participate in the TCP three-way handshake?
A. SYN
B. URG
C. ACK
D. FIN

Какие из следующих флагов TCP-заголовка принимают участие в трехстороннем TCP-рукопожатии (three-way handshake)? Прикреплю
картинку из материалов курса:

Видно, что используемые флаги SYN и ACK. Обратите внимание, что при разрыве TCP-соединения используется четырехкратное
рукопожатие (four-way handshake):

Правильный ответ: AC
6. Which of the following are valid MAC addresses?
A. 19-22-01-63-23
B. 68-F7-23-8B-33-A2
C. 00-3C-1G-A1-23-B2
D. 00-00-11-11-11-AA

Требуется найти действительный MAC-адрес. MAС-адрес имеет размер 6 байт и чаще всего записывается в шестнадцатеричном виде. В
примерах нам напоминают о том, что MAC-адрес можно записать в виде двенадцати шестнадцатеричных цифр. В варианте (A) всего пять
шестнадцатеричных цифр, а в варианте (C) – адрес выражается через букву G, которая не имеет никакого отношения к
шестнадцатеричной системе (используются только буквы A-F).
Правильный ответ: BD

True or false:
7. A MAC address consists of 12 hexadecimal digits and 48 bits (6 bytes).
A. True
B. False

MAC-адрес состоит из 12 шестнадцатеричных цифр и 48 бит (6 байтов). Формулировка вопроса не слишком удачная, как мне кажется.
Потому что 12 шестнадцатеричных цифр – это уже 6 байтов и еще 48 бит - это уже 6+6=12 байтов. Наверное, имеется ввиду «12
шестнадцатеричных цифр или 48 бит (6 байтов)»
Правильный ответ: А

8. ARP Reply packets are broadcast so that all hosts can receive them.
A. True
B. False

Пакеты ARP Reply (ответ) являются широковещательными (broadcast) и все хосты могут их получить. Это не
так, ARP Reply является unicast-ответом. Обратите внимание, что ARP request (запрос) является широковещательным (broadcast)! Когда
сетевому устройству нужно связаться с другим узлом, он отправляет ARP request всем хостам в широковещательном домене, а отвечает
при этом только один адрес.

9. Common data link layer protocols include Ethernet, PPPoE, and PPP.
A. True
B. False

Уровень передачи данных (data link) включает в себя протоколы Ethernet, PPPoE и PPP. Все перечисленные протоколы используются на
уровне data link.

10. To disconnect a TCP connection, you only need to disconnect the connection in one direction.
A. True
B. False

Чтобы отключить TCP-соединение, вам нужно отключить соединение только в одном направлении.
Это не так! Для разрыва соединений используется процедура четрехстороннего рукопожатия (см. выше).

§3 (a). Huawei VRP (quiz с тренажера)

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. undo, Delete files.
B. pwd, view the current directory.
C. dir, displays the file information in the current directory.
D. more, view the content of the text file.

Предлагается выбрать неверное утверждение о работе утилит командной строки (CLI). Команда undo (A) –является одной из важнейших
для VRP и полноценную работу без нее представить очень сложно. Она позволяет отменить установленную команду ранее команду или
режим. Например, undoipaddress – удалит установленный IP-адрес, а undo shutdown, данный на отключенном интерфейсе его запустит.
Однако чтобы удалить файлы, Вам нужно воспользоваться командой delete. Команда pwd (B) показывает текущую
директорию, dir (C)– информацию о файлах в текущей директории (линуксоиды вспомнят про ls), more (D)– содержимое файла
(как cat в Unix-подобных системах).

2. How many users can manage devices through the console port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Вопрос в том, сколько пользователей могут управлять устройством через консольный порт? Ну, консольный порт один, стало быть и
пользователей может быть максимум один. Хотя, конечно, если придираться, то по логике ноль (никто) тоже подходит)))

3. Storage devices include？
A. SDRAM
B. Flash
C. NVRAM
D. SD Card
E. USB

Просят назвать устройства, которые относятся к хранилищам данных. Все перечисленные подходят. В курсе также делается акцент на их
функции:
SDRAM – как память на компьютере, хранит информацию о системе и параметрах. NVRAM – для логов, флешка и SD-карта – ПО,
конфиги и т.д. Через USB-интерфейс тоже можно подключиться, например, для обновлений системы.
Правильный ответ: ABCDE

4. Which of the following functions are provided by the VRP?
A. Unified user interface and management interface
B. Implements control plane functions and defines forwarding plane interface specifications.
C. Implements interaction between the forwarding plane of each product and the VRP control plane.
D. Shield the differences between the link layer and the network layer of each product.

Вопрос о функциях VRP. Унифицированный интерфейс пользователя и унифицированный интерфейс управления (А) – да, конечно
(вспомните, CLI). Реализация функции плоскости управления и определение спецификации интерфейса плоскости передачи (B) –
однозначно, да (например, можно указать, будет ли трафик передаваться по VLAN или нет). Связь между плоскостью передачи
устройства и плоскостью управления VRP (С) – ну, конечно, а иначе зачем она нужна? Про различие между сетевым уровнем и
канальным (D), конечно, тоже подходит.

5. Which of the following methods can be used to log in to the device through the CLI?
A. Console
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. HTTP

Предлагается перечислить методы, с помощью которых можно подключиться к CLI - командная строка, такое большое черное окошечко,
в котором нет красивых картиночек. Логично, что HTTP сюда, ну, никак не вписывается – он же любит все красочное (вспомните
браузер). Остальное – стандартны способы не только для VRP, но и для большинства других систем.
Правильный ответ: ABC

6. Which views are included in the commands of Huawei VRP?
A. User view
B. System view
C. Interface view
D. Protocol view

Режимы, для включения команд Huawei VRP различные. Только подключившись к системе Вы попадаете в user view и можно проводить
какие-то базовые диагностические команды вроде ping, а также выполнять работу с файловой системой, например, сохранять
конфигурацию командой save. Режим system view применяется для глобальных настроек,
а interface view и protocol view (например, ospf 1) – локальных.

True or false:
7. Users can manage devices using the CLI or web system.
A. True
B. False

Пользователи могут управлять устройствами через CLI или web. Ну, про CLI мы уже говорили сегодня, а тут еще и web-интерфейс
добавился. В web-интерфейсах больше подсказочек и картиночек, но он хуже поддается автоматизации. Но CLI выигрывает еще и за счет
того, что работает на всех устройствах VRP, а вот web – далеко не всегда. Так что не ленитесь и осваивайте CLI)))))

8. The save command can be used only in the user view.
A. True
B. False

Как я говорила раньше, save относится к командам файловой системы и потом запускается в режиме user view.

9. The startup saved-configuration configuration-file command specifies a configuration file for next startup.
A. True
B. False

С помощью команды startup saved-configuration configuration-file command действительно задается конфигурационный файл для
следующей загрузки (ну, чтобы заново не пришлось все вот команды набирать, IP-адреса и т.д. при перезапуске).

10. By default, command levels 0 to 3 are registered, and user levels 0 to 15 are registered.
A. True
B. False

По умолчанию, существует четыре уровня команд (от 0 до 3) и 16 уровней пользователей (от 0 до 15). Причем, чем больше номер уровня
или пользователя, тем больше у него прав.
§4 (a). Ethernet Switching Basics (quiz стренажера)

1. What type of MAC address does 01-00-5e-00-00-01 belong to?
A. Unicast MAC address
B. broadcast MAC addresses?
C. Multicast MAC address
D. Any multicast MAC address

Unicast MAC-адресадолжныиметьввосьмомбитеслевацифру 0, multicast – 1, а broadcast состоитизвсехединиц.
Правильный ответ: C

2. By default, what operations does the switch perform after receiving an unknown unicast frame?
A. Learns the mapping between the source MAC address and interface of the data frame and discards the data frame
B. Learns the mapping between the source MAC address of the data frame and the interface and flood the data frame
C. Learns the mapping between the source MAC address and interface and forwards the data frame.
D. Does not learn the mapping between the source MAC address and interface of the data frame and forwards the data frame?

Порядок действий при получения неизвестного unicast-кадра (по умолчанию) следующий:
1) Изучение MAC-адрес источника;
2) Рассылка его на все порты, кроме порта источника.
Обратите внимание, что если MAC-назначения совпадает с MAC-адресом, который соотносится в таблице адресов с портом источника, то
такой кадр сбрасывается.

3. Which of the following ARP packets is used to request the MAC address corresponding to the IP address?
A. ARP Request
B. ARP Reply
C. RARP Request
D. RARP Reply

Для ARP request логично применять пакеты ARP Request. Для ответа – reply. RARP выполняет обратное отображение, т.е. по
известному MAC-адреса находит IP-адрес.

4. Which of the following fields are contained in an Ethernet frame in the IEEE 802.3 format?
A. Source MAC
B. Destination MAC
C. FCS
D. Length

Просто оставлю это здесь:


5. Which of the following statements about the MAC address learning mechanism of a switch are correct?
A. MAC address learning is enabled by default.
B. The switch automatically learns the source MAC address of the packets received by the interface.
C. MAC address learning can be disabled on the switch.
D. The switch can learn MAC addresses based on destination MAC addresses.

Какие из следующих утверждений о механизме изучения MAC-адресов коммутатора верны?
A. Изучение MAC-адресов включено по умолчанию.
B. Коммутатор автоматически узнает MAC-адрес источника пакетов, полученных интерфейсом.
C. Изучение MAC-адресов можно отключить на коммутаторе.
D. Коммутатор может узнавать MAC-адреса на основе MAC-адресов назначения.
МАС-адреса на основе адресов назначения узнавать затруднительно, потому что он их либо уже знает,
либо будет его искать через flooding.
Правильный ответ:ABC

6. When a terminal device receives a data frame, it checks the destination MAC address in the frame header. Which of the following data frames
can be received?
A. The destination MAC address is the local MAC address.
B. The destination MAC address is a multicast MAC address.
C. The destination MAC address is the multicast MAC address listened by the local device.
D. The destination MAC address is a broadcast MAC address.

Когда оконечное устройство принимает кадр данных, оно проверяет MAC-адрес назначения в заголовке кадра. Какие из следующих
фреймов данных можно получить?
A. MAC-адрес назначения - это локальный MAC-адрес.
B. MAC-адрес назначения является MAC-адресом multicast- рассылки.
C. MAC-адрес назначения - это MAC-адрес multicast- рассылки, прослушиваемый локальным устройством.
D. MAC-адрес назначения является broadcast MAC-адресом.
Ответы B и С очень близки друг к другу и в принципе, не видя ответ C, можно случайно ответить B. Но важным уточнением здесь
является именно тот факт, что multicast -адрес должен прослушиваться.
Правильный ответ:ACD

True or false:
7. The switch floods data frames whose destination MAC addresses are unknown unicast MAC addresses and broadcast MAC addresses.
A. True
B. False

По умолчанию, кадры с MAC-адресами назначения, неизвестными коммутатору и широковещательные кадры рассылаются на все порты.

8. The switch isolates the collision domain, and the router isolates the broadcast domain.
A. True
B. False

Коммутатор изолирует домены коллизий, а роутер – широковещательные домены. Это правда.

9. Initially, the MAC address table of the switch is empty.
A. True
B. False

Изначально таблица МАС-адресов действительно пустая.

10. The MAC address of the device is globally unique.
A. True
B. False

Утверждение о глобальной уникальности MAC-адреса в целом должно выполняться, хотя и бывают исключения.
§6 (a). Spanning Tree Protocol (quiz стренажера)


1. The bridge IDs of SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4 are 4096.4c1f-aabc-102a, 4096.4c1f-aabc-102b, 4096.4c1f-aabc-001a, and 8192.4c1f-aabc-112b, if
four switches are on the same Layer 2 network and STP is enabled, which of the following is the root bridge?
A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW3
D. SW4

Root выбирается по наименьшему значению поля приоритета bridge ID, а если приоритеты равны, то по наименьшему MAC-адресу.
Смотрим:
SW1-4096.4c1f-aabc-102a;
SW2-4096.4c1f-aabc-102b;
SW3-4096.4c1f-aabc-001a;
SW4-8192.4c1f-aabc-112b.
Видим, что приоритет у первых трех одинаковый и меньше, чем у четвертого. Выбираем меньший MAC из первых трех.

2. By default, the forward delay of STP is ?.
A. 30s
B. 15s
C. 20s
D. 2s

Шпаргалка по таймерам

3. Which of the following statements about designated ports are correct?
A. All ports on the root bridge are designated ports.
B. A non-root bridge has only one designated port.
C. A designated port is used to receive BPDUs.
D. The designated port must be connected to the root port.

На всех портах Root-bridge (мост, но чаще всего используют коммутатор) находятся designated-порты, на которые он
отправляет BPDU для остальных устройств сети. При этом другие мосты (non-root) тоже могут иметь несколько designated-портов и
обязательно как минимум один Root-порт, на который он могут быть получены BPDU. Designated-порт не всегда соединяется с root-
портом, он может также соединяться и с alternate-портом.

4. The root bridge ID, bridge ID, interface ID, and root path cost (RPC) are four important fields for configuring BPDU priorities. Which of the
following is the preferred sequence for configuring BPDUs on a switch?
A. Interface ID, root bridge ID, bridge ID, and RPC
B. RPC, root bridge ID, bridge ID, and interface ID
C. Root bridge ID, bridge ID, interface ID, and RPC
D. Root bridge ID, RPC, bridge ID, and interface ID

Предпочтительный порядок для конфигурации BPDU: Root bridge ID (потому что по нему определяется корневой мост), RPC (содержит в
себе информацию о скоростях интерфейса), bridge ID (больше шансов стать root, если root выйдет из строя), and interface ID (не так
важен).
Правильный ответ: D


5. Which of the following fields are contained in a BPDU configuration?
A. Root ID
B. Port ID
C. Bridge ID
D. Forward Delay

Заголовок конфигурационной BPDU:


6. Which of the following statements about the STP root port are correct?
A. A non-root bridge can have only one root port.
B. The root port is a non-root bridge port used to receive BPDUs.
C. A root bridge can have a maximum of one root port.
D. The BID of the device is not compared during root port election.

У root (корневого) моста все порты обычно являются designated-портами (портами назначения), а root-порт не применяется нужен для
получения BPDU, спущенного root-мостом. Поэтому у root-моста BPDU нет, а у non-root (не корневого) моста он
один. BID (Bridge ID) используется для выбора root.
Правильный ответ: AB

True or false:
7. By default, the STP mode of the switch is RSTP.
A. True
B. False

По умолчанию, в качестве STP-режиме используется MSTP.

8. Non-root bridges in STP can also actively send configuration BPDUs.
A. True
B. False

Не корневой мост (Non-root) в STP не может активно посылать конфигурационные BPDU.

9. You can manually set the priority of the switch BID to 1000.
A. True
B. False

Приоритет BID устанавливается кратным 4096.

10. Generally, it takes 50 seconds to restore a root bridge fault and 30 seconds to restore a direct link fault.
A. True
B. False
§7 (a). Eth-Trunk iStack and CSS (quiz стренажера)
1. What is the default priority of an LACP interface?
A. 4096
B. 32768
C. 8192
D. 0

Приоритет по умолчанию для LACP интерфейса равен 32768 (точно такой же как и BID в STP).

2. Which of the following interface configuration parameters does not require the same configuration for member interfaces in an aggregation
group?
A. Spanning tree configuration
B. Interface rate
C. duplex mode
D. VLAN configuration

Для агрегации интерфейсов важно, чтобы скорость, дуплексный режим, конфигурация VLAN и число соединяемых физических
интерфейсов были одинаковыми на обоих концах канала.

3. Which of the following statements about active link election in LACP mode is false?
A. The devices at both ends select the Actor based on the LACPDU.
B. The Actor selects an active interface based on the interface priority and interface number.
C. The Actor enables the active interface and disables the inactive interface. The Actor informs the peer of the election result through the physical
interface status.
D. The non-active end determines its active interface based on the Actor election result.

Устройства на обоих концах выбирают ведущего (Actor), который решает, какие интерфейсы будут активными, а какие нет. При этом о
своем выборе через флаги в LACPDU (L2-уровень).

4. Which link aggregation mode can implement link backup on Huawei switches?
A. Manual mode
B. Static LACP mode
C. LACP dynamic mode
D. Automatic selection mode


5. Which of the following modes is used to send LACP packets to the peer end?
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Anycast
D. Broadcast


6. Which of the following fields is used to select the Actor in the LACPDU?
A. Interface priority
B. Device priority
C. Device MAC address
D. InterfaceNo.

Actor (ведущий, назначающий активные интерфейсы в группе агрегаций) выбирается на основе приоритета устройства и MAC-адреса
устройства.
Правильный ответ: BC

7. Which of the following physical parameters must be consistent at both ends of an Ethernet trunk link?
A. Number of aggregated links
B. Rate of the aggregated link
C. Duplex mode of the aggregated link
D. Models of switches at both ends of the link to be aggregated

Разобрано выше.
Правильныйответ: ABD

True or false:
8. To ensure the minimum bandwidth, you can set the minimum number of active interfaces in a link aggregation group.
A. True
B. False

Количество активных интерфейсов в группе агрегации можно менять: ставить меньшее число обеспечит меньшую пропускную
способность.

9. Two devices form a cluster and are virtualized into a single logical device. The simplified networking does not require protocols such as MSTP
and VRRP, simplifying network configurations. In addition, inter-device link aggregation implements fast convergence and improves reliability.
A. True
B. False

Два устройства образуют кластер и виртуализируются в одно логическое устройство. Упрощенная сеть не требует таких протоколов, как
MSTP и VRRP, что упрощает конфигурацию сети. Кроме того, агрегация каналов между устройствами обеспечивает быструю
конвергенцию и повышает надежность.

10. A cluster supports only two devices.
A. True
B. False
Кластер (CSS) поддерживает только два устройства. iStack может поддерживать больше устройств.

§8 (a). Network Layer Protocol and IP Addressing (quiz стренажера)
1. Which of the following IP addresses are private IP addresses?
A. 172.32.16.254
B. 192.169.16.1
C. 239.0.0.8
D. 172.17.1.254

Частные IP-адреса:
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

2. What is the number of available IP addresses in the 172.16.0.0/30 network segment?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8

В сети 172.16.0.0/30 маска 30 бит, следовательно, 32-30=2 -> число бит, которое отводится на адрес, т.е. всего 4 адреса, из которых первый
и последний уже заняты:
172.16.0.0 – адрес сети;
172.16.0.3 – broadcast адрес;
172.16.0.1 и 172.16.0.2 – доступные IP-адреса

3. If the network address of a company is 192.168.1.0/24, which of the following network masks is applicable to six subnets with a maximum of 20
hosts in each subnet?
A. 26
B. 27
C. 28
D. 29

Нужно рассчитать маску сети для данного адреса так, чтобы получилось 6 подсетей, в которых максимум по 20 хостов.
Для того, чтобы представить 6 в двоичном виде, нужно по крайней мере 3 бита (2^3=8, 2^2=4). Маска на всю подсеть равна 24, прибавим
еще 3 бита для подсетей, получим маску 27. Проверим для хостов: 32-27=5 бит отводится для хостов. Максимальное число хостов: 2^5-
2=30.
Если отталкиваться от числа хостов, то можно получить следующие рассуждения:
2^N-2 ≥ 20. (число битов, отводимое на хосты, два адреса вычитаются как первый – адрес сети и последний – широковещательный адрес).
2^N≥22, N=5 – число бит маски под на хосты. 32-5=27 – итоговаямаска

4. If the IP address of a port is 202.16.7.135/26, which of the following broadcast addresses is the network where the IP address resides?
A. 202.16.7.255
B. 202.16.7.129
C. 202.16.7.191
D. 202.16.7.252

Нужно посчитать широковещательный (broadcast)-адрес для сети, в которой находится 202.16.7.135/26. Широковещательный адрес – это
последний адрес в сети, в котором все биты хоста равняются 1. 26=3*8+2, т.е. первые три октета для сети будут точно такими же, а в
последнем значение имеют только первые 2 бита. 2^7<135, значит, первый бит 1, 2^6>(135-2^7),значит, второй равен 0. Итого получаем
10111111 или 255-2^6=191.

5. In IPv4, what type of address is a multicast address?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Класс А: 1.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255
Класс B: 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.0.0
Класс С: 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.0
Класс D: 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255– multicast
Класс E: 240.0.0.0 - 254.255.255.255- резерв

6. Which of the following packets is used by ICMP to detect the connectivity between the source and destination IP addresses?
A. ICMP Redirect
B. ICMP Echo
C. ICMP port unreachable
D. ICMP hostunreachable

Варианты С и D – сообщения об ошибках, под А – сообщение о перенаправлении.

7. Which of the following IP addresses can be manually configured and used by host interfaces?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.18
C. 10.2.3.4
D. 192.168.100.254

127.0.0.1 – loopback и не может использоваться как внешний адрес для хоста,
224.0.0.18 - multicast
Правильный ответ: CD

True or false:
8. When the TTL field of an IP packet is 0, the router discards the packet.
A. True
B. False

TTL (Timetolive) создано для предотвращения петель на L3-уровне. При отправке выставляется на определенное значение и уменьшается
каждый раз на 1 при прохождении через роутер. Когда становится равным 0, роутер отбрасывает пакет.

9.172.16.1.0/16 is an available IP address.
A. True
B. False

Адрес сети для 172.16.1.0/16: 172.16.0.0, а широковещательный адрес: 172.16.255.255. 172.16.1.0/16 в них не входит, поэтому да, этот
адрес доступен.

10. ICMP defines various error messages for diagnosing network connectivity problems. Based on the error messages, the source device may
determine the cause of the data transmission failure.
A. True
B. False

ICMP-протокол широко используется в утилите ping и может помогать диагностировать сеть, доказывая связность сети или выдавая
сообщения о возникающих ошибках.
§9 (a). IP Routing Basics (quiz стренажера)

1. Run the display ip routing-table command to check the IP routing table. Which of the following is not included in the command output?
A. Destination/Mask
B. AdvRouter
C. Proto
D. Interface

Вывод можно увидеть на примере:

А колонку AdvRouter мы можем увидеть в таблице OSPF LSDB-таблице.

2. What is the default priority of a static route?
A. 150
B. 10
C. 60
D. 0

Protocol RouteType DefaultPreference
Direct Directroute 0
Static Staticroute 60
Dynamicroutingprotocol OSPF internalroute 10
OSPF externalroute 150

3. When a device learns two routes to the same destination, which of the following parameters is used to distinguish the routes?
A. Priority
B. Cost
C. Mask length
D. Next-hop address

Из двух маршрутов с одинаковым назначением выбирается тот, который имеет наименьшее значение в колонке приоритета. Разные
приоритеты возникают, когда источниками маршрутов разные по своему типу: статические/ динамические (разные виды), подключение
напрямую.
Из двух маршрутов с одинаковым приоритетом выбирается тот, у которого меньшая стоимость.

4. According to the longest match principle, which of the following routes does a packet with the destination IP address 172.16.10.1 match?
A. 172.16.10.2/32
B. 172.16.10.0/24
C. 172.16.0.0/16
D. 172.17.10.0/24

Вариант A – 32-я маска является самой длинной, но при этом проходит только один адрес 172.16.10.2, и он не совпадает с требуемым.
Вариант B подходит – диапазон адресов от 172.16.10.0-172.16.10.255.
Вариант D не подходит: 172.17.10.0-172.17.10.255.

5. Which of the following routing protocols is a link-state routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. Static
D. IS-IS

Link-state: OSPF и IS-IS, BGP ближек distance vector каки RIP, а static - эторежимнастройки, анепротокол.
Правильный ответ: AD

6. Which of the following are the sources of routing information?
A. Direct route
B. Static routing protocol
C. Dynamic routing protocol
D. Remoteautomaticroutediscovery

Как показано в табличке выше, первые 3 подходят
Правильный ответ: ABC

7. Which of the following protocols are internal gateway protocols?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. ISIS
D. OSPF

IGP протоколы (внутри одной автономной системы): RIP, IS-IS, OSPF;
между автономными системами (EGP) чаще всего используют BGP.
Правильный ответ: ACD

True or false:
8. 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, and 172.16.5.0/24 can be aggregated into 172.16.0.0/22.
A. True
B. False

Попробуем «наложить» 22-ю маску на каждый из адресов и вычислить полученный адрес:
172.16.1.0/22=172.16.0.0
172.16.2.0/22=172.16.0.0
172.16.5.0/22=172.16.4.0
Первые два адреса можно было бы агрегировать под 172.16.0.0/22, а вот последний - нет.

9. When forwarding a packet, the router discards the packet if no specific route is found and no default route is available.
A. True
B. False

Если нет доступных маршрутов для пакета, то роутер его сбрасывает – конечно, а что с ним он может еще сделать?)

10. When forwarding a packet, a router can forward the packet based on the source address.
A. True
B. False

В традиционных сетях роутер пересылает пакет, основываясь на адрес назначения, а не источника. Но, если мы посмотрим, например,
на SDN-сети, то заметим, что пересылка может осуществляться и основываясь на адресе источника (или каких-нибудь других
параметрах).
§10 (a). OSPF Basics (quiz стренажера)
1. Which packets are used by OSPF to discover and maintain neighbor relationships?
A. LSR
B. LSU
C. Hello
D. DD

Hello-пакеты используются для обнаружения соседей и поддержания связности.
DD- Database Description – описание маршрутов,
LSR- Link-State Request – запрос недостающей записи,
LSU- Link-State Update – ответ с записями на LSR,
LSAck- Link-StateAcknowledgment – подтверждение получения пакетов.
Обратите внимание, что часто экзаменаторы хотят запутать и добавляют как тип сообщений вариант LSA (Link-stateadvertisement) – это
общее название объявлений, а не отдельный тип сообщений.

2. By default, what is the OSPF cost of a 1.544 Mbit/s serial interface, FE interface, or GE interface?
A. 64, 10, 1
B. 640, 10, 1
C. 64, 10, 1
D. 64, 1, 1

По умолчанию, стоимость интерфейса определяется как:
OSPF cost=100 Mbit/s / (пропускная способность интерфейса)

3. Which of the following entries is used by OSPF to store link status information?
A. OSPF LSDB
B. OSPF Peer Table
C. OSPF Routing Table
D. OSPF AdjacencyTable

Информация об LSA хранится в LSDB (команда просмотра displayospflsdb), о соседях – в neighbor (displayospfpeer), а о маршрутах –
в Routing Table (displayospfrouting).

4. Which of the following statements about the router ID in OSPF are correct?
A. The router IDs in the same area must be the same, and router IDs in different areas can be different.
B. The router ID must be the IP address of an interface on the router.
C. You must specify a router ID manually.
D. The prerequisite for the normal running of OSPF is that the router has the router ID.

У маршрутизатора обязательно должен быть уникальный ID, он может быть настроен вручную или взят как IP-адрес локального или
внешнего интрефейса.

5. OSPF supports multiple processes. If no process ID is specified, which process ID is used by default?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100

По умолчанию, номер процесса ospf равен 1

6. Which of the following network types are supported by OSPF?
A. P2P
B. P2MP
C. NBMA
D. Broadcast

В OSPF поддерживаются все перечисленные типы сетей.

7. Which network types do OSPF need to be selected as DR and BDR?
A. P2P
B. P2MP
C. NBMA
D. Broadcast

Выборы DR и BDR проходятв NBMA и Broadcast сетях.
Правильный ответ: CD

True or false:
8. On a broadcast network, the final status of DRs between others is 2-way and does not enter the full state.
A. True
B. False

Вообще мне кажется, что между DR и другими устанавливается состояние смежности (adjacency) и они входят в full, а между собой
другие (DRothers) становятся только в состоянии соседства. НоправильныйответА)))
Правильныйответ: А

9. On an OSPF network, area 0 is the backbone area.
A. True
B. False

Магистральная зона (backbone area) равна 0 и к ней подключаются остальные зоны (area).

10. OSPF devices can establish neighbor relationships across multi-hop devices.
A. True
B. False

Отношения соседства (neighbor) устанавливаются только между соседними маршрутизаторами.
Правильный ответ: В
§11 (a). IPv6 Basics (quiz стренажера)

1. Compared with IPv4, IPv6 has a large number of address spaces. What is the length of an IPv6 address?
A. 64
B. 96
C. 128
D. 256

Длина IPv6-адреса составляет 128 бит, а длина IPv4-адреса -32 бита.

2.IPv6 address: Which of the following is the abbreviation of 2001:0AF8:0000:1234:FB00:0000:5000:EF14?
A. 2001:AF8:0000:1234:FB:0000:5000:EF14
B. 2001:0AF8::1234:FB00::5000:EF14
C. 2001:AF8:0:1234:FB00::5000:EF14
D. 2001:0AF8:0000:1234:FB00:0000:5:EF14

При сокращении записи IPv6 нужно следовать следующим правилам:
1) если цифра 0 стоит первой в октете, ее можно опустить 2001:0AF8=2001:AF8;
2) октеты из одних нулей и последовательности таких октетов можно заменить на двойное двоеточие, например, AF8:0000:1234 можно
заменить на AF8::1234;
3) двойное двоеточие в адресе может быть только одно, иначе адрес нельзя будет восстановить.
Сравним данный в условии адрес с предложенными вариантами: 2001:0AF8:0000:1234:FB00:0000:5000:EF14
(А) 2001:AF8:0000:1234:FB:0000:5000:EF14 – последние два нуля в этом октете пропали, а опускать можно только первые нули;
(B) 2001:0AF8::1234:FB00::5000:EF14 два двойных двоеточия – запрещено;
(С) 2001:AF8:0:1234:FB00::5000:EF14 – допустимый вариант;
(D) 2001:0AF8:0000:1234:FB00:0000:5:EF14 – опять пропущены нули в конце числа.

3. Compared with the IPv4 header, which of the following fields is added to the IPv6 basic header?
A. Payload Length
B. Hop Limit
C. Next Header
D. Flow Label

Метки потока (Flow Label) не было в заголовке IPv4, она добавилась только в IPv6.

4. Which of the following is the prefix of a link-local address?
A. 2001::/64
B. FE80::/10
C. FEC0::/10
D. 3001::/64

Шпаргалка на адреса

5. If the MAC address of a device is 5489-98C8-1111, what is the link-local address of the device?
A. FE80::5689:98FF:FEC8:1111
B. FE80::5489:98FF:FEC8:1111
C. FE80::5689:98FF:FFC8:1111
D. FE80::5489:98FF:FFC8:1111

В середину MAC-адреса должна быть добавлена последовательность FFFE и должна быть проведена инверсия 7-го бита:
FE80::5689:98FF:FEC8:1111

6. According to the IPv6 address prefix, the IPv6 address can be .
A. Unicast address
B. Multicast address
C. Broadcast address
D. Anycast address

В IPv6 нет Broadcast-адресов, зато добавлены Anycast-адреса.
Правильный ответ: АВD

True or false:
7. An IPv6 unicast address consists of a network prefix and an interface identifier. Common IPv6 unicast addresses, such as global unicast
addresses and link-local addresses, must be 64 bits.
A. True
B. False


8. The link-local address cannot be manually configured.
A. True
B. False

LLA может быть сконфигурирован вручную.

9. IPv6 uses ICMPv6 NS and NA packets to replace the IPv4 address resolution function of ARP.
A. True
B. False

Функции ARP в IPv6 действительно берут на себя сообщения ICMPv6.

10.When IPv6 uses stateless address autoconfiguration, information such as domain names can be obtained.
A. True
B. False

При использовании stateless address autoconfiguration IP-адреса получаются из MAC-адресов, а значит, имя домена таким образом
получено быть не может.
§12 (a). Inter-VLAN Communication (quiz стренажера)

1. To implement inter-VLAN communication through sub-interfaces, which of the following commands needs to be configured on sub-interfaces to
terminate VLANs?
A. port trunk pvidvlan-id
B. port default vlanvlan-id
C. dot1q termination vid vlan-id
D. port link-type hybrid vlan-id

Разберем предложенные команды:
(А) port trunk pvid vlan-id – устанавливает vlan по умолчанию для trunk-порта;
(B) port default vlan vlan-id - устанавливает vlan по умолчанию для access-порта;
(C) dot1q termination vid vlan-id задает возможность терминирования vlan на подинтферйсах (sub-интерфейс);
(D) port link-type hybrid vlan-id – такой команды вообще нет. Если оставить просто port link-type hybrid – задание режима работы порта
(hybrid).

2. When using a one-armed router to implement inter-VLAN communication, sub-interfaces instead of physical interfaces are commonly used. Why?
A. Physical interfaces cannot be encapsulated with 802.1Q
B. Sub-interfaces has a faster forwarding speed
C. Sub-interfaces can save physical interfaces.
D. sub-interfaces can be configured with access interfaces or trunk interfaces

Использование Sub-interfaces на маршрутизаторе помогает сохранить число физических интерфейсов. Маршрутизаторы, как правило, не
располагают огромных количеством интерфейсов как коммутаторы.

3. Which of the following statements about a Layer 3 switch is false?
A. Layer 3 switches can only forward packets at Layer 3 but cannot forward packets at Layer 2.
B. Layer 3 switches support routing and forwarding through VLANIF interfaces.
C. A Layer 3 switch can forward both Layer 2 and Layer 3 packets.
D. A Layer 3 switch can implement route forwarding through a Layer 3 physical interface.

L3-коммутаторы могут пересылать данные на обоих уровнях: на L2 и на L3.

4. Which of the following statements about routing and forwarding of Layer 3 switches is incorrect?
A. The Layer 3 switch finds that the destination MAC address of the data frame is the MAC address of its VLANIF interface and forwards
the packet to the routing module for further processing.
B. If the routing module finds that the destination IP address is not the IP address of the local interface, it searches the routing table.
C. Based on the routing table, the Layer 3 switch directly forwards the packet to the next hop without re-encapsulating the data frame.
D. When a Layer 3 switch performs Layer 3 forwarding, the source and destination MAC addresses of packets need to be replaced.


5. Which of the following types of interfaces can be used to implement inter-VLAN communication through sub-interfaces?
A. Access
B. Trunk
C. Hybrid
D. Bridge

Порт коммутатора, подключающегося к sub-интерфейсу роутера, обязательно должен быть настроен в режиме Trunk или Hybrid. В
режиме Access метка vlan будет снята после отправки с порта коммутатора и хостам с разных vlanов не удастся связаться друг с другом.
Правильныйответ: BC

True or false:
6. During Layer 3 communication, the source and destination MAC addresses are replaced each time the packets pass through a Layer 3 device.
A. True
B. False

При L3-коммутации, MAC-адреса источника и назначения каждый раз меняются при переходе через L3-уровень. Иначе невозможно было
бы понять, какой MAC указывать в кадре или же граница между VLAN-ами была бы стерта.

7. The Layer 3 switch can properly connect to the router and run a dynamic routing protocol.
A. True
B. False

L3-коммутаторы действительно могут работать с протоколами машрутизации.

8. By default, a sub-interface for VLAN tag termination is not enabled with ARP broadcast and cannot forward broadcast packets. To allow the sub-
interface to forward broadcast packets, run the arp broadcast enable command on the sub-interface.
A. True
B. False

Чтобы sub-интерфейсы могли рассылать arp-пакеты в широковещательном режиме, нужно запустить команду: arp broadcast enable

9. On a Layer 3 device, you can run the undo port switch command to change a Layer 2 interface to a Layer 3 interface.
A. True
B. False

Режим port switch означает работу интерфейса на уровне L2. Для L3 устройств его можно отменить через команду undo port switch,
переведя тем самым порт на L3 уровень.

10. Layer 2 interfaces do not have MAC addresses, but Layer 3 interfaces have MAC addresses.
A. True
B. False

§14 (a). WLAN Overview (quiz стренажера)

1. Which of the following 802.11 protocols can work only on the 5 GHz frequency band?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11ax
D. 802.11ac


2. What CAPWAP packets does the AC use to deliver configuration files to APs?
A. Configuration Update Request
B. Image Data Request
C. Configuration Update Response
D. Image Data Response

Request –запрос, Response –ответ. Configuration для конфигурации, а Image Data –для ПО.

3. Which data frame is used by an AP to periodically advertise its SSID?
A. Probe Request
B. Probe Response
C. Association Request
D. Beacon

Probe request отправляет STA (station), т.е. терминалпользователя, анеконтрольнаяточка (AP). Association request такжеотправляет STA.

4. Each AC needs to specify its source IP address to establish a CAPWAP tunnel with the AP. How many WLAN source IP addresses can be
specified for an AC?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4


5. Compared with 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz has the following advantages:
A. Slow energy attenuation and wide coverage
B. Abundant spectrum resources and low interference
C. Long wavelength and strong diffraction capability
D. High energy and strong penetration

Как правило, чем выше частота, тем меньший охват, так что А неверно.
На 2,4 ГГц 14 каналов против 23х на 5 ГГц. Для 5 ГГц могут использоваться не только полосы в 20 МГц, но и шире – 40, 80 и т.д.
Ответ В – верный.
Вспомним физику: длина волны (λ) связана с частотой (ν) через формулу:
λ=с\ν, т.е. обратно-пропорциональная зависимость – чем выше частота, тем меньше длина волны. Ответ С неверен.
Энергия частицы Е=h ν, т.е. прямо-пропорциональная зависимость и ответ D верный.
Правильныйответ: BD

6. Which of the following measures can be taken to protect WLAN security?
A. Authentication
B. Encryption
C. System protection
D. Control traffic

Правильныйответ: АВС

7. What types of wireless networks are available in terms of coverage?
A. WPAN
B. WLAN
C. WMAN
D. WWAN

Все перечисленные типы сетей доступны с точки зрения покрытия:
Wireless personal area network (WPAN): Bluetooth, ZigBee, NFC, HomeRF, and UWB.
Wireless local area network (WLAN): Wi-Fi, WPAN-related technologies
Wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN): WiMAX
Wireless wide area network (WWAN): GSM, CDMA, WCDMA, TD-SCDMA, LTE и 5G.
Правильныйответ: ABCD

8. Which of the following modes can an AP dynamically discover an AC?
A. DHCP mode
B. DNS mode
C. Broadcast mode
D. Manually configure the AC IP address on the AP.

Динамическое обнаружение возможно в случае первых трех вариантов. Если настроить IP-адрес в ручном режиме, то он не будет
динамически меняться при смене топологии.

True or false:
9. The CAPWAP tunnel establishes two tunnels: the data tunnel and the control tunnel. Keepalive packets are used for keepalive regardless of the
tunnels.
A. True
B. False

Про два туннеля – да, а вот про пакеты поддержки состояния – нет. Keepalive используется для поддержки состояния туннеля данных, а
для поддержки состояния туннеля контроля применяют Echo-пакеты.

10. The AP needs to be authenticated when it goes online. The authentication modes include MAC address authentication and SN authentication.
A. True
B. False

Помимо аутентификации по MAC-адресу и серийному номеру (SN) может также применяться режим без аутентификации.
§15 (a). ACL Principles and Configuration (quiz стренажера)
What is the default step for ACL rule IDs?
A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5


2. What is the number range of an advanced ACL?
A. 4000-4999
B. 3000-3999
C. 2000-2999
D. 6000-6999

Вспомним табличку из учебных материалов:

Number
gory Description
Range
Defines rules based on source IPv4 addresses, fragmentation information, and
ACL 2000 to 2999
effective time ranges.
Defines rules based on source and destination IPv4 addresses, IPv4 protocol types,
nced
3000 to 3999 ICMP types, TCP source/destination port numbers, UDP source/destination port
numbers, and effective time ranges.
Defines rules based on information in Ethernet frame headers of packets, such as
r 2 ACL 4000 to 4999
source and destination MAC addresses and Layer 2 protocol types.
defined Defines rules based on packet headers, offsets, character string masks, and user-
5000 to 5999
defined character strings.
Defines rules based on source IPv4 addresses or user control list (UCL) groups,
destination IPv4 addresses or destination UCL groups, IPv4 protocol types, ICMP
ACL 6000 to 6999
types, TCP source/destination port numbers, and UDP source/destination port
numbers.


3. If the number of an ACL is 4010, which of the following fields can the ACL match?
A. User source IP address
B. Source and destination IP addresses
C. Source and destination MAC addresses and Layer 2 protocol types
D. Packet header and offset position

Опять по той же табличке (см выше).

4. An AR2220 router uses the following ACL configuration to filter data packets. Which of the following statements is correct?
[RTA]acl 2001
[RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule permit source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255
[RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule deny source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255
[RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule permit source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.3
A. Packets on the 10.0.1.0/24 network segment will be rejected
B. 10.0.1.0/24 is allowed.
C. The data packets on the network segment 10.1.1.0/30 will be rejected.
D. The ACL configuration is incorrect.

Обычно ACL настраивают так, что правила просматриваются по порядку до первого соответствия.
Команда rule permit source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 разрешает передачу пакетов с 10.0.1.0/24. Команда rule deny source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 –
запрещает, но так как дана позже и содержит такой же адрес источника как и в первой записи, то просто перезаписывает предыдущую
запись. Команда rule permit source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.3 разрешает передачу пакетов с указанного источника и попадает в список позже
предыдущей.
Т.е. в итоге acl 2001 имеет записи:
rule 5 deny source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255
rule 10 permit source 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.3

5. Which of the following statements about ACL application scenarios is false?
A. ACLs can be used for address translation
B. ACL can be applied to packet filtering.
C. ACLs can be used for data encryption
D. ACL can be applied to LACP.

Агрегация каналов (LACP) подразумевает L2 уровень и не работает с IP-адресами.

6. ACL rule: rule 1 permit tcp source any destination 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.
0 destination-port eq 80, What is the matched packet?
A. Source IP address: 10.1.1.1; destination IP address: 192.168.1.1; source port number: 30000; destination port number: 80; transport layer
protocol: UDP
B. Source IP address: 10.0.0.1; destination IP address: 192.168.1.1; source port number: 30000; destination port number: 80; transport layer
protocol: TCP
C. Source IP address: 10.1.1.1; destination IP address: 192.168.1.1; source port number: 62012; destination port number: 80; transport layer
protocol: TCP
D. Source IP address: 10.1.1.1; destination IP address: 192.168.1.2; source port number: 62012; destination port number: 80; transport layer
protocol: TCP

В варианте А в качестве транспортного протокола записан UDP, а исходное правило про TCP.
В варианте D как адрес источника указан 192.168.1.2, в то время как в исходном правиле 192.168.1.1 с маской 0.0.0.0, что означает точное
соответствие.

7. The following ACLs are used on RTA to match route entries, which of the following network traffic will be denied?
[RTA]acl 2002
[RTA-acl-basic-2002]rule permit source any
A. 172.16.1.1/32
B. 172.16.1.0/24
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 192.16.1.0/24

Все правила таблицы acl 2002 по порядку:
rule 5 deny source 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.0
rule 10 deny source 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
rule 15 permitsourceany
Первые два запрещают передачу, а третье – разрешает.
А удовлетворяет первому правилу, B и С– второму, а D – третьему.

True or false:
8. An advanced ACL can match the source and destination port numbers of packets and filter TCP packets with a specified destination port number.
A. True
B. False

По табличке выше.

9. The command rule permit source 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.254 is used to match all Even IP addresses in the network segment.
A. True
B. False

Число 254 в двоичной системе: 1111 1110, что при использовании обратной маски (wildcard wildcard) значит, что первые семь бит
последнего октета могут меняться, а последний должен четко соответствовать данному IP-адресу. Такую маску 254 удобно применять для
фильтрации четных и нечетных адресов. Т.к. в исходном IP последний октет четный, то и фильтрация будет по четным адресам.

10. If ACL 3500 is manually configured on a device, the ACL cannot be used to control the source and destination port numbers.
A. True
B. False

По табличке выше.
§16 (a). AAA Principles and Configuration (quiz стренажера)
1. Which of the following components is not included in a common AAA network architecture?
A. users
B. Portal Server
C. NAS (Network Access Server)
D. AAA server

Основные компоненты AAA перечислены в ответах, вот картиночка:

Правильныйответ: В

2. Which of the following are the transport layer protocols and authentication port numbers used by RADIUS?
A. TCP,1812
B. UDP,1812
C. TCP,1813
D. UDP,1812

Шпаргалка по портам

3. Which of the following authorization modes does the AAA support?
A. Not authorized
B. Local authorization
C. Mutual authorization
D. Remote authorization

Действительно, можно без авторизации, можно проводить локальную на устройстве (например, когда подключаемся удаленно
через SSH или Telnet) и удаленная авторизация на ААА-сервере.

4. What are the abbreviations of AAA?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Accounting
D. Automatic

ААА= Authorization, Authentication and Accounting
Правильный ответ: АВС

5. If the Telnet service has been configured on the network device, but the user cannot remotely access the network device, what are the possible
causes?
A. The network device is unreachable.
B. The password entered by the user is different from the password configured on the AAA server.
C. The Telnet user level is incorrectly configured.
D. The number of Telnet users has reached the maximum limit.

Все перечисленные причины могут послужить препятствием к допуску пользователя по Telnet. Возможно, лишь исключить причину
неверных настроек Telnet, т.к. дело скорее не в неверности настроек, а в отсутствии прав доступа у пользователя.

True or false:
6. When receiving a network access request from a user, the NAS determines the domain to which the user belongs based on the user name and
controls the user based on the AAA scheme corresponding to the domain.
A. True
B. False

При получении запроса доступа к сети от пользователя NAS определяет домен, к которому принадлежит пользователь, на основе имени
пользователя и управляет пользователем на основе схемы AAA, соответствующей домену.
Верно!

7. If a common user for local authentication is not associated with a user-defined domain, the user belongs to the default domain.
A. True
B. False

Да, если домен для пользователя не задан, то он определяется к default domain.

8. By default, the AAA authentication mode is local authentication.
A. True
B. False

По умолчанию для аутентификации AAA используют локальную аутентификации.

9. The AAA accounting mode is non-accounting, local accounting, and remote accounting.
A. True
B. False

Режимов учета (accounting) всего два: non-accounting и remote accounting.

10. Both RADIUS and HWTACACS can implement authentication, authorization, and accounting.
A. True
B. False

Оба протокола работают со всеми тремя процедурами, но RADIUS совмещает авторизацию и аутентификацию.
§17 (a). Network Address Translation (quiz стренажера)

1. Which of the following address translation technologies can use only the current address of an interface as the public address for NAT?
A. Easy IP
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Static NAT
D. NAT Server

Технология Easy IP применяет для трансляции адресов адрес интерфейса, а не заданный статический адрес (Static NAT) или пул адресов
(Dynamic NAT).

2. Which NAT technology can be deployed on egress network devices to allow external users to access a TCP port on the internal server?
A. Static NAT
B. NAT Server
C. Dynamic NAT
D. NAPT

В целях безопасности часто адреса серверов с услугами не афишируются. Чтобы это не стало препятствием для доступа внешних
пользователей, может применяться технология NAT Server.

3. The following
[R1-GigabitEthernet0/0/1]nat outbound 2000 address-group 1
Which of the following statements about the configuration command is incorrect?
A. This NAT is applicable to the scenario where the intranet proactively accesses the extranet.
B. This NAT translates the traffic that matches ACL 2000.
C. This NAT will translate port numbers.
D. In this command, outbound can be changed to inbound.

nat outbound 2000 address-group 1 – здесь применяется технология NAPT, т.е. используется динамический пул адресов и происходит
трансляция портов. 2000 – номертаблицы ACL.

4. NAPT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to the same public IP address through different port numbers. Which of the following
statements about port numbers in NAPT are correct?
A. The mapping between port numbers and private addresses must be manually configured.
B. Only the port number range needs to be configured.
C. No port number configuration is required.
D. Port numbers need to be allocated using ACLs.

В NAPT номера портов генерируются автоматически и не требует настройки.

5. Which of the following is not included in source address translation by NAPT?
A. Source IP address
B. Source port number
C. Destination port number
D. Destination IP address

Трансляция адреса источника включает в себя трансляцию IP-адреса источника и порта-источника, а не включены параметры назначения.
Правильныйответ: CD

6. Which of the following NAT technologies can be used to enable external users to proactively access a server on the intranet?
A. Static NAT
B. NAT Server
C. NAPT
D. Easy IP

Возможность доступа пользователям из внешней сети к внутреннему серверу может быть настроена с
помощью NAT Server или Static NAT, который позволяет задавать IP-адреса для трансляции вручную.
Правильныйответ: АВ

7. Which of the following are private IP addresses?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 100.1.1.1
D. 192.168.3.1

Шпаргалка по IP-адресам
На мой взгляд подходят адреса ABD, а вот почему авторы теста добавили к ним еще и С – не понимаю.

True or false:
8. NAPT not only translates IP addresses but also port numbers to implement 1:n mapping between public addresses and private addresses.
A. True
B. False

NAPT транслирует не только IP-адреса, но и порты, благодаря чему происходит экономия публичных IP-адресов.

9. By default, Easy IP will not translate port numbers.
A. True
B. False

По умолчанию, Easy IP транслирует адреса, используя адрес интерфейса и номера портов.

10. When configuring dynamic NAT, you need to configure ACL traffic to control whether traffic can pass through the device.
A. True
B. False

Мне кажется, утверждение верное, т.к. без настройки ACL сложно контролировать трафик, проходящий через устройство.
Даикоманда dynamic NAT этоподразумевает:
nat outbound <acl> address-group no-pat
Но почему-то ответ В.
§18 (a). Network Services and Applications (quiz стренажера)

1. What is the domain name level of ‘.com’ in the URL: ‘www.huawei.com’?
A. Root domain name
B. Sub-top-level domain name
C. Top-level domain name
D. Host name

. - root
.com - top-level domain name;
huawei – secondlevel;
www – hostname

2. Which of the following packets does the DHCP server use to carry the IP address assigned to the client during DHCP interaction?
A. DHCP Offer
B. DHCP Discover
C. DHCP Ack
D. DHCP Request

Процесс DORA:


3. What is the default destination port number of the FTP control channel?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 23
D. 21


4. After a DHCP client receives a DHCP ACK packet, which packet does the DHCP client send to the DHCP server if it finds that the IP address to
be used already exists on the network?
A. DHCP Request
B. DHCP Release
C. DHCP Inform
D. DHCP Decline

О конфликте IP-адресов клиент сообщает серверу через DHCP Decline.

5. Which of the following FTP commands should be used to download files from the FTP server on the router?
A. get
B. put
C. download
D. load

get – для загрузки файлов с сервера;
put – загрузка на сервер.

6. Which of the following parameters can be allocated by the DHCP server to the client?
A. DNS server address
B. Gateway address
C. Local IP address
D. Mask

DHCP-сервер может назначать клиенту все перечисленные параметры и не только. Например, опция 43 позволяет передавать еще и IP-
адреса контроллеров (AC) для точек доступа (AP).

7. Which of the following DHCP packets are broadcast?
A. DHCP Offer
B. DHCP Discover
C. DHCP Ack
D. DHCP Request

См. схемку выше.
Правильный ответ: BD

True or false:
8. The FTP working mode can be active or passive. TCP port 20 is used in both modes.
A. True
B. False


9. FTP uses TCP for transmission, and TFTP uses UDP for transmission.
A. True
B. False


10. In the NTP network structure, the number indicates the clock precision. The value 1 indicates the highest clock precision, and the value 15
indicates that the clock is not synchronized.
A. True
B. False

NTP – протокол сетевого времени, имеет несколько уровней иерархий (stratum), 1 – наивысшая точность, 15 – отсутствие синхронизации.
§19 (a). WAN Technologies (quiz стренажера)

1. Which packets are used by PPPoE to interrupt sessions?
A. PADS
B. PADO
C. PADT
D. PADR

Шпаргалка по кодам

2. If a packet with mismatched parameters is received during LCP negotiation, which packet is used by PPP to respond?
A. Configure-Ack
B. Configure-Reject
C. Configure-Nak
D. Authenticate-Nak

Configure-Ack –подтверждение конфигурации;
Configure-Reject – отказ в конфигурации;
Authenticate-Nak – используется при протоколе PAP.

3. What is the function of the ip address ppp-negotiate command?
A. Enable the function of requesting IP addresses from the peer end.
B. Enables the function of receiving IP address requests from a remote end.
C. Enable the static IP address assignment function.
D. Assign 0.0.0.0 as the IP address of the peer end.

Команда ip address ppp-negotiate настраивает согласование IP-адреса на интерфейсе для получения IP-адреса от удаленного устройства.

4. On a multipoint access network such as Ethernet, the PPPoE server can set up PPP connections with multiple PPPoE clients through one
Ethernet port. Therefore, the PPPoE server must set up a unique session identifier for each PPP session to distinguish different connections. What
parameters are used to establish a session identifier for PPPoE?
A. MAC address
B. IP address and MAC address
C. MAC address and PPP-ID
D. MAC address and session ID

В качестве идентификации сеанса используют MAC-адреса и идентификаторы сессий (session ID).

5. During the establishment of a PPP session, when the physical layer is available, what phase does the PPP link enter?
A. Establish
B. Network
C. Authentication
D. Dead


6. Which of the following packets is broadcast?
A. PADI
B. PADO
C. PADR
D. PADT

Врежиме broadcast передаетсясообщение PADI (Initiation).

7. What authentication protocols are supported by PPP authentication?
A. PAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-MD5
D. CHAP

При PPP поддерживаются протоколы PAP и CHAP.
Правильныйответ: АD

8. Which of the following packets are used during PPP negotiation?
A. LCP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. IPCP

Для согласования канала используется протокол LCP (Link control Protocol), для согласования аутентификации
протоколы PAP или CHAP, а для сетевого уровня – NCP, чаще всего IPCP.

9. What parameters are negotiated during PPP link layer negotiation?
A. MRU
B. Authentication
C. Magicnumber
D. IP address

При согласовании канального уровня определяются параметры MRU (максимальный размер данных), Magic number (для предотвращения
петель) и протокол аутентификации (PAP, CHAP или режим без аутентификации).

True or false:
10. During CHAP authentication, the password configured for a user is carried in plain text in PPP packets.
A. True
B. False

Открытым текстом передается пароль при аутентификации PAP, а при CHAP используют шифрование.
§20 (a). Network Management and O&M (quiz стренажера)
1. Which of the following packets is used by SNMPv2c to proactively send alarms to the NMS and require the NMS to respond explicitly?
A. Response
B. Inform
C. Trap
D. Notification

В SNMPv1 в качестве сообщений об авариях используется Trap, а в SNMPv2 введено дополнительное сообщение
- Inform. Inform требуетобязательногоответаот NMS-сервера.

2. Compared with SNMPv1, SNMPv2c uses which of the following packets to query OID information in batches?
A. Get-Request
B. Get-Next-Request
C. GetBulk
D. GetContinue

Сообщение GetBulk было введено в SNMPv2c и позволяет запрашивать сразу несколько данных от устройства.

3. Which of the following are the attributes of managed devices defined in the MIB database?
A. OID
B. Object status
C. Object access permission
D. Data type of the object

Все перечисленные атрибуты определены в базе MIB.

4. Compared with SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c, SNMPv3 has the following security features:
A. Supports authentication of SNMP packet sources using the digital signature technology.
B. Supports user authentication using the MD5 algorithm.
C. Data encryption using des is supported.
D. Supports asymmetric data encryption using RSA.

В SNMPv3 была введена аутентификация пользователей с использованием алгоритма MD5, а также шифрование данных с использованием
алгоритма des.

5. Which of the following are NETCONF objects?
A. NETCONF client
B. NETCONF server
C. NETCONF message
D. Device hardware

NETCONF= server (сетевые устройства) + client (NMS) + message (XML)
Правильный ответ: АBC

True or false:
6. Network devices with SNMP enabled run the Agent process. The NMS management process interacts with the Agent process through SNMP
packets.
A. True
B. False

Для работы по SNMP на сетевых устройствах должен быть запущен SNMP-Агент.

7. YANG is a data modeling language.
A. True
B. False

Yet Another Next Generation (YANG) – язык моделирования данных. Используется при работе разных протоколов (например, NETCONF).

8. NETCONF establishes secure connections based on Secure Shell (SSH) or Transport Layer Security (TLS).
A. True
B. False

NETCONF – протокол управления сетевыми устройствами, передается через SSH или TLS.

9. After NETCONF is used, SNMP can be abandoned on the live network.
A. True
B. False

На рабочей сети нельзя отключать SNMP или другие протоколы, т.к. не все устройства могут работать под управлением NETCONF.

10. Huawei iMaster NCE is a network automation and intelligence platform that integrates management, control, analysis, and AI functions.
A. True
B. False

Я не видела Huawei iMaster NCE, но пишут, что это правда))
§21 (a). Introduction to SDN and NFV (quiz стренажера)

1. Which of the following modules is responsible for virtualization of underlying hardware infrastructure in the standard NFV architecture?
A. VNF
B. NFVI
C. MANO
D. OSS

Архитектура NVF:


2. In the SDN architecture, which of the following interfaces is used to communicate with SDN switches?
A. RESTCONF
B. RESTful interface
C. NBI
D. SBI

Для связи с коммутаторами контроллер использует южный интерфейс (SBI, Southboundinterface), для управления контроллером с
прикладного уровня - (NBI, Northboundinterface), а для связи с другими контроллерами – западно-восточный интерфейс.

3. In the OpenFlow architecture, which of the following are the types of packets sent from the controller to the switch?
A. Asynchronous
B. Controller-to-Switch
C. Symmetric
D. Switch-to-Controller

От контроллера к коммутатору инициируется передача сообщений Controller-to-Switch (Configuration, Features, Send-Packet) и Symmetric
(HELLO, Echo, Error).

4. Which of the following are NFV features?
A. Partition
B. Isolation
C. Encapsulation
D. Independent from hardware

NFV, Network Functions Virtualization – виртуализация сетевых функций. Все перечисленные особенности свойственны NFV.

5. Which of the following features are characteristics of an SDN network?
A. CU separation
B. Centralized control
C. Development interface
D. Device convergence

Вряд ли об SDN можно говорить как о конвергенции устройств.

6. Which of the following are SDN network architectures?
A. Collaboration application layer
B. Control layer
C. Device layer
D. Corelayer


7. What are the benefits of NFV to carriers?
A. Shorten service rollout time
B. Reduce network construction costs
C. Improve network O&M efficiency
D. Build an open ecosystem


True or false:
8. An OpenFlow switch forwards packets based on flow tables. In addition to the destination MAC address and destination IP address, multiple
fields can be used to match packets.
A. True
B. False

Для полей соответствий OpenFlow может использоваться множество разных полей, включая типы VLAN-ов, IP-адреса, протоколы разных
уровней, порты источников и назначения и т.д.
Правильныйответ: A

9. SDN and NFV technologies are the development trends of current networks. The two technologies are inseparable.
A. True
B. False

Чащевсего SDN и NFV используютсявместе.

10. NCE integrates the functions of traditional eSight, Agile Controller, and analyzer.
A. True
B. False

§22 (a). Network Programmability and Automation (quiz стренажера)
1. To improve code modularity and code utilization, we can use classes to describe a set of properties and methods of the same type. The keyword
for defining a class is?
A. init
B. def
C. class
D. function
def – функция, init – инициализация объекта, class – ключевое слово для класса.

2. Which of the following methods is used to write data in the Telnetlib module?
A. read_all ()
B. close()
C. write()
D. read_very_eager()
Вопрос содержит в себе ответ. Ну, про остальные методы тоже можно сказать:
read_all ()-читать все данные;
close() – закрытие соединения;
read_very_eager() – прочесть все, что можно без блокировки.
3. What types of characters are supported by Python identifiers?
A. Letter
B. Digit
C. @
D. Underscore
Знак @ не используется в качестве идентификаторов Python.

4. What are the advantages of Python?

A. Elegant syntax and dynamic types are explanatory.
B. Process-oriented and object-oriented programming.
C. Abundant third-party libraries.
D. Code written in other languages can be invoked.
К преимуществах Python можно отнести динамическую типизацию, ООП, сторонние библиотеки, возможность вызова кода на других
языках.
Правильныйответ: ABСD
5. Which of the following high-level programming languages are compilation-type?

A. C
B. C++
C. Java
D. Python
Компилированные языки из перечисленных: C и C++. Они требуют предварительной компиляции до выполнения кода.
А Java и Python интерпретивные и могут выполняться построчно.
Правильный ответ: AB
6. Which of the following categories can computer languages be classified according to language levels?
A. Machine language
B. Assembly language
C. High-level language
D. CompilationLanguage
Можно выделить три уровня языка в стеке вычислительных технологий:
Правильныйответ: ABС
True or false:
7. In Python programs, code indentation represents the scope of code blocks. If a block of code contains two or more statements, the statements
must have the same indentation.
A. True
B. False
Да, отступы играют важную роль в программах Python (в отличии от С, где для выделения блоков используются фигурные скобки).
Правильныйответ: A
8. Java and Python are interpretative languages.

A. True
B. False
9. In Python, relational operators can be used consecutively. For example, 2<3<4 is equivalent to 2<3 and 3<4.
A. True
B. False
10. The Python program written on the Windows platform cannot run on the Unix platform.
A. True
B. False
Вне зависимости от того, в какой операционной систем была написана программа на Python, она будет одинаково работать и во всех
других системах.
§23 (a). Typical Campus Network Architectures and Practices (quiz стренажера)

1. To save IP addresses, how many bits are used in the subnet mask of the interconnection IP address of network devices on an enterprise network?
A. 28
B. 24
C. 30
D. 29

Для экономии IP-адресов рекомендуется использовать 30-битную маску.

2. Which of the following functions can be enabled on access switches to prevent employees from accessing small routes carrying DHCP functions?
A. IPSG
B. DHCP Relay
C. DHCP Snooping
D. Port-Security

Функции DHCP Snooping позволяет защититься от атак, организованных с использованием DHCP-протокола.

3. Which of the following layers is not a medium-sized campus network?
A. Core layer
B. Aggregation layer
C. Access layer
D. Equipment layer

Архитектура сети среднего размера:


4. Which technology is used to allow only fixed users (IP addresses) to log in to the network when you use Telnet or Web to manage devices?
A. NAT
B. ACL
C. AAA
D. CHAP

NAT для трансляции IP-адресов; ААА – авторизация/аутентификация и учет; CHAP-протокол аутентификации.
5. Which technologies can be implemented on a campus network to ensure network reliability?
A. iStack
B. CSS
C. VRRP
D. Linkaggregation

Архитектура с основными технологиями:


6. What is the lifecycle of a campus network project?
A. Planning and design
B. Deployment and implementation
C. Network O&M
D. Networkoptimization

Жизненный цикл проекта кампусной сети описывается следующими этапами:
1) планирование и проектирование (выбирается модель устройства, физическая и логическая топологии, технологии и протоколы);
2) развертывание и внедрение (установка и ввод устройств, миграция, интеграция);
3) эксплуатация и техобслуживание сети (резервное копирование, централизованный мониторинг, обновление ПО);
4) оптимизациясети.


7. Which routing protocols can be used to ensure network connectivity within a campus network?
A. Static route
B. OSPF
C. ISIS
D. BGP
Внутри кампусной сети используются протоколы IGP и статическая маршрутизация.

True or false:
8. Fixed IP addresses can be allocated to special terminals, such as servers and printers.
A. True
B. False

Специальные терминалы, сервера и принтеры редко меняют свои IP-адреса, поэтому их рекомендуется задавать статически. К тому же,
необходимо знать адреса таких устройств.

9. For small-sized campuses, the network architecture is simplified as much as possible.
A. True
B. False


10. For the centralized NMS, SNMPv3 adds authentication and encryption, which greatly improves NMS security.
A. True
B. False

В SNMPv3 по сравнению с предыдущими версиями, добавляются аутентификация и шифрование.
How many more bytes are the packets using MPLS label double-layer nesting technology than the original IP packets?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 32
In the network as shown in the figure below, the host has an ARP cache. Which of the following statements is correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. The following entries exist in the ARP cache of host A 11.0.12.1 MAC-B
B. The router needs to be configured with static routing, otherwise host A and host B cannot communicate in both directions
C. The following entries may exist in the ARP cache of host A, 10.0.12.2 MAC-C
D. Host A and Host B can communicate in both directions
Broadly speaking, which of the following does the transmission medium that constitutes the wireless local area network wlan not include?
A. Radio waves
B. Laser
C. Ray
D. Infrared’
By default, the port cost calculated by STP has a certain relationship with the port bandwidth, that is, the greater the bandwidth, the () the
cost.
A. greater
B. Consistent
C. Not necessarily
D. Smaller
Refer to the route-in-a-stick configuration in the figure below, it can be judged that the administrative department and the financial
department can communicate with each other even if the ARP proxy is not enabled on the R1 sub-interface.
A. False
B. True
The IEEE 802.11ac standard only supports the 5GHz frequency band.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
The network administrator of a certain company wants to uniformly divide the users who often access the company network from different
switches into VLAN 10 when they frequently change office locations. Which of the following methods should be used to divide VLANs?
A. Divide VLAN based on port
B. Divide VLAN based on MAC address
C. Divide VLAN based on subnet
D. Divide VLAN based on protocol
Which statement about OSPF protocol DR is correct?
A. DR election is preemptive
B. An interface priority is 0, then the interface cannot be a DR
C. DR must be the highest priority device in the network
D. Router ID, the larger the value, the more preferred to be elected as DR
VRP supports OSPF multi-process. If the process number is not specified when 0SPF is enabled, the process number used by default is ().
A. 1
B. 10
C. 0
D. 100
On the VRP platform, what is the role of the command "interface vlanit <vlan-id>" ?
A. Create a VLAN
B. Configure VLAN for a port
C. Create or enter VLAN virtual interface view
D. No such command
The link aggregation interface can only be used as a Layer 2 interface.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
As shown in the figure, all four switches run STP, and various parameters adopt default values. If the G0/0/2 port of switch C is blocked
and the configuration BPDU cannot be sent through this port, how long will it take for the blocked port in the network to enter the
forwarding state?
A. about 3 seconds
B. about 50 seconds
C. about 30 seconds
D. about 15 seconds
vty configuration as shown in the figure, the user authority level is set to level 3.
[Huawei]user-interface vty o 14
[Huawei-ul-vtyo-14]acl 200o inbound
[Huavei-ui-vtyo-14]user privilege level 3
[Huavei-ui-vtyo-14]authentication-node password Please configure the login password (maxim length 16):huawei
A. True
B. False
The output information of the router R1 routing table is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct? (Multiple
Choice)
A. The router will forward data packets whose destination network is 12.0.0.0/8
B. The data packet whose destination network is 11.0.0.0/8 will be forwarded from the router's GigabitEthernet0/0/0 interface
C. The data packet whose destination network is 12.0.0.0/8 will be forwarded from the router's Ethernet070/0 interface
D. The router will discard data packets whose destination network is 11.0.0.0/8
Which of the following protocols does the RA message used by IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration belong to?
A. ICMPv6
B. IGMPv6
C. UDPv6
D. TCPv6
A DHCP server is deployed in the network, but the administrator found that some hosts did not correctly obtain the address specified by
the DHCP server. What are the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)
A. Some hosts cannot communicate with the DHCP server normally, and the client systems of these hosts automatically generate addresses in
the range of 127.254.0.0
B. Some hosts cannot communicate with the DHCP server normally, and the client systems of these hosts automatically generate addresses in
the range of 169.254 0.0
C. The address pool of the DHCP server has all been allocated
D. There is another DHCP server in the network that works more efficiently
Which of the following IPv6 addresses is a multicast address?
A. FC00 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC
B. 2000 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC
C. FF02 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC
D. FE80 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC

When using FTP for file transfer, how many TCP connections will be established?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
It is known that there are two entries in the routing table of a router. If the router wants to forward packets with the destination address of
9.1.4.5, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Select the second item as the best matching item, because the route is a more accurate match relative to the destination 9.1.4.5
B. Choose the second item as the best matching item, because the cost of the RIP protocol is small
C. Select the first item as the best matching item, because the priority value of the ospf protocol is higher
D. Choose the second item as the best match, because Ethernet0 is faster than serial0
The switch GO/0/1 port configuration information is shown in the figure. Which VLAN data frame does the switch forward without VLAN
TAG?
#
interface GigabitEtherneto/o/1
port link-type trunk
port trunk pvid vlan 10
port trunk allow-pass vlan 10 20 304o
#
A. 30
B. 20
C. 10
D. 40
Which of the following types of addresses is not included in IPv6 addresses?
A. Anycast address
B. Unicast address
D. Multicast address
On the VRP platform, the default protocol priority of routes in the direct routing, static routing, RIP, OSPF area is:
A. Direct routing,OSPF,Static routing,RIP
B. Direct routing,OSPF,RIP,Static routing
C. Direct routing,Static routing,RIP,OSPF
D. Direct routing,RIP,Static routing,OSPF
A certain ACL of the router is in the following rules, rule deny source 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 destination 172.16.10.2 0.0.0.0 Which statement
is correct?
A. All TCP packets whose source IP is 172.16.10.2. Destination IP is 192.168.2.1 match this rule
B. All TCP packets whose source IP is 192.168.2.1 and destination IP is 172.16.10.1 match this rule
C. All TCP packets whose source IP is 192.168.2.1 and destination IP is 172.16.10.2 are configured with this rule.
D. All TCP packets whose source IP is 172.16.10.2 and destination IP 192.168.2.0 match this rule
SNMPv1 defines 5 protocol operations.
A. True
B. False
If the MAC address of an interface is 0OEO-FCEF-OFEC, what is its corresponding EUI-64 address?
A. 02EO-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC
B. 00EO-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
C. 00EO-FCEF-FFFE-OFEC
D. 02EO-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
The switch becomes a logical switch after stacking and clustering, and Eth-Trunk across physical devices can be deployed to improve
network reliability.
A. True
B. False
What kind of message does the OSPF protocol use to confirm the received LSU message?
A. LSU
B. LSACK
C. LSR
D. LSA
A network engineer prompts the following information when entering the command line:
Error: Unrecognized command found at ' ^ ' position. Which of the prompt information is correct?
A. No keyword found
B. Input command is not clear
C. Wrong parameter type
D. The input command is incomplete

Which of the following network parameters can be assigned by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol DHCP? (Multiple choices)
A. Gateway address
B. IP address
C. Operating system name
D. DNS address
Which extension headers are supported by IPv6 packets? (Multiple choice)
A. VLAN extension header
B. Fragmentation extension header
C. Destination option extension header
D. Hop-by-hop option extension header

The MPLS label header is encapsulated between the data link layer header and the network layer header of the message.
A. False
B. True
In the network shown in the figure, which of the following configurations can realize that host A can access the Internet, but host B can
not? (Multiple Choice)
A. acl number 2000 rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 rule 10 permit source 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 # Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/3
traffic-filter outbound ac1 2000 #
B. acl number 2000 rule 5 permit source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 rule 10 deny source 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 # Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/3
traffic-filter outbound ac1 2000 #
C. acl number 2000 rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 rule 10 permit # Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/3 traffic-filter outbound ac1 2000 #
D. acl number 2000 rule 5 permit source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 rule 10 deny # Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/3 traffic-filter outbound ac1 2000 #
The output information of a certain device is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct? (Multiple Choice)
<Huawe1>display interface G1gabitEthernet 0/0/0
G1gabi tEthernet0/0/0 current state : UP
Line protocol current state : UP
Route Port, The Maximum Transmit Unit is 1000
Internet Address is 10.0.12.2/2 4
IP Sending Frames' Format is PRTFMT ETENT_2.Hardware address is 00e0- fc22- 4fff
Port Mode: FORCE COPPER
Speed : 100.Loopback: NONE
Duplex: FULL,Negotiation: DISABLE
Md1 : AUTO
Last 300 seconds input rate 24 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
Last 300 seconds output rate 24 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
A. The IP address of the interface is 10.0.12.2/24
B. The working rate of this interface is 1Gbps
C. The MTU value of this interface is 1000
D. The MAC address of the interface is 00e0-fc22-4fff
On Huawei AR G3 routers, what is the -i parameter of the Ping command in VRP used to set?
A. The destination IP address of the Echo Reply message

B. Interface for receiving Echo Reply messages
C. Interface for sending Echo Request messages
D. The source IP address of the Echo Request message
The function of 0SPF hello message is (). (Multiple Choice)
A. Synchronize the LSDB of the router
B. Neighbor discovery
C. Maintain neighbor relations
D. Update LSA information
n the network shown in the figure below, host A logs in to router A through Telnet, and then obtains the configuration file of router B
through FTP on the remote interface. How many TCP connections exist on router A at this time?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
In which working state of the STP protocol can the port be changed to the Forwarding state without going through other states?
A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Disabled
As shown in the figure below, the router uses a sub-interface as the gateway of the host. The IP address of the gateway is 10.0.12.2. Which
of the following commands can achieve this requirement? (Multiple choice)
A. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.10 Dotlq termination vid 10 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable #
B. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.20 Dotlq termination vid 10 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable #
C. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.10 Dotlq termination vid 20 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable #
D. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.20 Dotlq termination vid 20 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable #
Now it is necessary to implement a Python automation script Te1net to the device to view the device running configuration. Which of the
following statements is wrong?
A. Use telnet.Telnet (host) to connect to the Telnet server.
B. can use telnet.write(b"display current-configuration \n") to input the command to view the current configuration of the device.
C. telnet.c1ose() is used after a command entered every time, the function is that the user waits for the switch to return information.
D. Telnetlib can achieve this function
There are multiple route entries to the same destination network in the routing table. These routes are called:
A. Multi-path routing
B. Equal cost routing
C. Sub-optimal routing
D. Default route
In the configuration BPDU sent by the switch, which bridge ID is unlikely to appear?
A. 0 00-01-02-03-04-CC
B. 8192 00-01-02-03-04-CC
C. 4096 00-01-02-03-04-CC
D. 2048 00-01-02-03-04-CC
The output information of a switch is shown in the figure. Which of the following interfaces can forward data frames with VLAN ID 40 and
do not carry tags when forwarding?
A. GE0/0/2
B. GE0/0/3
C. GE0/0/4
D. GE0/0/5
Which of the following IPv4 addresses the host uses cannot directly access the Internet?
A. 200.1.1.1
B. 100.1.1.1
C. 50.1.1.1
D. 10.1.1.1
What address does 192.168.1.127/25 represent?
A. Host
B. Network
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
n the network shown in the figure below, the bridge ID of the switch has been marked. Enter the command stp root secondary on the SWD
switch, and which of the following switch will become the root bridge of this network?
A. SWB
B. SWD
C. SWC
D. SWA
Switch stacking supports more than two devices. Through stacking, multiple switches can be grouped into one logical device.
A. False
B. True
There is no channel overlap in the 14 available frame segments in the 185.2.4 GHz frame segment.
A. True
B. False
Which of the following authentication methods does not require the user name and password?
A. authentication-mode local
B. authorization-mode hwtacacs
C. authentication-mode none
D. Authentication-mode hwtacacs
FAT AP can independently complete wireless user access, wireless user authentication, and business data forwarding without AC.
A. False
B. True
Which statement about the Hybrid port is correct?
A. When the Hybrid port sends data frames, it must carry VLAN TAG
B. Hybrid port only receives data frames with VLAN TAG
C. Hybrid port can strip TAG of VLAN in the direction of the interface
D. Hybrid port does not require PVID

When the router is powered on, it will read the configuration file from the default storage path to initialize the router. If there is no
configuration file in the default storage path, what will the router use for initialization?
A. New configuration
B. Initial configuration
C. Current configuration
D. Default parameters
A company has 50 private IP addresses. The administrator uses NAT technology to connect the company's network to the public network,
but the company has only one public network address and is not fixed. Which of the following NAT conversion methods meets the needs?
A. Static NAT
B. NAPT
C. easy-ip
D. Basic NAT
Network shown below, Host A does not configure the gateway, the host B exists gateway ARP cache, which of the following statements are
correct? (Multiple choice)
A. Host A and Host B cannot communicate in both directions
B. The data packet sent by host A with the destination IP address of 11.0.12.1 can be forwarded to host B
C. Enable ARP proxy on the GO/0/1 port of the router, then host A can communicate with host B
D. The data packet sent by host B with the destination IP address of 10.0.12.1 can be forwarded to host A
What percentage does the DHCP client expect to send the lease renewal message for the first time?
A. 0.875
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 1
In the network shown in the figure below, if Router A and Router B's loopback 0 communicate through static routing, which command
needs to be entered on Router A?
A. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 32 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0
B. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.1
C. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 0 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0
D. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
Which field is added to the IPv6 packet header than the IPv4 packet header?
A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. Version
D. Flow Label
Compared with STP, which of the following port roles are newly defined in RSTP? (Multiple choice)
A. Root port
B. Backup port
C. Designated port
D. Alternate port
When planning the campus network, which of the following mask lengths is recommended for device interconnection IP addresses?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 30
D. 16
When the switch port receives a data frame that does not carry VLAN TAG, it must add PVID
A. True
B. False
AC uses CAPWAP control tunnel to transmit management messages to FIT AP.
A. False
B. True
In the network shown in the figure below, all routers run the OSPF protocol, and the link cost value is shown in the figure. What is the cost
value of the route entry to the network 10.0.0.0/8 in the RTA routing table?
A. 70
B. 20
C. 100
D. 60
In the network shown in the figure below, two switches are connected by four links, COPPER refers to electrical interface, and FIBER
refers to optical interface. Which of the following two interfaces can achieve link aggregation?
A. G0/0/2 and FE0/0/3
B. G0/0/2 and G0/0/1
C. G0/0/3 and G0/0/1
D. G0/0/3 and FE0/0/3

Correct Answer: C
Before the STA associates with the AP, it needs to exchange some messages to obtain the SSID. What are these messages?
A. Discovery
B. Beacon
C. Probe
D. ResponseProbe Request
Correct Answer: D
By default, the root path cost of the root bridge in the STP protocol must be 0.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
As shown in the figure, after the two routers are configured with OSPF, the administrator configures the <silent -interface s0/0/0>
command on RTA, then the correct description of the following is (). (Multiple Choice)
A. RTA will no longer send OSPF packets
B. RTA will continue to receive, analyze and process OSPF packets sent by RTB
C. The neighbor relationship between the two routers will be down
D. The neighbor relationship between the two routers will not be affected
Correct Answer: A,B,D
NAPT distinguishes the IP addresses of different users through the protocol numbers in TCP, UDP, or IP packets.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
Which stage of the life cycle of campus network construction is the beginning of a project?
A. Network operation and maintenance
B. Network optimization
C. Network implementation
D. Planning and design

Correct Answer: D
All interfaces of the router belong to the same broadcast domain.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
When using the FTP protocol to upgrade the router software, which of the following transmission mode should be selected?
A. Binary mode
B. Stream byte mode
C. Text mode
D. Byte mode
Correct Answer: A
If the Length/Type of an Ethernet data frame = 0x8100, which of the following statements is correct?
A. This data frame must carry VLAN TAG
B. There must be a UDP header in the upper layer of this data frame
C. There must be an IP header in the upper layer of this data frame
D. There must be a TCP header in the upper layer of this data frame
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following fields does the MPLS header include? (Multiple choice)
A. TTL
B. Label
C. Tos
D. EXP
On the VRP platform, which of the following methods can be used to access the previous history commands?
A. Up cursor
B. Left cursor
C. Ctr1+P
D. Ctr1+U
Correct Answer: A
In the VRP interface, use the command startup saved-configuration backup.cfg. to configure the backup.cfg file for the next startup.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following descriptions of OSPF areas are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. The number range of the area is from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255
B. Before configuring the OSPF area, an IP address must be configured for the loopback interface of the router
C. All networks should be declared in zone 0
D. The number of the backbone area cannot be 2

Correct Answer: A,D
In the switch MAC address table, which of the following entries will not age?
A. Device MAC address table entry
B. Static MAC address table entry
C. Dynamic MAC address table entry
D. Port MAC address table entry

Correct Answer: B
The Layer 2 switch is a data link layer device, which can identify the MAC address information in the data frame, forward data according
to the MAC address, and record these MAC addresses and corresponding port information in its own MAC address table.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following parameters cannot be used in the advanced visit control list?
A. Protocol number
B. Physical interface
C. Time range
D. Destination port number

Correct Answer: B
What is the value of the Type field in the RStp configuration BPDU message?
A. ox02
B. ox00
C. ox03
D. Ox01
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following statement about static routing in Huawei equipment is wrong?
A. The cost value (Cost) of the static route cannot be modified.
B. When the priority of the static route is 0, the route will definitely be preferred.
C. The default value of the static route priority is 60
D. The range of the static route priority value is 1-255

Correct Answer: D
By default, how long is the lease period of the IP address assigned by the DHCP server?
A. 12h
B. 1h
C. 18h
D. 24h
Correct Answer: D
The tracert diagnostic tool in Huawei routers is used to track the data forwarding path.
A. False
B. TRUE
Correct Answer: B
An existing switch is connected to a designated port through a port, but the port does not forward any packets, but can monitor network
changes by receiving BPDUs, then what is the role of the port?
A. Alternate port
B. Disable port
C. Designated port
D. Root port
Correct Answer: A
In the network shown in the figure below, assuming that all routers enable the OSPF protocol at the same time, which router is the BDR in
this network?
A. Router D
B. Router B
C. Router A
D. Router C
Correct Answer: C
As shown in the figure, the switch runs STP with default parameters, which of the following ports will be elected as the designated port?
A. Port G0/0/2 of switch A
B. HUB's G0/0/1 port
C. HUB's G0/0/2 port
D. G0/0/1 port of switch A

Correct Answer: D
Which of the following options are configured in a Layer 2 ACL? (Multiple choices)
A. rule 20 permit source-mac 0203-0405-0607
B. rule 15 permit vlan-id 100
C. rule 25 permit source 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0
D. rule 10 permit 12-protoco1 arp

Correct Answer: A,B
Now there are the following four segments: 10.24.0.0/24, 10.24.1.0/24, 10.24.2.0/24, 10.24.3.0/24, which route can point to these four network
segments at the same time? (Multiple Choice)
A. 10.24.1.0/23
B. 0.0.0.0/0
C. 10.24.0.0/22
D. 10.24.0.0/21
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Which statement is wrong about the ARP message?
A. ARP request message is sent by broadcast
B. ARP packets cannot be forwarded to other broadcast domains
C. Any link layer protocol requires ARP messages to assist in obtaining data link layer identification
D. ARP reply packets are sent unicast

Correct Answer: C
What are the advantages of the OSPF protocol? (Multiple Choice)
A. OSPF supports message authentication
B. OSPF supports type-less inter-domain routing (CIDR)
C. OSPF supports load sharing for equal-cost routes
D. Division of support areas

Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Question 89/166
The two switches shown below have both enabled the STP protocol. An engineer made the following conclusions on this network. Which
conclusions do you think are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. Both ports of SWA are designated ports

B. G0/0/2 port of SWB is stable in Forwarding state
C. The G0/0/3 port of SWA is stable in Forwarding state
D. Both ports of SWB are designated ports
E. The G0/0/2 port of SWA is stable in Forwarding state

Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
The management of users by NAS devices is based on domains. Each user belongs to a domain, and a domain is a group of users who
belong to the same domain.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following commands can modify the device name to huawei?
A. Rename Huawei
B. Do name Huawei
C. Hostname Huawei
D. Sysname Huawei
Correct Answer: D
On which layer of the OSI reference model does the Ethernet switch work?
A. Physical layer
B. Transport layer
C. Data link layer
D. Network layer
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following networks belong to a local area network? (Multiple choice)
A. Office network of a company
B. Internet
C. A home network
D. Broadband Metropolitan Area Network

Correct Answer: A,C
What is the priority value of the direct route entry?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0
Correct Answer: D
As shown in the figure below, the wrong statement is:
acl number 2000]

rule 5 deny source 200.0.12.00.0.0.7 rule 10permit source200.0.12.00.0.0.15 #
interface GigabitEthernetO/0/1 traffic-filteroutbound acl2000
A. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.4 cannot access the Internet
B. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.2 cannot access the Internet
C. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.8 cannot access the Internet
D. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.6 cannot access the Internet
Correct Answer: C
The classic network forwarding method is based on router routing table forwarding. The forwarding method of OpenFlow switches is
based on flow table forwarding. Which of these two forwarding methods are correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. The matching method of the address table is to match the route of the destination network segment with the longest mask
B. The flow table is variable length. A network device can only have one flow table
C. The matching method of the flow table is to match the MAC address and IP address of the traffic at the same time
D. The routing table is of fixed length. A device can only have one public routing table
Correct Answer: A,C,D
In the RSTP standard, in order to improve the convergence speed, the port that the switch is directly connected to the terminal can be
defined as ( ).
A. Edge port
B. Root port
C. Fast port
D. Backup port
Correct Answer: A
The IPv6 address 2001: ABEF: 224E: FFE2: BCC0: CD00: DDBE: 8D58 cannot be abbreviated.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
On the AC, you can manually specify the source address or source interface of the CAPWAP tunnel.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
The switch receives a unicast data frame. If the destination MAC of the data frame can be found in the MAC table, the data frame will be
forwarded from the corresponding MAC port.
A. TRUE
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Trunk ports can allow multiple VLANs to pass, including VLAN4096.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
A device has been configured to complete the Telnet configuration. The device login address is 10.1.1.10. The Telnet user name is admin
and the password is Huawei@123. Which of the following is the correct way to log in to this device using telnetlib?
A. telnetlib.Telnet （ 10.1.1.0,admin )
B. telnetlib.Telnet （ 10.1.1.0,23,admin,Huawei@123 )
C. telnetlib.Telnet （ 10.1.1.0 )
D. telnetlib.Telnet （ 10.1.1.0,23, Huawei@123 )
Correct Answer: B
What is the total length of the VLAN frame format defined by IEEE802.1Q?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following advantages does router-on-a-stick achieve inter-VLAN routing intercommunication?
A. Reduce routing table entries
B. Reduce the number of equipment
C. Reduce the number of link connections
D. Reduce the use of IP addresses

Correct Answer: C
The network shown below, it is desirable host traffic network administrator during planning A destined for host B data packets through
the router between the G0/0/3 interfaces, the host B to the host PC A data packet through the router Between the G0/0/4 interface, which of
the following commands can achieve this requirement? (Multiple choice)
A. RTA : ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.6 RTB : ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.1
B. RTA : ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.2 RTB : ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.5
C. RTA : ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.2 RTB : ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.5
D. RTA : ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.6 RTB : ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.1
Correct Answer: B,C
Which of the following are not the characteristics of a small-sized campus network?
A. Fewer users
B. Simple network level
C. Simple network requirements
D. Wide coverage
Correct Answer: D
Which type of message is used by network devices running SNMPv 1 protocol to actively send alarm information?
A. Get Request
B. Response
C. Trap
D. Get-Next Request
Correct Answer: C
By default, network devices running SNMPv2c protocol use which of the following port numbers to send trap messages to the network
management system?
A. 17
B. 6
C. 161
D. 162
Correct Answer: D
What is the data link layer MAC address of each VAP on the AP?
A. ESS
B. SSID
C. BSS
D. BSSID
Correct Answer: D
In the WLAN network architecture, what is terminal equipment that supports the 802.11 standard called?
A. AP
B. Client
C. AC
D. STA
Correct Answer: D
On Huawei ARG3 series routers, what authentication modes does AAA support? (Multiple Choice)
A. None
B. HWTACACS
C. 802.1x
D. Local
Telnet is based on TCP protocol.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following does not be included in AAA?
A. Accounting
B. Authorization
C. Authentication
D. Audit
Correct Answer: D
In the network shown in the figure below, all routers run OSPF protocol. Above the link is the value of the Cost value, then the path for
RTA to reach the network 10.0.0.0/8 is:
A. A-C-D
B. A-D
C. A-B-D
D. RTA cannot reach 10.0.0.0/8

Correct Answer: A
In the VRP interface, use the command startup saved-configuration backup.cfg to configure the startup.cfg file for the next startup.
A. FALSE
B. TURE
Correct Answer: B
<huawei>system-view
[huawei]command-privilege level 3 view user save
The correct statement about the above configuration command is:
A. Modify the permission level of the user view command to 3, and save the configuration
B. Modify the user's authority level to 3, and save the configuration
C. Modify the permission level of the save command in the user view to 3
D. Modify the authority level of the save command used by a user to 3

Correct Answer: C
As shown in the figure, if host A and host B want to achieve inter-VLAN communication through single-arm routing, which configuration
should be done under the G0/0/1.1 interface of RTA?
A. dot1q termination vid 20
B. dot1q termination vid 40
C. dot1q termination vid 30
D. dot1q termination vid 10

Correct Answer: D
The network management system can only view the operating status of the device through the SNMP protocol, but cannot issue
configurations.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
In what state does the OSPF protocol determine the master-slave relationship of DD packets?
A. Exchange
B. ExStart
C. 2-way
D. Full
Correct Answer: C
The router output information is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is wrong?
A. The MTU value of the Ethgrnet0/0/0 interface is 1480
B. The broadcast address corresponding to the Ethernet0/0/0 interface is 10.0.12.255
C. The IP address of the Ethernet0/0/0 interface is 10.0.12.1/24
D. The physical link of the Ethernet0/0/0 interface is normal

Correct Answer: A
In the network shown in the figure below, all routers run OSPF protocol, which device is ABR? (Multiple choice)
A. Router C
B. Router A
C. Router B
D. Router D
Correct Answer: B,C
Which of the following commands can be used to view the router's CPU usage?
A. display interface
B. display cpu-state
C. display cpu-usage
D. display memory
Correct Answer: C
A company applies for a Class C address segment, which needs to be evenly distributed to 8 subsidiaries. The largest subsidiary has 14
computers. Different subsidiaries must be in different network segments. The subnet mask should be designed as ().
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D
VRP operating platform, which of the following commands can only view static routes?
A. display ip routing-table protocol static
B. display ip routing-table verbose
C. display ip routing-table
D. display ip routing-table statistics

Correct Answer: A
Which of the following statements about the role of STP protocol Forward Delay is correct?
A. Reduce the time interval of BPDu sending. Improve the convergence speed of STP
B. There is a delay when the B1ocking state and the Disabled state are converted
C. Improve the survival time of BPDUs to ensure that the configured BPDUs can be forwarded to more switches
D. Prevent temporary loops

Correct Answer: D
Which of the following statements about the division of OSPF protocol area is wrong?
A. Area 0 is the backbone area, and other areas must be connected to this area
B. Only ABR can be used as ASBR
C. Dividing OSPF areas can reduce the LSDB scale of some routers
D. The LSDBs in the routers in the same OSPF area are completely consistent
Correct Answer: B
In order to realize the network layer function on VLANIF interface, what need to be configured on VLANIF interface? (Multiple choice)
A. Subnet mask
B. IP address
C. MAC address
D. IP prefix
Correct Answer: A,B
If the network address of a network is 192.168.1.0, then its broadcast address must be 192.168.1.255.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
UDP cannot guarantee the reliability of data transmission, and does not provide functions such as message sequencing and flow control. It
is suitable for flows with low transmission reliability requirements but high transmission speed and delay requirements.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
The device port running STP protocol is in Forwarding state. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The port only receives and processes BPDUs, and does not forward user traffic.
B. The port will build a MAC address table based on the received user traffic, but does not forward user traffic.
C. The port not only does not process BPDU packets, but also does not forward user traffic.
D. The port not only forwards user traffic but also processes BPDU packets.
Correct Answer: D
Which planes of the following does a network device have? (Multiple choice)
A. Business plane
B. Control plane
C. Management plane
D. Data plane
Correct Answer: B,D
Which of the following statements about the edge port in the RSTP protocol is correct?
A. Edge port participates in RSTP operation
B. The edge port can be directly transferred from Disable to Forwarding state
C. The interconnection ports between switches need to be set as edge ports
D. The edge port discards the received configuration BPDU packet

Correct Answer: B
Which of the following levels is not a common network level in mid-sized campus network architecture?
A. Convergence layer
B. Network layer
C. Core layer
D. Access layer
Correct Answer: B
The Layer 2 Ethernet switch generates entries in the MAC address table according to the ( ) of the Ethernet frame received by the port.
A. Source IP address
B. Source MAC address
C. Destination IP address
D. Destination MAC address

Correct Answer: B
Question 135/166
The network administrator configures the Huawei router RTA as shown in the figure. If a user needs to be authenticated in the
authentication domain "huawei", the correct description below is ().
[RTA]aaa
[RTA-aaa]domain Huawei
RTA-aaa-domain-huawei]authentication-s cheme aul
[RTA-aaa-domain-huawei]authentication-scheme au2
A. Will use "authentication-scheme au2" authentication
B. "authentication-scheme au2" authentication will be used, if "au2" is registered, "aul" authentication will be used
C. Will use "au2" authentication and will use "authentication-scheme au1" authentication
D. "authentication-scheme aul" authentication will be used, if "au1" is deleted, "au2" authentication will be used
Correct Answer: D
The administrator has configured the router as shown in the figure, then what IP address can a host connected to the G1/0/0 interface of
the router obtain through DHCP?
A. The IP address data obtained by the host 10.10.10.0/24
B. The IP address obtained by the host may belong to the 10.10.10.0/24 network, or it may belong to the 10.20.20.0/24 network
C. The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.20.20.0/24 network
D. The host cannot obtain an IP address

Correct Answer: A
How many types of data flows with different service levels can be marked based on MPLS labels?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 2
Correct Answer: A
The IPv6 protocol uses NS and NA packets for duplicate address detection (DAD).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
The administrator cannot log in to the Huawei router through Telnett, but other administrators can log in normally, so which of the
following are the possible reasons? (Multiple Choice)
A. The administrator user account has been disabled

B. The administrator user account has been deleted
C. The authority level of the administrator user account has been modified to 0
D. The Te1net service of the AR2200 router has been disabled

Correct Answer: A,B
There are hosts in a private network that need to access the Internet. In order to achieve this requirement, which of the following
configurations should the administrator do on the edge router of the network? (Multiple Choice)
A. NAT
B. Default route
C. DHCP
D. STP
Correct Answer: A,B
There are hosts in a private network that need to access the Internet. In order to achieve this requirement, which of the following
configurations should the administrator do on the edge router of the network? (Multiple Choice)
A. NAT
B. Default route
C. DHCP
D. STP
Correct Answer: A,B
What type of IPv6 address FE80: 2E0: FCFF: FE6F: 4F36 belongs to?
A. Multicast address
B. Link local address
C. Anycast address
D. Global semicast address

Correct Answer: B
Which of the following elements are included in the routing table? (Multiple choice)
A. Protocol
B. Nexthop
C. Cost
D. Interface
E. Destination/mask
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Which of the following statements about router-on-a-stick are correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. Need to create a sub-interface on the router
B. One physical connection per VLAN
C. On the switch, configure the port connected to the router as a Trunk port, and allow frames of the relevant VLAN to pass
D. Use only one physical link connection between the switch and the router
Correct Answer: A,C,D
For multiple paths to the same destination network, the router needs to select by comparing the magnitude of the Preference value. If the
Preference is the same, then select according to the magnitude of the Cost value.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
In the history of WLAN development, which of the following is not included in the main wireless protocol standards in the primary mobile
office era?
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11b
Correct Answer: A
As shown in the figure below, the network and switch configuration information are shown in the figure. Which of the following statements
is correct? (Multiple choice)
A. Host point and host B cannot ping
B. Data frames on the two links do not contain VLAN TAG
C. The PVID of the switch GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port is 20
D. Host A and Host B can be pinged

Correct Answer: A,B,C
What kind of message does the OSPF protocol use to discover and maintain neighbor relationships?
A. LSR
B. LSU
C. DD
D. HELLO
Correct Answer: D
In order to distinguish different users and provide different network services on the AP. Which of the following can be configured?
A. VT
B. VAC
C. VAP
D. WAP
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following OSPF protocol packets can ensure the reliability of LSA updates?
A. LSACK
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. DD
Correct Answer: A
In the network shown in the figure, the administrator hopes that all hosts cannot access the web service (the port number is 80), and other
services are normally accessed, so in the interface configuration of G0/0/1, traffic-filtar outbound needs to define which ACL rule?
A. acl number 3002 rule 5 permit ip rule 10 deny tcp destination-port eq www #
B. acl number 3001 rule 5 deny udp destination-port eq www rule 10 permit ip #
C. acl number 3000 rule 5 deny tcp destination-port eq www rule 10 permit ip #
D. acl number 3003 rule 5 permit ip rule 10 deny udp destination-port eq www #
Correct Answer: C
As shown in the figure, a static NAT command is deployed on router R1. When the PC accesses the Internet, the destination address in the
data packet will not change.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
The network administrator created VLAN 10 on the Layer 3 switch and configured an IP address under the virtual interface of the VLAN.
When the command "display ip interface brief" is used to check the port status, it is found that the VLANIF 10 interface is in the down
state. What should be done to restore the VLANIF 10 interface to normal?
A. Assign a physical interface that must be Up to VLAN 10
B. Assign any physical interface to VLAN 10
C. Add an interface that must be Up and must be of type Trunk into VLAN 10
D. Use the command "undo shutdown" under VLANIF 10 interface

Correct Answer: D
To apply the ACL configured in the figure in Telnet, which of the following statements is correct?
A. The device with IP address 172.16.105.4 can use Telnet service
B. The device with IP address 172.16.105.3 can use Telnet service
C. The device with IP address 172.16.105.5 can use Telnet service
D. The device with IP address 172.16.105.6 can use Telnet service

Correct Answer: D
As shown in the figure below, assuming the other configurations of the switch are kept in the default state, which port of the following
switch will become the designated port? (Multiple Choice)
A. SWC's G0/0/1
B. SWC's G0/0/2
C. SWB's G0/0/1
D. SWA's G0/0/3
Correct Answer: C,D
In the network shown in the figure below, the host has an ARP cache, and host A sends a packet to host B.
What are the destination MAC and destination IP of this packet?
A. MAC-B,11.0.12.1
B. MAC-D,11.0.12.1
C. MAC-C,10.0.12.2
D. MAC-A,11.0.12.1
Correct Answer: B
Using the ACL shown in the figure on the router RTA to match routing entries, which of the following entries will be matched? (Multiple
choice)
A. 192.17.0.0/24
B. 172.16.1.1/32
C. 172.16.1.0/24
D. 172.18.0.0/16
Correct Answer: B,D
Which of the following types does IPv6 address contain?
A. Anycast address
B. Unicast address
D. Multicast address
As shown in the figure below, suppose the MAC address table of SWA is as follows. Now host A sends a data frame with the destination
MAC address MAC-B. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Flood this data frame
B. Forward this data frame only from port G0/0/2
C. STA discards the data frame
D. Forward this data frame only from port G0/0/3

Correct Answer: B
FIT AP can work independently without relying on AC.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
What are the user authentication methods that can be deployed in wlan? (Multiple choice)
A. 802.1X authentication
B. MAC authentication
C. Radius certification
D. Portal authentication
If the Ethernet data frame Length/Type=0X0806, which of the following statement is correct? (Multiple choice)
A. The data frame is an Ethernet II frame
B. The destination MAC address of the data frame may be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
C. The data frame is an IEEE 802.3 frame
D. The source MAC address of the data frame must not be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Correct Answer: A,D
Which of the following working modes are supported by Huawei Enterprise AP? (Multiple Choice)
A. FAT
B. Cloud
C. Local
D. FIT
Correct Answer: A,D
The MAC address table of the existing switch is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. When the switch restarts, the MAC address learned by port Eth0/0/3 needs to be learned again
B. The data frame with the source MAC address of 5489-9811-0b49 and the destination MAC address of 5489-9894-1d30 received from the
port is forwarded from the Eth0/0/2 port
C. When the switch restarts, the MAC address learned by port Eth0/0/2 does not need to be relearned
D. The data frame with the source MAC address of 5489-9885-18a8 and the destination MAC address of 5489-989d-1d30 received from the
port is forwarded from the Eth0/0/1 port
Correct Answer: D
The broadcast address is a special address in which the host bits in the network address are all set to 1, and it can also be used as a host
address.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following statement about the TTL field in the IP packet header is correct?
A. TTL defines the time interval at which the source host can send data packets
B. Each time an IP packet passes through a router, its TTL value will be increased by 1
C. Every time an IP packet passes through a router, its TTL value will be reduced by 1
D. TTL defines the number of packets that the source host can send
Correct Answer: C
NO.1 Which of the following statement about the transport layer protocol is correct? (Multiple
choice)
A. UDP is suitable for the transmission of delay-sensitive traffic, and can be reorganized according
to the sequence number field in the message header
B. UDP uses the STNOACK flag to request and confirm the establishment of a connection
C. TCP establish a connection is a three-way handshake process, TCP terminates the connection will
have to go through four-way handshake
D. The range of well-known port numbers is 0-1023
Answer: C,D
NO.2 Which field of the ipv6 packet header can be used for QoS?
A. Next Header
B. Version
C. Traffic Class
D. Payload Length
Answer: C
NO.3 By default, what is the STP Forward Delay time in seconds?

A. 10
B. 15
C. 5
D. 20
Answer: B
NO.4 Regarding the control plane of the device, which of the following statements is correct?
(Multiple choice)
A. The control plane is responsible for directing data forwarding
B. The control plane is responsible for generating the IP routing table
C. The control plane provides equipment monitoring capabilities
D. The control plane is responsible for the interaction of routing protocols between devices
Answer: B,C,D
NO.5 On Huawei ARG3 series routers, what authentication modes does AAA support? (Multiple
Choice)
A. HWTACACS
. 802.1x
C. None
D. Local
Answer: A,C,D
NO.6 In the network shown in the figure below, the router receives a data packet with a
destination IP address of 11.0.12.1 from host A.
After this data packet is forwarded by the router, what are the destination MAC and destination IP?
A. MAC-D, 11.0.12.1
B. MAC-B, 11.0.12.1
C. MAC-C, 11.0.12.1
D. MAC-D, 10.0.12.2
Answer: A
NO.7 The IP addresses of the VLANIF interfaces of the same switch cannot be the same.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
NO.8 When planning the campus network, which of the following mask lengths is recommended
for device interconnection IP addresses?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 32
D. 30
Answer: D
NO.9 CAPWAP protocol stipulates the communication standard between AC and Ap. Which of the
following statements about CAPWAP protocol is correct?
A. CAPWAP In order to reduce the burden on the AP, a tunnel is used to transmit control
messages and data messages at the same time
B. AP can encapsulate the user's data message in CAPWAP and forward it by AC
C. CAPWAP is an application layer protocol based on TCP transmission
D. In order to establish a CAPWAP tunnel, FIT Ap can only discover AC through broadcast messages
Answer: D
NO.10 Which of the following elements are included in the routing table? (Multiple choice)
A. Cost
3
B. Nexthop
C. Protocol
D. Destination/mask
E. Interface
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way!
NO.11 As shown in the figure below, router A has Telnet router B through IP address 10.0.12.2. In
the current interface, which of the following operations will cause the Telnet session of Router A and
Router B to be interrupted? (Multiple Choice)
A. Close G0/0/1 interface

B. Modify the IP address of G0/0/1 interface
C. Configure static routing
D. Enable 0SPF protocol under G0/0/1 interface
Answer: A,B
NO.12 Which state does the OSPF protocol use to indicate that the adjacency relationship has been
established?
A. Attempt
B. Down
C. 2-way
D. Full
Answer: D
NO.13 As shown in the figure, the two switches use the default parameters to run STP, the
configuration command STP root primary is used on switch A, and the configuration command STP
priority 0 is used on switch B.
Then which port will be blocked?
A. HUB's G0/0/3
B. G0/0/1 of switch B
C. G0/0/2 of switch A
D. G0/0/1 of switch A
4
Answer: C
NO.14 What is the role of the command port trunk allow pass vlan all?
A. The connected peer device can dynamically determine which VLAN IDs are allowed to pass
B. The opposite port connected to the port must be configured with port trunk permit vlan all
C. If the port default vlan 3 command is configured for the connected remote device, VLAN 3 cannot
communicate between the two devices
D. All VLAN data frames are allowed to pass through this port
Answer: D
NO.15 Which of the following parameters is not included in the configuration BPDU of the STP
protocol?
A. Root ID
B. VLAN ID
C. Bridge ID
D. Port ID
Answer: B
NO.16 What is the length of the Ethernet_II frame containing the Ethernet header?
A. 64-1500B
B. 60-1560B
C. 46-1500B
D. 64-1518B
Answer: C
NO.17 How many types of data flows with different service levels can be marked based on MPLS
labels?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: D
NO.18 The following two configuration commands can realize the router RTA to the same
destination 10.1.1.0 routing master and backup backup.
[ RTA ] ip route-static 10.1.1.0 24 12.1.1.1 permanent
[ RTA ] ip route-static 10.2.2.0 24 13.1.1.1.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A
NO.19 What is the total length of the IPv6 address in bits?

A. 128
5
B. 64
C. 96
D. 32
Answer: A
NO.20 Which of the following IPv6 is a global unicast address?

A. FF02::1
B. FF::02::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
C. FEE:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
D. 2001::12:1
Answer: D
NO.21 What kind of message does the OSPF protocol use to confirm the received LSU message?
A. LSU
B. LSR
C. LSA
D. LSACK
Answer: D
NO.22 Which of the following description of static and dynamic routing is wrong?
A. Static routing is simple to configure and easy to manage when applied in the enterprise
B. Dynamic routing protocols take up more system resources than static routing protocols.
C. After the administrator deploys the dynamic routing protocol in the corporate network, later
maintenance and expansion can be more convenient
D. After the link fails, the static route can automatically complete the network convergence.
Answer: D
NO.23 Which OSPF version below is suitable for IPv6?

A. OSPFv4
B. OSPFv3
C. OSPFv2
D. OSPFv1
Answer: B
NO.24 When using FTP for file transfer, how many TCP connections will be established?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: B
NO.25 When the IPv4 protocol is used as the network layer protocol, which field is not included in
the network layer header?
6
A. TTL
B. Source IPv4 address
C. Destination IPv4 address
D. Sequence number
Answer: D
NO.26 On the VRP platform, what is the role of the command "interface vlanit <vlan-
id>" ?
A. Configure VLAN for a port
B. No such command
C. Create or enter VLAN virtual interface view
D. Create a VLAN
Answer: C
NO.27 Which of the following OSPF protocol packets can ensure the reliability of LSA
updates?
A. DD
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
Answer: D
NO.28 The device port running STP protocol is in Forwarding state.

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The port only receives and processes BPDUs, and does not forward user traffic.
B. The port will build a MAC address table based on the received user
traffic, but does not forward user traffic.
C. The port not only forwards user traffic but also processes BPDU packets.
D. The port not only does not process BPDU packets, but also does not forward user
traffic.
Answer: C
NO.29 Static NAT can only achieve one-to-one mapping between private
addresses and public addresses.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
NO.30 A certain ACL of the router is in the following rules, rule deny
source 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 destination 172.16.10.2 0.0.0.0 Which
statement is correct?
A. All TCP packets whose source IP is 172.16.10.2. Destination IP is 192.168.2.1
match this rule
B. All TCP packets whose source IP is 192.168.2.1 and destination IP is 172.16.10.1
match this rule
7
C. All TCP packets whose source IP is 172.16.10.2 and destination IP 192.168.2.0
match this rule
D. All TCP packets whose source IP is 192.168.2.1 and destination IP is
172.16.10.2 are configured with this rule.
Answer: D
Which of the following OSPF packets can ensure LSA update reliability?
 A. DD
 B. LSR
 C. LSU
 D. LSACK
An administrator currently manages AR2200 devices in the network through a single

password, however the company wishes to introduce another two administrators and
provide unique user credentials and privilege levels for telnet access to the network
devices.
What action can be taken? (Choose three)
 A. Configure three users under the AAA-view, and assign each a different password.
 B. The authentication mode must be changed to AAA.
 C. Each administrator must be assigned a privilege level.
 D. A public IP address must be assigned to each user for telnet access
Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose
three)
 A. Password authentication
 B. AAA local authentication
 C. MD5 authentication
 D. No authentication
On Huawei AR G3 Series routers, which authentication modes does AAA support?

(Choose all that apply.)
 A. None
 B. Local
 C. Radius
 D. 802.1X
Refer to the configuration output. RTA has been configured using AAA as shown, and
associated with the "huawei" domain. For users in the huawei domain, which
authentication-scheme will be used?
 A. au1
 B. au2
 C. au1 will be used. When au1 is deleted, users will use au2
 D. au2 will be used. When au2 is deleted, users will use au1
A user accesses a server supporting AAA, for which the authorization mode on the AAA
server has been configured using the command "authorization-mode hwtacacs if-
authenticated".
Which of the following statements regarding this command are true? (Choose three).
 A. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using local
authentication.
 B. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using remote
authentication.
 C. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will bypass authentication.
 D. The hwtacacs server will authorize the user.
Which of the following descriptions regarding eSight is not correct?
 A. eSight is used to monitor and manage enterprise networks.

 B. eSight supports only Huawei devices.
 C. eSight supports WLAN management and monitoring of hotspot coverage.
 D. eSight supports the backup of configuration files and network traffic analysis.
What of the following statements is correct regarding access control list types and
ranges?
 A. A basic ACL value ranges from 1000-2999

 B. An advanced ACL value ranges from 3000-4000
 C. A layer 2 ACL value ranges from 4000-4999
 D. An interface ACL value ranges 1000-2000
Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?
 A. Source interface
 B. Destination port number
 C. Protocol number
 D. Time-range
Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements regarding ACL 2001
is correct?
 A. Packets from network 10.0.1.0/24 network will be denied.

 B. Packets from network 10.0.1.0/24 network will be permitted.
 C. Packets destined for network 10.0.1.0/24 will be denied.
 D. Packets destined for network 10.0.1.0/24 will be permitted.
Refer to the configuration output. A network administrator configured the ACL on router
RTA, as shown.
Which of the following statements regarding the rule order are correct? (Choose two).
 A. The rule-number of the first rule is 1

 B. The rule-number of the first rule is 5
 C. The rule-number of the second rule is 2
 D. The rule-number of the second rule is 10
Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator discovered that the
configuration in one of the enterprise routers had been changed.
What actions can be taken by the administrator to prevent further changes? (Choose
three)
 A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to 0.
 B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.
 C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to manage
the router.
 D. The administrator should configure port-security on the router.
Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
the configuration of the ACL on RTA?
 A. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be denied.

 B. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be permitted.
 C. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be denied.
 D. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be permitted.
Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the configuration of the ACL on RTA? (Choose two).
 A. Packets from network 172.16.1.1/32 will be denied.

 B. Packets from network 172.16.1.0/24 will be denied.
 C. Packets from network 172.17.1.0/24 will be denied.
 D. Packets from network 172.18.0.0/16 will be denied.
The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission,

what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two)
 A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station.

 B. Link the end stations together using a switch.
 C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station.
 D. Link the end stations together using a hub.
On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex
mode as "auto negotiation"? (Choose two)
 A. duplex negotiation auto

 B. duplex auto-negotiation
 C. duplex auto
 D. undo duplex
The network administrator wishes to transmit data between two end stations. The
network interface cards of both devices operates at 100Mbps however one supports
half duplex while the other uses full duplex mode.
What will occur as a result?
 A. The end stations cannot communicate.

 B. The end stations can communicate, but data may be lost during transmission of large
amounts of traffic.
 C. The end stations will operate normally
 D. The end stations can communicate, but speed is different during transmission of
large amounts of traffic.
An Ethernet port can work one of three duplex modes, whereas an Optical Ethernet port
only supports one single mode.
Which of the following represents this mode?
 A. Full-duplex
 B. Half-duplex
 C. Auto-negotiation
 D. Simplex
While inspecting packets in the network, a network administrator discovers a frame with
the destination MAC address of 01-00-5E-A0-B1-C3.
What can the administrator determine from this?
 A. The MAC address is a unicast address.

 B. The MAC address is a broadcast address
 C. The MAC address is a multicast address.
 D. The MAC address is incorrect.
According to OSI reference model, which layer is responsible for end to end error
checking and flow control?
 A. Physical layer
 B. Data link layer
 C. Network layer
 D. Transport layer
Which of the following mechanisms are used for flow control? (Choose three)
 A. Acknowledgement
 B. Buffering
 C. Source quench messages
 D. Windowing
Refer to the capture output. The administrator has captured three packets in the
network. Which statement regarding the captured packets is incorrect?
 A. This packets represent a TCP three-way handshake process.

 B. 10.0.12.1 is the telnet server, while 10.0.12.2 is the telnet client.
 C. The three packets contain no application data.
 D. 10.0.12.1 uses port 50190 to buid the telnet connection.
An Ethernet frame is captured by network protocol analyzer tool and the value of
Type/Length field is 0x0800.
Which of the following statements about the frame are correct? (Choose two)
 A. The frame structure of the frame is Ethernet_II

 B. The frame structure of the frame is 802.3
 C. Its upper layer protocol is IP
 D. Its upper layer protocol is IPX
Which of the following descriptions regarding the TTL field of the IP packet is correct?
 A. The TTL defines how many packets the source can send.
 B. The TTL defines the duration during which the source can send packets.
 C. The TTL value will decrement by 1 each time the packet is routed.
 D. The TTL value will increment by 1 each time the packet is routed.
Which of the following statements are correct about TTL field in IP packet? (Choose
two)
 A. The maximum value of TTL is 65535.

 B. Normally, it's impossible for a router to receive a packet whose TTL is zero.
 C. The main purpose of TTL is to prevent IP packets from circulating endlessly in a
network which can consume a lot of bandwidth.
 D. TTL value will be decremented as a packet is passed through the network devices
such as hub, LAN switch and router.
In the case of Huawei router, what is the "-i" parameter in a Ping command issued on a
VRP operating system used to set?
 A. Interface for sending an Echo Request packet
 B. Source IP address for sending an Echo Request packet
 C. Interface for receiving an Echo Reply packet
 D. Destination IP address for receiving an Echo Reply packet
To provide the information about the IP addresses that a user packet traverses along
the path to the destination, which of the following does Tracert record in each expired
ICMP TTL packet?
 A. Destination port
 B. Source port
 C. Destination IP address
 D. Source IP address
Which of the following statements regarding the verification of IP connectivity are false?
(Choose three)
 A. The ping 127.0.0.1 command can be used to check whether the network cable is
correctly inserted into the host's Ethernet port.
 B. The ping command with the host IP address as the destination can be used to verify
that the TCP/IP protocol suite is functioning correctly.
 C. The ping command can be used to verify connectivity between the host and the local
gateway.
 D. The command "ipconfig /release" can be used to check connectivity problems
between the host and the local gateway.
A network administrator uses the ping command to check for points of failure in the
network.
Which protocols will be used during this process? (Choose two)
 A. ICMP
 B. TCP
 C. ARP
 D. UDP
A network administrator recently used tracert to trace the path to the destination IP
address of an external website, however the trace path displayed only a timeout result.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the reason for this? (Choose two)
 A. The source router had shutdown the ICMP function.

 B. This destination IP address does not exist.
 C. The gateway cannot find a route to the destination.
 D. This is a normal phenomenon.
A network administrator uses the ping command to test connectivity to the destination
10.0.0.2 on a Huawei AR series router.
Which statement regarding the output is correct?
 A. The network administrator used the command ping -c 2 -s 800 10.0.0.2

 B. The network administrator used the command ping -a 2 -v 800 10.0.0.2
 C. The path between the source and destination is not OK.
 D. The network administrator changed the default TTL value.
Which of the following statements explains the behavior of the ICMP redirect function?
(Choose two)
 A. When a router receives data on the interface via which the same data needs to be
forwarded, and the source is on the same segment as the next hop, an ICMP redirect
message will be sent by the router to the source.
 B. When a router receives data on an interface, and the router's IP address matches the
destination IP of the data, an ICMP redirect message will be sent by the router to the
source.
 C. When a router receives data on the interface via which the same data needs to be
forwarded, and the source is on the same segment as the next hop, an ICMP Redirect
message will be sent by the source to the router.
 D. When a router receives data on the interface via which the same data needs to be
forwarded, and the source is on a different segment from the next hop, an ICMP redirect
message will be sent by the router to the source
Host A wishes to send data to host C, and generates an ARP request to obtain the
destination MAC address.
Which statement is true?
 A. The destination IP address of the ARP request is Host C.

 B. The destination MAC address of this ARP request is Host C.
 C. The destination IP address for the ARP request is a broadcast IP address.
 D. The destination MAC address of this frame is the MAC address of G0/0/0 on RTA.
An ARP request is sent by host A to obtain the destination MAC address of host D.
Which statement is true about regarding the ARP reply?
 A. The destination MAC address of this frame is the MAC address of Switch A.
 B. The destination IP address of this packet is the VLANIF1 IP address of Switch A.
 C. The destination MAC address of this frame is the MAC address of Host A.
 D. The destination IP address of this packet is a broadcast IP address.
Which of the following applications can be used to detect the path along which the data
packets are transmitted from the source to the destination?
 A. Route
 B. Netstat
 C. Tracert
 D. Send
How many probe packets are sent for each TTL value by default when "tracert" is used
to detect the path along which packet is sent from source to destination?
 A. 3
 B. 4
 C. 6
 D. 8
Which of the following types can ICMP packets be classified into? (Choose two)
 A. ICMP transport packet

 B. ICMP error reporting packet
 C. ICMP query packet
 D. ICMP application packet
On VRP platform, which of the following parameters can be used together with the
"ping" command to specify the source address of an echo request message?
 A. -a
 B. -s
 C. -d
 D. -n
A router functioning as a Proxy receives an ARP request packet, but finds that the
destination address in the packet is not intended for itself. In this case, what will the
router do? (Choose two)
 A. Discard the packet.

 B. Check for a route that matches the destination address.
 C. Forward its MAC address to the ARP request sender after finding that a route to the
destination address is available.
 D. Broadcast the ARP request packet.
Two end stations in a point-to-point network perform address resolution.

Which of the following statements is correct?
 A. The destination address of an ARP request from each station will be a unicast MAC
address.
 B. The destination address of an ARP request from each station will be a broadcast IP
address.
 C. The destination address of an ARP reply from each station will be a unicast MAC
address.
 D. The destination address of an ARP reply from each station will be a broadcast MAC
address.
What will the destination MAC address be at the moment a frame is transmitted by the
host, when the router is the IP destination?
 A. The MAC address of the switch.

 B. The MAC address of the router interface G0/0/0.
 C. The MAC address of the host.
 D. The destination MAC address will be a broadcast MAC address.
Which of the following statements about gratuitous ARP packets are true? (Choose two)
 A. A system can determine whether conflicting IP addresses are used by sending a
gratuitous ARP packet
 B. A gratuitous ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP request packet.
 C. A gratuitous ARP packet can help to update an IP address.
 D. A gratuitous ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP reply packet.
UDP is connectionless oriented, which of the following must be used in order to ensure
reliability?
 A. Internet Protocol
 B. Application Layer Protocol
 C. Network Layer Protocol
 D. Transmission Control Protocol
Refer to the graphic.
The administrator has configured an IP address for Host A and Host B, but had
forgotten to configure a default gateway.
What effect will this have on the hosts?
 A. Neither host will be affected, and therefore will be able to communicate with the peer.
 B. Host A will be unable to connect to the router's G0/0/0 interface.
 C. Hosts will be unable to communicate unless arp-proxy is enabled on the router.
 D. The host will be unable to reach neither the local nor remote network destinations.
A host has established a telnet connection with the router attached to interface G0/0/0.
Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose all that apply.)
 A. The destination MAC address of a frame sent by the host will be the MAC address of
the router interface G0/0/0.
 B. The destination MAC address of a frame sent by the host will be the MAC address of
the switch.
 C. The destination port number in a segment header will have a value of 80.
 D. The destination IP address of a packet will be the IP address of the Router interface
G0/0/0.
The administrator uses the ping command on the host to test connectivity to the website
www.huawei.com.
The command line shows a request time out. The administrator displays the ARP
entries for the host.
Which entry will be found in the ARP cache table of the host?
 A. The MAC address of the destination www.huawei.com will exist in the ARP cache.
 B. The MAC address of the switch will exist in the ARP cache.
 C. The IP address of the destination www.huawei.com will exist in the ARP cache.
 D. The MAC address of router interface G0/0/0, will exist in the ARP cache.
When R2 forwards data to R3 from R1, which of the following items will change?
(Choose two)
 A. The source MAC address

 B. The destination MAC address
 C. The source IP address
 D. The destination IP address
If Host B also configured the IP address as "192.168.1.1/24", an IP address config will
occur.
What will happen as a result?
 A. Host B will send an ICMP request to the destination with the configured IP address. If
a reply is received, the host will notify of an address conflict.
 B. Host A will send a gratuitous ARP request to resolve the MAC address of the
destination 192.168.1.1, for which Host B will reply.
 C. Host B will send a gratuitous ARP request to resolve the MAC address of the
destination 192.168.1.1, for which Host A will reply.
 D. Host A will ignore any received ARP request intended for destination 192.168.1.1.
Refer to the graphic. A switch attempts to forward a frame to the MAC destination 5489-
98ec-f011. What operation will occur on the switch?
 A. The switch will send a request to obtain the MAC address of 5489-98ec-f011.
 B. The switch will report that the destination is unreachable and report this to the
source.
 C. The switch will flood the frame via all ports, with exception of the port on which the
frame was received.
 D. The switch will drop the frame because it does not have an entry in its MAC address
table.
Host A has been connected to a four port switch A on port G0/0/1and configured with an
IP address.
When Host A initially forwards a frame, what action will be taken by Switch A?
 A. Switch A will drop this frame.

 B. Switch A will attempt to flood the frame to all ports except for the G0/0/1 interface.
 C. Switch A will forward the frame via ports G0/0/1, G0/0/2 and G0/0/3.
 D. Switch will receive this frame before returning the frame to G0/0/1.
A server is linked to port interface G0/0/1 of a switch. The administrator wishes to allow
only this server to be linked to this interface on the switch.
Which method can be used to achieve this?
 A. Configure a static ARP entry using the server's IP address and MAC address in the
switch.
 B. Configure a static MAC address binding entry of the server's MAC address and the
interface in the switch.
 C. Configure the default gateway of the switch to be the same as the server's IP
address.
 D. It is not possible to enable a single device to be associated with an interface.
An administrator connects two switches together in a local enterprise network. The ports
of one switch support Fast Ethernet, while the ports of the other switch support Gigabit
Ethernet. Hosts connected to one switch are able to communicate, however
communication between the two switches fails.
What is the possible reason for this?
 A. The ports have disabled auto-negotiation.

 B. One port is supporting auto-negotiation, while auto-negotiation is disabled on the port
of the other switch.
 C. The port of one switch is operating using half duplex mode, while the port of the other
switch is using full duplex mode.
 D. A Fast Ethernet port cannot communicate directly with a Gigabit Ethernet port.
A layer 2 LAN switch generates CAM table entries according to the ( ) of the received
frame.
 A. Source MAC address

 B. Destination MAC address
 C. Source IP address
 D. Destination IP address
Which of the following statements about collision domains and broadcast domains are
correct? (Choose three)
 A. Devices connected to the same hub form a collision domain

 B. Devices connected to the same hub form a broadcast domain
 C. Devices connected to the same bridge form a collision domain
 D. Devices connected to the same bridge form a broadcast domain
 E. Devices connected to the same router form a broadcast domain
Which of the following statements regarding layer-2 switch is incorrect?
 A. The switch learns MAC addresses automatically.

 B. The layer-3 header is modified before the received packet is transmitted.
 C. The layer-2 header is modified before the received packet is transmitted.
 D. The layer-2 LAN switch operates at data link layer.
Refer to the display output. What can be determined based on the output of the display
command?
 A. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0/0 is connected to a wrong cable

 B. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0/0 is not associated with an IP address
 C. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0/0 is not associated with a dynamically defined route.
 D. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0/0 has been manually shut down by an administrator.
Which of the following statements regarding static and dynamic routing is incorrect?
 A. The static route can be easily configured and managed on the enterprise network.
 B. The use of dynamic routing is more convenient for the administrator to manage the
network following network convergence.
 C. The static route can automatically recover when a link failure is encountered.
 D. Dynamic routing will use more resources than static routes.
Which of the following are routed protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
 A. IP
 B. OSPF
 C. BGP
 D. IPX
Which of the following statements regarding the routing table are correct? (Choose all
that apply.)
 A. The next hop in the routing table is redundant because the outgoing interface can be used for
packet forwarding.
 B. The routes from generated by different protocols have different preferences.
 C. The metrics of different routing protocols are comparable.
 D. The metrics of different routing protocols are not comparable
Which of the following commands can be used to display the routing table on a Quidway
router?
 A. display ip path
 B. display ip routing-table
 C. display interface
 D. display current-configuration
Which of the following entries is not included in the routing table?
 A. source address
 B. next hop
 C. destination address
 D. cost
Which of the following problems are caused by routing loops? (Choose three)
 A. Slow convergence
 B. Packets circulate between routers
 C. Router restarting
 D. Inconsistency of routing information
An administrator wishes to manage the router in the remote branch office, which
method can be used?
 A. Telnet
 B. FTP
 C. Console Connection
 D. DHCP
The administrator cannot use telnet to manage the AR2200. The administrator is able to
verify connectivity to the router and has been informed that other administrators have no
difficulties using telnet.
Which statements describe the possible reasons for this problem? (Choose all that
apply.)
 A. The user's status has been blocked

 B. The user's privilege level has been changed to 0.
 C. The user has been deleted.
 D. The telnet service in the AR2200 router has been disabled.
A user logged into a VRP supported device through telnet, but when attempting to
configure the device, found that he is unable to use the system-view command to enter
the system-view.
What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two)
 A. The device's VTY interface only provides permission for some telnet users to run the
system-view command.
 B. The user's telnet software restricts use of this command.
 C. The user's privilege level is lower than the level associated with the system-view
command.
 D. The system-view command privilege level is lower than the level associated with the
user.
The users who log on the router through Telnet are not permitted to configure IP
address.
What is the possible reason?
 A. Communication failures occur between the user and the router.

 B. The authentication mode of Telnet is set incorrectly.
 C. Privilege level of Telnet is set incorrectly.
 D. SNMP parameters are set incorrectly.
Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two)
 A. A single collision domain exists between RTA and SWC.

 B. A single broadcast domain exists between SWA and SWB.
 C. A single collision domain exists between SWA and SWC.
 D. A single broadcast domain exists between SWA and SWC.
On the interface serial 1/0/1 of RTA, the command "ip address unnumbered interface
loopback 0" has been configured.
Which following statements are correct? (Choose two).
 A. The IP address of interface serial 1/0/1 is 10.1.1.1/24

 B. The IP address of interface serial 1/0/1 is 10.1.1.1/32
 C. The route entry 10.1.1.0/24 exists in RTA's routing-table
 D. The route entry 10.1.1.0/24 does not exist in RTA's routing-table
The host has a problem establishing a telnet connection with the router attached to
interface G0/0/0. Which of the following steps can be used to help the administrator
identify the problem? (Choose two)
 A. Check whether the host has configured the gateway IP address.

 B. Check whether the switch has configured the gateway IP address.
 C. Use the ping tool to check connectivity between host and router.
 D. Check the telnet server configuration is right on the router.
Which of the following methods are supported by VRP platform to configure the router?
(Choose three)
 A. Through the Console port

 B. Through Telnet
 C. Through the AUX port
 D. Through FTP
The administrator wishes to update the configuration file of an AR2200 router using a
USB cable.
How can this be achieved? (Choose all that apply.)
 A. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the mini
USB port of the AR2200 router.
 B. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the USB
port of the AR2200 router.
 C. The AR2200 router cannot support configuration updates through a USB cable.
 D. The administrator should install the mini USB drivers on the terminal after connecting
the USB.
The administrator wishes to manage a network through telnet from a user's terminal to a
router.
How can this be achieved?
 A. A connection should be established between the ethernet port of the terminal and the
console port of the router.
 B. A connection should be established between the ethernet port of the terminal and the
ethernet port of the router.
 C. A connection should be established between the console port of the terminal and the
ethernet port of the router.use console cable connect pc's ethernet port and router's
console port.
 D. A connection should be established between the COM port of the terminal and the
console port of the router.
Whilst configuring a device, an administrator experiences trouble remembering certain

commands.
Which of the following will help support the administrator? (Choose two)
 A. TAB
 B. question mark
 C. ctrl+b
 D. ctrl+c
Refer to the configuration output. The administrator configured the device using the
commands in the configuration output. Regarding these commands, which statement is
false?
 A. The administrator wishes to enable management through the console interface.

 B. Following configuration, the administrator cannot manage the device remotely.
 C. A user that logs-in through the console interface is assigned the highest privilege
level.
 D. The password of a user logged in through console is "˜cipher huawei2012'.
Which of the following is abbreviation of VRP?
 A. Versatile Routine Platform

 B. Virtual Routing Platform
 C. Virtual Routing Plane
 D. Versatile Routing Platform
Which of the following must be used to establish the configuration environment when a
router is powered on for the first time?
 A. SSL
 B. SSH
 C. Console port
 D. Telnet
Which of the following parameter settings for terminal emulation are correct when
configuring a Huawei router through the Console port?
 A. 4800bps, 8 data bits,1 stop bits, odd parity check, and no flow control
 B. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, no parity check, and no flow control
 C. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, even parity check, and hardware flow control
 D. 19200bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, no parity check, and no flow control
Which of the following commands is used to enter the system-view from the user view
on a Huawei router?
 A. system-view
 B. enable
 C. configure terminal
 D. interface system
On VRP platform, the command lines are classified into four levels in increasing priority:
Visit level, Monitoring level, Configuration level, and Management level. At which level,
the operator is permitted to configure service but is not permitted to operate the file
system?
 A. Visit level
 B. Monitoring level
 C. Configuration level
 D. Management level
On Huawei VRP platform, which of the following can be used to invoke the history
command saved by the command line interface? (Choose two)
 A. Up cursor key <>

 B. Left cursor key <>
 C. Ctrl+P
 D. Ctrl+U
Which of the following commands can be used to view the current configurations on a
Huawei router?
 A. display current-configuration
 B. display saved-configuration
 C. view saved-configuration
 D. show startup-configuration
The administrator wishes to change name of the router. Under which view should the
administrator be in order to achieve this?
 A. User-view
 B. System-view
 C. Interface-view
 D. Protocol-view
<Huawei> system-view
[Huawei]command-privilege level 3 view user save
Refer to the command output. What is the result of the shown command?
 A. The command adjusts the save command of a user to privilege level 3.

 B. The command adjusts the save command in the user view to privilege level 3.
 C. The command adjusts the user view command privilege level to 3, and saves the
configuration.
 D. The command adjusts the privilege level of a user to 3, and saves the configuration.
<Huawei>system-view
[Huawei]history-command max-size 20
Refer to the command output. Which statements regarding the shown command are
true? (Choose two)
 A. The command is used to adjust the size of the history command buffer.
 B. The default value of the history command buffer is 5.
 C. The command should be configured in the user-interface view.
 D. Once configured, commands totaling up to 20 bytes can be saved in the buffer.
An AR2200 router is required to be reconfigured from scratch. Which steps are needed
to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)
 A. Reset the saved configuration.

 B. Clear the current configuration.
 C. Reboot the AR2200.
 D. Assign the configuration file to be used at next startup.
An administrator has been requested to replace the configuration file of a router in the
network. The administrator has been instructed that after logging into the router, he
must first permanently erase the current configuration file config.zip from the system.
Which command should he use to achieve this?
 A. delete /force config.zip

 B. delete /unreserved config.zip
 C. reset config.zip
 D. clear config.zip
Which of the following commands can switch a view from the system view to the user
view?
 A. System-view
 B. Router
 C. Quit
 D. User-view
Which of the following storage devices are supported by Huawei router? (Select four)
 A. SDRAM
 B. NVRAM
 C. Flash
 D. Hard Disk
 E. CF Card
Which of the following storage devices is used to store the startup configuration files in
a router?
 A. SDRAM
 B. NVRAM
 C. Flash
 D. BootROM
<Huawei>reset saved-configuration
Warning: The action will delete the saved configuration in the device.
The configuration will be erased to reconfigure. Continue? [Y/N]:
Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements are true? (Select
two answers)
 A. A user should enter "˜Y' when wishing to clear the saved configuration file.
 B. The saved-configuration file that the device starts with can be erased.
 C. The saved-configuration will be deleted after typing N
 D. The saved-configuration file will be replaced with the current-configuration.
When a router is powered on, the router reads the configuration file saved in the default
save directory to get itself initialized. If the configuration file does not exist in the default
save directory, what does the router use to initialize itself?
 A. New configuration file

 B. Initial configuration file
 C. Default parameters
 D. Current configuration file
Refer to the display output. Which statement is false?
 A. The current configuration file has not been saved.

 B. The current startup system software is ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc
 C. The next startup system software cannot be changed.
 D. The next startup system software can be changed by using the "startup system
software <startup-softwarename>.cc" command.
<Huawei>
Warning: Auto-Config is working. Before configuring the device, stop Auto-Config. If you
perform configurations when Auto-Config is running, the DHCP, routing,
DNS, and VTY configurations will be lost. Do you want to stop Auto-Config? [y/n]:
When an administrator first initializes the router, a warning is displayed. Which
statement regarding this warning is correct?
 A. If Auto-Config is required, the administrator should select "˜y'.

 B. If Auto-Config is not required, the administrator should select "˜n', for which
subsequent configuration of the DHCP server, routing, DNS server and VTY user
configuration is lost.
 C. When a device is started for the first time, the Auto-Config function is active.
 D. When a device is started for the first time, the Auto-Config function is inactive.
An AR2200 router in the company network cannot boot. In order to resolve this, the
administrator wishes to update the VRP software.
What should he/she do?
 A. The administrator should use a console cable to connect the router and host, and
directly upgrade the device.
 B. The administrator should use FTP to transfer the VRP software, by configuring the
AR2200 router as an FTP client.
 C. The administrator should use DHCP to boot the AR2200, and then use the AR2200
router as a TFTP client to download the VRP software from the server.
 D. The administrator should use the telnet command on the client to remote access the
device, and upgrade the VRP software.
<Huawei>
Warning: Auto-Config is working. Before configuring the device, stop Auto-Config. If you
perform configurations when Auto-Config is running, the DHCP, routing,
DNS, and VTY configurations will be lost. Do you want to stop Auto-Config? [y/n]:
Refer to the output. When the administrator first starts the router, a system notice is
displayed, however after rebooting this router, the notice disappeared. What is the
reason for this? (Choose all that apply.)
 A. This notice only appears during the very first device startup.
 B. The administrator has configured the device and saved the configuration, causing the
notice to disappear.
 C. The administrator selected "˜n' and did not save the configuration.
 D. The administrator selected "˜y' and saved the configuration.
An end system is unable to communicate with a DHCP server following the startup
process.
Which IP address may be used by the client?
 A. 0.0.0.0
 B. 127.0.0.1
 C. 169.254.2.33
 D. 255.255.255.255
Refer to the configuration output. The administrator wishes to configure the DHCP
server pool in order to assign an IP address to the customer's terminal device.
Which command should be included in the configuration to provide the minimal lease
period for IP addresses?
 A. dhcp select relay

 B. lease day 1
 C. lease 24
 D. lease 0
A DHCP server has been established in the enterprise network. After the client has
obtained an IP address from the DHCP server, the user decided to modify the
IP address manually.
In what way may this affect the enterprise network? (Choose two).
 A. The client may experience an IP address conflict.

 B. The client may access the network normally.
 C. The client's interface connection will shutdown.
 D. The client will associate with another DHCP server.
A DHCP server in the enterprise network is being used to allocated IP addresses to

hosts. An administrator discovers however that some hosts are obtaining IP addresses
outside of the scope of the DHCP server's address pool.
What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose three).
 A. Another DHCP server exists in the network and is allocating IP addresses to hosts
that happen to be within a closer proximity than the authorized DHCP server.
 B. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own
address in the 169.254.0.0 address range.
 C. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own
address in the 127.254.0.0 address range.
 D. All addresses from the DHCP pool have been assigned.
Refer to the configuration output. Following configuration, a host is connected to the

interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0/1 of the router. Which IP address will the client obtain?
 A. An IP address from network 10.10.10.0/24 will be assigned.

 B. An IP address from network 10.20.20.0/24 will be assigned.
 C. The host will be unable to obtain an IP address.
 D. An IP address may be assigned from either 10.10.10.0/24 or 10.20.20.0/24.
The IP addresses of clients in the network are deployed via a DHCP server. When a
host reboots, which message will the host first send to the DHCP server?
 A. DHCP DISCOVER
 B. DHCP REQUEST
 C. DHCP OFFER
 D. DHCP ACK
A DHCP Unique Identifier (DUID) in DHCPv6 can be configured in VRP using which
formats? (Choose two).
 A. DUID-LL
 B. DUID-LLT
 C. DUID-EN
 D. DUID-LLC
Which of the following statements about the information contained in a Database

Description packet are true? (Choose three)
 A. A Database Description packet contains all information about each LSA.
 B. A Database Description packet contains only the header of an LSA.
 C. The header of an LSA is the unique identifier of the LSA.
 D. The header of an LSA is only a small portion of all the data of the LSA.
What is the default authentication mode for the default_admin domain?
 A. None
 B. Local
 C. Radius
 D. 802.1X
How many domains can be configured on a Huawei router?
 A. 30
 B. 31
 C. 32
 D. 33
An authenticator router has been configured with two domains named "Area1" and
"Area2", following which a user is created with the username "huawei" and the
password "hello" for authentication. Which domain does this user belongs to?
 A. Area1 domain
 B. Area2 domain
 C. default domain
 D. default_admin domain
In order to check if the interface serial 1/0/0 is working in either DCE or DTE mode,
command ( ) is used.
 A. display mode serial 1/0/0

 B. display controller
 C. display interface serial 1/0/0
 D. display current-config
How is mapping performed on a DTE device in a Frame Relay network?
 A. The local DLCI number is mapped to a remote IP address.

 B. The local IP address is mapped to a remote DLCI number.
 C. The local DLCI number is mapped to a local IP address.
 D. The remote DLCI number is mapped to a remote IP address.
If Frame Relay implements dynamic address mapping for the PVC, which protocol will
be used?
 A. LMI protocol
 B. ARP protocol
 C. RARP protocol
 D. InARP protocol
Which command should be used to check the mapping between protocol addresses
and frame relay addresses?
 A. display fr interface
 B. display fr map-info
 C. display fr inarp-info
 D. display interface brief
Which of the following protocols is used in Frame Relay to map the address to DLCI
dynamically?
 A. ARP protocol
 B. RARP protocol
 C. InARP protocol
 D. Map protocol
Which of the following parameters must be specified when configuring static mapping
for Frame Relay network? (Choose two)
 A. Local DLCI
 B. Remote DLCI
 C. Local network layer protocol address
 D. Remote network layer protocol address
Which of the following regarding Frame Relay DLCI are correct? (Choose three)
 A. DLCI is locally significant

 B. DLCI is allocated by DTE
 C. The range of DLCI value that can be used is from 16-1007
 D. The same DLCI can be configured on different physical interfaces
Which of the following commands is used to enable dynamic address mapping protocol
in the interface encapsulated with Frame Relay?
 A. fr inarp
 B. fr reverse-arp
 C. inverse-arp
 D. reverse-arp
What is the meaning of 200 in the command "fr map ip 10.1.1.2 200"?
 A. remote logical channel ID

 B. local DLCI
 C. remote interface ID
 D. remote node ID
Which of the following commands can be used to display mapping relationship between
network address and DLCI?
 A. display fr interface
 B. display fr
 C. display fr map-info
 D. display fr brief
Which of following may be the reasons that cause Frame Relay PVC to work
abnormally? (Choose three)
 A. Same DLCI number is configured on the same router

 B. LMI type mismatch
 C. Frame Relay encapsulation type mismatch
 D. Incorrect configuration of the DLCI number
An administrator wishes to update the VRP software of company's AR2200 router. How
can this be achieved? (Choose three)
 A. The administrator can use FTP to transfer the VRP software, with the AR2200 router
as the FTP client.
 B. The administrator can use FTP to transfer the VRP software, with the AR2200 router
as the FTP server.
 C. The administrator can use TFTP to transfer the VRP software, with the AR2200
router as the TFTP server.
 D. The administrator can use TFTP to transfer the VRP software, with the AR2200
router as the TFTP client.
An administrator wishes to implement new features in the network, but the VRP version
of one AR2200 router is out of date. The administrator needs to upgrade the VRP
software.
Which of the following options regarding file transfer is false?
 A. The AR2200 router can function as a TFTP client to support the upgrade.
 B. The AR2200 router can function as the TFTP server to support the upgrade.
 C. The AR2200 router can function as the FTP server to support the upgrade.
 D. The AR2200 router can function as an FTP client to support the upgrade.
FTP and TFTP can be used to update the system file on Huawei routers. Which of the
following statements are correct? (Choose three)
 A. Huawei router can be configured as FTP Client

 B. Huawei router can be configured as FTP Server
 C. Huawei router can be configured as TFTP Client
 D. Huawei router can be configured as TFTP Server
An administrator discovered he/she was unable to use TFTP to transfer files to the
router.
Which of the following describes the likely reason for this?
 A. The TFTP service had been disabled on the router.

 B. TCP port 69 of the server had been blocked.
 C. UDP port 69 of the server had been blocked.
 D. The username and password had been modified.
FTP may be used to upgrade a router's VRP image.

Which of the following transmission modes should be used to achieve this?
 A. binary mode
 B. ASCII mode
 C. byte mode
 D. letter mode
A client failed to transfer a file to the FTP server, but found the IP connectivity was
without problem. The client assumed that the problem was with the port configuration.
The blocking of which ports would likely cause this problem? (Choose two)
 A. 21
 B. 80
 C. 20
 D. 50649
When using VRP, which of the following commands is used to configure the data link
layer encapsulation type of a serial interface as HDLC?
 A. encapsulation hdlc
 B. link-protocol hdlc
 C. hdlc enable
 D. link-protocol ppp
If AH and ESP are both required to protect data streams between IPsec peers, how
many Security Associations (SA) are required in total?
 A. 1
 B. 2
 C. 3
 D. 4
Two routers establish an IPsec tunnel, which of the following does not need to be the
same on both peering devices?
 A. Encapsulation mode
 B. Transform mode
 C. Proposal name
 D. authentication algorithm
Which of the following formats represent an accurate condensing of the IPv6 address
2031:0000:720C:0000:0000:09E0:839A:130B? (Choose two).
 A. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E0:839A:130B
 B. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E:839A:130B
 C. 2031::720C::9E0:839A:130B
 D. 2031:0:720C::9E0:839A:130B
Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be configured on a router's interface?

(Choose two).
 A. fe80:13dc::1/64
 B. ff00:8a3c::9b/64
 C. ::1/128
 D. 2001:12e3:1b02::21/64
The IPv6 address architecture does not include which of the following address types?
 A. unicast
 B. multicast
 C. broadcast
 D. anycast
Which of the following descriptions regarding IPv6 addresses are correct? (Choose two)
 A. IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.

 B. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length.
 C. IPv6 extension headers are processed in order.
 D. IPv6 extension headers are processed randomly.
Interface G0/0/1 on RTA contains a MAC address of 00e0-fc03-aa73 and is configured

with the IPv6 address 2001::2E0:FCFF:FE03:AA73. Which method is most likely to
have been used to configure the interface IPv6 address?
 A. DHCPv6
 B. Auto-link
 C. ARP
 D. EUI-64
In a small network supporting IPv6, a network administrator wishes implement RIPng.

Which of the following commands should be used to enable this protocol?
 A. [RTA-GigabitEthernet0/0/0]ripng 1 enable
 B. [RTA]ripng 1 enable
 C. <RTA>ripng 1 enable
 D. [RTA-ripng-1]ripng 1 enable
In a network supporting IPv6, OSPF no longer supports which feature?
 A. multiple areas
 B. Router-ID
 C. authentication
 D. multicast updates
The network administrator has decided to configure link aggregation in the enterprise
network.
Which of the following represent advantages of link aggregation? (Choose three)
 A. Load balancing.
 B. Improved bandwidth.
 C. Enhanced reliability.
 D. Improved security.
In port aggregation, "multiple" ports are aggregated to form a port aggregation group so
that all the member ports in the group share the outgoing/incoming load.
At which layer is port aggregation implemented?
 A. Physical Layer
 B. Data Link Layer
 C. Network Layer
 D. Transport Layer
What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Choose three)
 A. Improves link bandwidth

 B. Implements load sharing
 C. Improves network reliability
 D. Facilitates data copy for analysis
What is the maximum number of member interfaces supported by a single Eth-Trunk?
 A. 6
 B. 8
 C. 10
 D. 12
The Eth-Trunk frame forwarding mechanism used to prevent changes in the data
sequence forwards frames based on which of the following parameters?
 A. The same source or destination IP address.
 B. The same source or destination MAC address.
 C. The same protocol type.
 D. The same source or destination port number.
In Layer 2 mode, the transmission rate of an Eth-Trunk interface is determined by which

of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
 A. Maximum number of Up member links

 B. Minimum number of Up member links
 C. Number of Up member interfaces
 D. Number of interfaces.
The network administrator wishes to forward data over an Eth-trunk, however

associated member interfaces operate at different rates. In terms of the resulting
behavior, which of the following is true?
 A. The two switches will not be able to communicate.

 B. The higher rate member interfaces may incur packet loss.
 C. The Eth-Trunk will work normally.
 D. The lower rate member interfaces may incur packet loss.
The network administrator attempts to add interface G0/0/1 on Switch A to Eth-trunk 1,

however the command fails.
Which of the following may cause this?
 A. The interface is operating in half-duplex mode.

 B. The interface has been shutdown.
 C. The interface is already associated with another Eth-trunk.
 D. The interface is an access port.
A network requires a solution to allow 50 private IP addresses to be translated, however

only a single public address is available for use.
Which translation method can be used to support this requirement?
 A. Static NAT
 B. Dynamic NAT
 C. Easy-IP
 D. NAPT
NAPT allows for multiple internal addresses to be mapped to a single public address.
How does NAT distinguish between the different private addresses when mapping to
the same public address?
 A. The source MAC address is used.

 B. The destination MAC address is used.
 C. The source port number is used.
 D. The destination port number is used.
A web server in a private network is required to provide HTTP services to public users.
The network administrator is required to configure NAT on RTA.
Which configuration should be used?
 A. [RTA-Serial1/0/1]nat server protocol tcp global 202.10.10.1 www inside 192.168.1.1

8080
 B. [RTA-Serial0/0/1]nat server protocol tcp global 192.168.1.1 www inside 202.10.10.1
8080
 C. [RTA-Gigabitethernet0/0/1]nat server protocol tcp global 202.10.10.1 www inside
192.168.1.1 8080
 D. [RTA- Gigabitethernet0/0/1]nat server protocol tcp global 192.168.1.1 www inside
202.10.10.1 8080
The network administrator needs to configure static NAT on RTA, in order to allow Host
A to communicate with Host C.
Which command is correct?
 A. [RTA-Serial1/0/1]nat outbound 200.1.1.10

 B. [RTA-Serial1/0/1]nat static global 200.1.1.10 inside 192.168.1.0
 C. [RTA-Serial1/0/1]nat static global 192.168.1.1 inside 200.1.1.10
 D. [RTA-Serial1/0/1]nat static global 200.1.1.10 inside 192.168.1.1
[RTA-GigabitEthernet0/0/0]nat outbound 2000 address-group 1

Refer to the configuration output. What does the value "2000" refer to?
 A. It represents the ACL number.

 B. It represents the NAT number.
 C. It represents the translated port number.
 D. It represents the number of bytes that can be translated before the address is
returned to the public address pool.
NAPT uses the same public address but different port numbers to translate private
addresses.
Which statement regarding the port number is correct?
 A. It is necessary to configure port number mapping manually.

 B. It is only necessary to configure the port number range.
 C. It is not necessary to configure port numbers.
 D. An access control list is needed to assign port numbers.
A configured internal host of a private network wishes to access the internet. What must
be configured on the enterprise network egress router in order to achieve this? (Choose
all that apply.)
 A. NAT Easy IP
 B. DHCP
 C. BGP
 D. Default route
Which of the following statements are correct about NAT? (Choose three)
 A. NAT is the abbreviation for "Network Address Translation".

 B. NAT is used for translation between private and public network addresss.
 C. When hosts inside a private network access the outside network, NAT is not
required.
 D. NAT provides an effective way to solve the problem of insufficient IP addresses.
Which of the following technologies can allow a host with IP address 10.0.0.1 to access
the internet?
 A. Static route
 B. Dynamic route
 C. Route import
 D. NAT
Which of the following items can be translated by NAPT?
 A. MAC address + port number

 B. IP address + port number
 C. Only MAC address
 D. Only IP address
Which of the following statements about a designated port working in RIPv2 multicast
mode are true? (Choose three)
 A. The port receives only RIPv2 multicast packets.
 B. The port does not receive RIPv1 broadcast packets.
 C. The port does not receive RIPv2 broadcast packets.
 D. The port receives only RIPv1 multicast packets.
Which of the following statements regarding the router ID in OSPF are incorrect?
(Choose three)
 A. The router IDs of OSPF routers in the same area must be the same, but can be
different in different areas.
 B. The router ID must be the IP address of an OSPF router interface.
 C. The router ID must be configured manually.
 D. A router running OSPF must have a router ID for it to operate properly.
Which of the following statements regarding Designated Routers in OSPF are correct?
(Choose three)
 A. DR is elected by all the routers in the same network segment.

 B. If the priorities of two routers are different, the router with the lower priority will be
elected as DR.
 C. If the priorities of two routers are equal, the router with the higher Router ID will be
elected as DR.
 D. DR and BDR must be adjacent.
On the VRP platform, which of the following commands is used to configure the Router
ID of a router as 1.1.1.1?
 A. <Huawei>router id 1.1.1.1
 B. [Huawei]router id 1.1.1.1
 C. [Huawei]router-id 1.1.1.1
 D. [Huawei]router id 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255
Which of the following OSPF versions is specific to IPv6?
 A. OSPFv1
 B. OSPFv2
 C. OSPFv3
 D. OSPFv4
The administrator wishes to configure OSPF on a router in the network however the
router has no loopback interface.
Which value will be used as the router ID?
 A. The lowest IP address of the router's active interfaces.

 B. The highest IP address of the router's active interfaces.
 C. The IP address of the management interface.
 D. The priority value of the router.
An administrator of a company supporting a large enterprise network wishes to
implement OSPF on the network as opposed to RIP. Which of the following points
should the administrator use to support his reasoning for this change? (Choose three)
 A. OSPF has no hop count limitation.

 B. OSPF has a lower routing update overhead.
 C. OSPF has a simpler configuration.
 D. OSPF supports faster convergence.
Which of the following statements regarding single area OSPF are correct? (Choose
three)
 A. An IP address needs to be configured on a loopback interface of each router before

configuring an OSPF area.
 B. The value of an area can be from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255.
 C. A single area can be configured using any supported area number.
 D. All of the links of the network need to be advertised in Area 0.
10.0.1.0/24 O_ASE 150 2 D 10.0.23.3 Serial2/0/0

Refer to the display output. Which of the following statements regarding route shown
are true? (Choose two)
 A. The address 10.0.23.3 has been configured on the peer's serial 2/0/0 interface.
 B. The route preference has been changed by the administrator.
 C. The metric for the route 10.0.1.0 indicates that two hops are needed.
 D. The route has been learned via the OSPF protocol.
Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing-table of a

"single" OSPF area are correct? (Choose two)
 A. The link-state databases that all routers build are identical.

 B. The link-state databases that all routers build are different.
 C. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are different.
 D. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are identical.
Which of the following steps are necessary to configure OSPF on a Huawei router?
(Choose three)
 A. Configuration of a router ID
 B. Enabling of an OSPF process
 C. Specifying an OSPF area
 D. Configuration of the network segments within each area
Which of the following statements regarding the DR in an OSPF network are correct?
(Choose two)
 A. There must be at least one DR in an OSPF area.

 B. A DR must be elected among the routers through the negotiations that are defined by
OSPF protocol.
 C. Only the router with highest priority will be elected as DR.
 D. Only NBMA or Broadcast networks need to elect DR.
Which of the following VRP commands can be used to enter area 0 view? (Choose two)
 A. [Huawei]ospf area 0
 B. [Huawei-ospf-1]area 0
 C. [Huawei-ospf-1]area 0.0.0.0
 D. [Huawei-ospf-1]area 0 enable
Which of the following commands is used to display the OSPF neighbor relationship
establishment?
 A. display ospf neighbor

 B. display ospf brief
 C. display ospf peer
 D. display ospf interface
With what kind of routers does a DRother router exchange link state information and
route information? (Choose two)
 A. DR
 B. BDR
 C. DRother
 D. All OSPF neighbors
An OSPF area is a collection of a group of routers and networks. OSPF defines that
routers that have the same ( ) belong to the same OSPF area.
 A. neighbors
 B. LSDB
 C. LSA
 D. adjacency
Which of the following statements about router IDs are true? (Choose two)
 A. The routers contained in the same LSDB have the same router ID.
 B. Each router in an OSPF network must have a unique router ID.
 C. Two routers in different OSPF areas can have the same router ID.
 D. A router ID is expressed in a 32-bit dotted decimal format.
OSPF allows for "multiple" processes. By default, OSPF selects a process whose
number is ( ).
 A. 0
 B. 1
 C. 10
 D. 100
In a network supporting IPv6, OSPF no longer supports which feature?
 A. multiple areas
 B. Router-ID
 C. authentication
 D. multicast updates
Two routers are configured with OSPFv3. OSPFv3 is enabled on all interfaces of each
router.
Which of the following is true in the event that the network administrator does not
configure a Router-ID?
 A. The IP address of the loopback 0 interface will be used as the router ID.
 B. The IP address of the loopback 1 interface will be used as the router ID.
 C. The IP address of interface G0/0/0 will be used as the router ID.
 D. No router ID will be assigned to the router.
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following statements is correct when this router
forwards the packet to the destination host 9.1.4.5?
 A. The router selects the first entry to match the destination address of the packet
because the preference of OSPF is higher than the preference of RIP.
 B. The router selects the second entry to match the destination address of the packet
because the cost of RIP is lower than that of OSPF.
 C. The router selects the second entry to match the destination address of the packet
because the outgoing interface is an Ethernet interface. The forwarding speed of an
Ethernet interface is faster than the forwarding speed of a serial interface
 D. The router selects the second entry to match the destination address of the packet
because the router will match the most specific address.
According to the default value of route preference on the VRP platform, which of the
following represent the correct sequence for direct route, static route, RIP and
OSPF if they are listed from high preference to low preference?
 A. Direct, Static, RIP, OSPF

 B. Direct, OSPF, Static, RIP
 C. Direct, OSPF, RIP, Static
 D. Direct, RIP, Static, OSPF
A router has learned two routes for the same network with the same prefix. One route
has been learned via OSPF with a metric of 4882, while the other route has been
learned via RIPv2 with a metric of 4.
Which route (s) will be found in the routing table?
 A. The RIPv2 route.

 B. The OSPF and RIPv2 routes.
 C. The OSPF route.
 D. Neither of these routes will be found in the routing table.
Assume that the router has learnt the best route to the same destination by using RIP,
OSPF and Static Route respectively. By default, the Huawei router will select the route
learnt via ( ) as the best route.
 A. RIP
 B. OSPF
 C. RIPv2
 D. Static route
After checking the OSPF neighbor state, the administrator discovers that the router has
established a TWOWAY state with the peering router.
What can be understood from this information? (Choose two)
 A. The routers are configured using the same process ID

 B. The routers are configured using the same area ID
 C. The routers are configured using wrong router ID
 D. The routers are considered DROthers in a broadcast network
What functions does a Hello packet of OSPF implement? (Choose two)
 A. Neighbor discovery
 B. Deletion of unreachable neighbors
 C. Maintaining of neighbor relationships
 D. Negotiation of parameters among adjacent ports
Two routers are connected through serial interfaces and support PPP encapsulation.
Which parameters must be negotiated to establish the PPP connection? (Choose
three).
 A. MRU
 B. Authentication password
 C. Magic-Number
 D. IP address
What are the three protocol components defined by PPP? (Choose three).
 A. Data encapsulation.
 B. LCP
 C. NCP
 D. IPCP
Two routers are connected via serial interfaces, for which the link-protocol is PPP. The
network administrator wishes to configure PPP authentication to improve security on
this link.
Which PPP authentication method provides a more secure solution?
 A. CHAP
 B. PAP
 C. MD5
 D. SSH
If PPP authentication fails, which type of packet will be sent to the authenticated peer by
the authenticator?
 A. Authenticate-Ack
 B. Authenticate-Nak
 C. Authenticate-Reject
 D. Authenticate-Reply
Two routers are connected via serial interfaces and the link-protocol is PPP, but the
MRU of two serial interfaces are different, in PPP LCP negotiated stage, what will
happen?
 A. LCP negotiation will fail

 B. Negotiation will use the smaller value
 C. Negotiation will use the larger value
 D. Negotiation will use 1500
PPP is more secure than HDLC because PPP supports authentication protocols such
as ( ). (Choose two)
 A. PAP
 B. MD5
 C. CHAP
 D. SSH
When both ends running PPP protocol detect that the physical link is active, the link
state will transit from dead to establish.
Which of the following protocols is used to negotiate the link parameters during this
phase?
 A. IP
 B. DHCP
 C. LCP
 D. NCP
A serial interface of a Huawei router currently using HDLC needs to assign PPP as the
encapsulation protocol.
Which of the following commands is required to be configured at the serial interface
view?
 A. link-protocol ppp
 B. encapsulation ppp
 C. enable ppp
 D. address ppp
When using VRP, which of the following commands is used to configure the PPP
authentication method as PAP?
 A. ppp pap
 B. ppp authentication-pap
 C. ppp authentication-mode pap
 D. ppp pap-authentication
When configuring the PPP authentication method as PAP, which of the following
operations are necessary? (Choose three)
 A. Add the user name and password of the authenticated party to the local user list.
 B. Configure the encapsulation type of the interface connected to the peer as PPP.
 C. Configure PPP authentication method as CHAP.
 D. On the authenticated party end, configure the user name and password that are sent
to authenticator.
In the PPP protocol, which of the following encryption algorithms is used by CHAP?
 A. DES
 B. MD5
 C. AES
 D. None
What is the function of the "ip address ppp-negotiate" command?
 A. Enables the function of requesting for an IP address from the peer device.
 B. Enables the function of accepting the request for an IP address from the remote
device.
 C. Enables the function of statically allocating IP addresses to the peer.
 D. None of the above.
Two routers have established a point-to-point network using PPP. The administrator has
configured the routers to run OSPF in the same area with the same router ID, what
behavior will occur as a result of the configuration?
 A. The routers will build a neighbor relationship even though both routers are using the
same router ID.
 B. VRP will notify of a router ID conflict between the two routers.
 C. The routers will build an adjacency even though both routers are using the same
router ID.
 D. The routers will not send hello packets to each other because they are using the
same router ID.
The PPPoE session establishment process can be divided into which stages? (Choose
all that apply.)
 A. Discovery stage
 B. DHCP stage
 C. PPPoE Session stage
 D. PPP connecting stage.
To establish multiple PPP point-to-point connections in the Ethernet network, a PPPoE

server establishes connections with multiple PPPoE clients on one
Ethernet port.
How does PPPoE differentiate between each connection?
 A. MAC address.
 B. IP address and MAC address
 C. MAC address and ppp-id
 D. MAC address and session-id
When configuring a router as a PPPoE client, which configuration is not necessary?
 A. Configuration of the dialer-rule

 B. Configuration of the dialer interface
 C. Configuration of an IP address on the dialer interface
 D. Configuration of a password on the dialer interface
In the PPPoE discovery stage, the PPPoE server assigns a session-id to the PPPoE
client in which packet?
 A. PADI
 B. PADO
 C. PADR
 D. PADS
Which command can be used to check the PPPoE client session status?
 A. display ip interface brief

 B. display current-configuration
 C. display pppoe-client session packet
 D. display pppoe-client session summary
[Huawei]rip 1
[Huawei-rip-1]version 2
Refer to the command output. An administrator wishes to configure RIP. Which other
command needs to configured for RIP routes to be advertised?
 A. import-route GigabitEthernet 0/0/1

 B. network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
 C. network GigabitEthernet 0/0/1
 D. network 192.168.1.0
A RIP router receives the routing update information from its neighbor.
Which of the following statements regarding routing update are correct? (Choose three)
 A. The received route that is not in the routing table will be added only when its hop
count value is less than 16.
 B. The received route that already exists in the routing table will be updated only when
the next hop is the router's neighbor and the cost value is smaller.
 C. The received route that already exists in the routing table will be updated only when
the next hop is not the router's neighbor and the cost value is smaller.
 D. The received route that already exists in the routing table will be updated only when
the next hop is the router's neighbor and the cost value has been changed.
Which of the following commands is used to display the current running state and
configuration of RIP?
 A. display protocol rip

 B. show rip
 C. display rip
 D. display this rip
A user can view the information for the RIP protocol on a router. What does "Age time"
in the returned result of the command mean?
 A. The interval of updating an RIP packet

 B. The aging time of an RIP route
 C. The suppression time of an RIP route
 D. The time spent on switching between RIP routes
After a command for displaying RIP route information is entered on a router, peer
192.168.1.2 on Serial1/0/0 is displayed in the returned result.
What does 192.168.1.2 stand for?
 A. Address of a RIP neighbor

 B. Address of the port with the RIP protocol enabled
 C. Next hop address of the RIP route
 D. Transmission address of the RIP protocol
Refer to the debug output. Following configuration of R2, the administrator discovers
that the behavior is not as expected and performs debugging. Based on the output from
the debug, what is the source of the problem?
 A. R2 has configured an ACL to block the route to network 1.0.0.0

 B. R2 has enabled split horizon.
 C. R1 is using authentication, however R2 is not.
 D. R2 is operating using RIPv2, while R1 is using RIPv1.
 Question No: 1
 MultipleChoice
 In the RSTP protocol, when the root port fails, () will quickly convert to the new root port
and immediately enter the forwarding state.
 Options
 ABackup port
 BForwarding port
 CAlternate port

 Question No: 2
 MultipleChoice
 When Huawei switches run STP, the priority of the switch is () by default.
 Options
 A4096
 B32768
 C16384
 D8192
 Show Answer
 Question No: 3
 MultipleChoice
 The link aggregation interface can only be used as a Layer 2 interface.
 Options
 ATrue
 BFalse
 Show Answer
 Question No: 4
 MultipleChoice
 On the VRP platform, which of the following methods can be used to access the previous
history command?
 Options
 ACtrl+U
 BLeft cursor
 CCtrl+P
 DUp cursor
 Show Answer
 Question No: 5
 MultipleChoice
 What are the stable states of OSPF neighbor relationship?
 Options
 AFULL
 BAttempt
 C2-Way
 DDown
 Show Answer
 Question No: 6
 MultipleChoice
 How to enter the view of OSPF area 0 in the VRP operating system?
 Options
 A?Huawei-ospf-1?area 0
 B[Huawei-ospf-1] area 0 enable
 C[Huawei-ospf-1] area 0.0.0.0
 D?Huawei?ospf area 0
 Show Answer
 Question No: 7
 MultipleChoice
 When planning a campus network, you can plan VLANs according to business types.
 Options
 ATrue
 BFalse
 Show Answer
 Question No: 8
 MultipleChoice
 Regarding the role of the ARP protocol and packet encapsulation, which one is correct?
 Options
 AThe ARP cache on the network device can only be obtained through the ARP protocol
 BARP protocol is based on Ethernet encapsulation
 CARP protocol supports deployment on PPP link and HDLC link
 DThe MAC address and UUID address of the destination can be obtained through the ARP
protocol
 Show Answer
 Question No: 9
 MultipleChoice
 The figure shows the routing table of router R1. If R1 sends a packet with a destination
IP address of 10.0.2.2, which interface needs to be sent from?
 Options
 AEthernet 0/0/2
 BEthernet 0/0/0
 CEthernet 0/0/1
 DGigabitEthernet 0/0/0
 Show Answer
 Question No: 10
 MultipleChoice
 Which of the following refers to network communication?
 Options
 ADownload emails from the company's mailbox to your computer
 BUse a computer to visit the company's official website
 CUse instant messaging software (eg, QQ, WeChat) to chat with friends
 DUse computer to watch videos online
1. If the configured ACL rule has an inclusion relationship, it should be noted that the rule number of
the strict condition needs to be sorted first, and the rule number of the loose condition needs to be sorted
later, to prevent the packet from hitting the loose condition rule and stop continuing to match, thus
make it impossible to hit the strict conditions of the rules.
 True OK
 False
2. The network administrator configures as shown in the figure on the Huawei router RTA, if a user
needs to be authenticated in the authentication domain "huawei", which of the following descriptions is
OK?
[RTA] aaa
[RTA-aaa] domain huawei
[RTA-aaa-domain huawei] authentication-scheme au1
[RTA-aaa domain-huawei] authentication-scheme au2
 "authentication-scheme au1" authentication will be used
 "authentication-scheme au1" authentication will be used, if "au1" is deleted, "au2" authentication will be used
 "authentication-scheme au2" authentication will be used, if "au2" is deleted, "au1" authentication will be used
OK
 "authentication-scheme au2" authentication will be used
3. In the configuration BPDU sent by the switch, which bridge ID is unlikely to appear?
 8192 00-01-02-03-04-CC
 2048 00-01-02-03-04-CC OK
 4096 00-01-02-03-04-CC
 0 00-01-02-03-04-CC
4. The second layer switch belongs to the data link layer device, which can identify the mac address
information in the data frame, forward data according to the mac address, and record these mac
addresses and corresponding port information in its own mac address table.
 True OK
 False
5. What is the number range of Layer 2 ACL?
 4000-4999 OK
 2000-2999
 6000-6031
 3000-3999
6. Using the commands "vlan batch 10 20" and "valn batch 10 to 20", how many VLANs can be created
respectively?
 11 and 11
 2 and 2
 11 and 2
 2 and 11 OK
7. Which of the following statements about the Hybrid port are OK?
 Hybrid port can strip off the tags of some vlan frames in the outgoing port direction OK
 When the Hybrid port sends data frames, it must carry the vlan tag
 Hybrid port only receives data frames with VLAN tag
 Hybrid port does not require PVID
8. The bridge ID of the STP protocol in the switching network is as follows. Which of the following
bridge ID switches will become the root bridge?
 4096 00-01-02-03-04-DD OK
 32768 00-01-02-03-04-AA
 32768 00-01-02-03-04-BB
 32768 00-01-02-03-04-CC
9. If an Ethernet data frame is Length/type=0x8100, which of the following statements is OK?
 There must be a UDP header in the upper layer of this data frame
 There must be a TCP header in the upper layer of this data frameкате
 This data frame must carry vlan TAG OK
 There must be an IP header in the upper layer of this data frame
10. Which of the following ospf protocol packets can ensure the reliability of LSA updates?
 DD
 LSR
 LSU кате
 LSACK OK
11. What kinds of stable states does the neighbor relationship of OSPF protocol have? (Multiple Choice)
 2-way OK
 Full OK
 Down OK
 attempt
12. Which one of the following commands can only view static routes on VRP operating platform?
 display IP routing-table
 display IP routing-table statistics
 display IP routing-table verbose
 display IP routing-table protocol static OK
13. At what frequency does the IEEE 802.11n standard support to work? (Multiple Choice)
 6GHz
 2.5GHz
 2.4GHz OK
 5GHz OK
14. Under the command line interface of Huawei AR router, the save command is used to save the
current system time.
 True
кате
 False OK
15. Regarding the transport layer protocol, which of the following statements are OK? (Multiple
Choice)
 The establishment of a TCP connection is a three-way handshake process, and the termination of a TCP
connection requires a four-way handshake OK
 UDP uses the SYN and ACK flags to request and confirm the establishment of a connection
 The range of well-known port numbers is 1-1023 OK
 UDP is suitable for transmitting delay-sensitive traffic and can be reorganized according to the sequence
number field in the message header
16. The tracert diagnostic tool in Huawei routers is used to track the forwarding path of data.
 True OK
 False кате
17. In which of the following network types does the ospf protocol need to elect DR and BDR? (Multiple
Choice)
 Broadcast type OK
 Point-to-point typeкате
 Point-to-multipoint кате
 NBMA OK
18. Regarding the static routing, which of the following is in OK?
 Manual configuration by the network administrator
 Routing information needs to be exchanged between routers OK
 Cannot automatically adapt to changes in network topology
 Low system performance requirements

19. Which of the following protocol types does the ospf protocol support? (Multiple Choice)
 Point-to-multipoint
OK
 Point-to-point type OK
 Broadcast type OK
 NBMA OK
20. When using the ping command on the VRP platform, if you need to specify an IP address as the
source address of the echo request message, which of the following parameters should be used?
 -d
 -a OK
 -s
 -n кате
21. All interfaces of the router belong to the same broadcast domain.
 True кате
 False OK
22. All interfaces of routers running ospf protocol must belong to the same area.
 True кате
 False OK
23. Which of the following are not open interfaces for Huawei network equipment?
 RE TCONF
OK
 JSON
 XML кате
 NETCONF
24. Regarding the election of active ports in link aggregation LACP mode, which of the following is
OK?
 Compare the priority of the interface first, if it is impossible to determine the better one, continue to
compare the interface number, the smaller the better OK
 Only compare interface priority
 Compare device priority
 Only compare interface numbers
25. For switches running STP protocol, the port can be directly converted to the Disabled state in any
state.
 True
OK
 False
1. Which of the following does not be included in AAA?
 Authenticationwrong
 Accounting
 Authorization
 Audit OK
2. On Huawei ARG3 series routers, what authentication modes does AAA support? (Multiple Choice)
 802.1xwrong
 Local OK
 None OK
 HWTACACS OK
3. Which of the following protocols consist of the PPP protocol? (Multiple Choice)
 LCP OK
 PPPoEwrong
 NCP OK
 Authentication protocol OK
4. Which of the following statements about Prefix Segment is wrong?
 Prefix Segment spreads to other network elements through the IGP protocol, which is globally visible and
effective
 Prefix Segment needs to be configured manually
 Prefix Segment is used to identify a destination address prefix in the network (Prefix)
 Prefix Segment can be automatically allocated by IGP OK
5. Which of the following statements about Prefix Segment is wrong?
 Prefix Segment spreads to other network elements through the IGP protocol, which is globally visible and
effective
 Prefix Segment needs to be configured manually
 Prefix Segment is used to identify a destination address prefix in the network (Prefix)wrong
 Prefix Segment can be automatically allocated by IGP OK
6. The network administrator created VLAN 10 on the Layer 3 switch and configured an IP address
under the virtual interface of the VLAN. When the command "display ip interface brief" is used to
check the port status, it is found that the VLANIF 10 interface is in the down state. What should be done
to restore the VLANIF 10 interface to normal?
 Add an interface that must be Up and must be of type Trunk into VLAN 10
 Assign any physical interface to VLAN 10wrong
 Assign a physical interface that must be Up to VLAN 10
 Use the command "undo shutdown" under VLANIF 10 interface OK
7. When the Trunk port send the data frame, how to deal with?
 When the VLAN ID is the same as the PVID of the port and is a VLAN ID allowed by the port, remove
the Tag and send the message OK
 When the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, the data frame is dropped
 When the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, replace it with PVID forwarding
 When the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, strip off the TAG and forward
8. All ports on the root-bridge switch are designated ports.
 True OK
 False
9. In the configuration BPDU sent by the switch, which bridge ID is unlikely to appear?
 8192 00-01-02-03-04-CC
 4096 00-01-02-03-04-CCwrong
 0 00-01-02-03-04-CC
 2048 00-01-02-03-04-CC OK
10. How many bits are there in the VLAN ID in the VLAN format defined by IEEE802.1Q?
 12
OK
 6
 10
 8wrong
11. The number of VLANs that can be created using the commands "vlan batch 10 20" and "vlan batch
10 to 20" respectively is
 11 and 11
 11 and 2
 2 and 2
 2 and 11 OK
12. By default, the root path cost of the root bridge in the STP protocol must be 0.
 True OK
 False
13. The administrator wants all hosts to be unable to access the Internet between 8:00-17:00 every day,
so which ACL rule needs to be bound to the traffic-filter outbound in the GO/0/1 interface allocation?
 time-range am9topm5 08:00 to working-day
Acl number 2003
rule 5 deny time-range am9topjni5
 time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 off-day
#
acl number 2004
rule 5 permit time-range
 time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 daily
acl number 2001
rule 5 deny time-range am9topm5 OK
 time-range am9topm5 07:00 to 18:00 daily
Acl number 2002
14. After the administrator successfully logs in to the router through Telnet, and finds that the router's
interface IP address cannot be allocated, the possible reasons are ()
 The Telnet user level is in OKly configured OK
 SNMP parameter is in OKly configured
 The Telnet user authentication mode is in OKly configured
 The administrator uses the telnet terminal software to prohibit the corresponding operation
15. vty configuration as shown in the figure, the user authority level is set to level 3.
[Huawei]user-interface vty o 14
[Huawei-ul-vtyo-14]acl 200o inbound
[Huavei-ui-vtyo-14]user privilege level 3
[Huavei-ui-vtyo-14]authentication-node password Please configure the login password (maxim length
16):huawei
 Falsewrong
 True OK
16. What percentage does the DHCP client expect to send the lease renewal message for the first time?
 0.5 OK
 0.875
 1wrong
 0.25
17. When AP and AC are on different Layer 3 networks, what method is recommended for AP to
discover AC? (Multiple Choice)
 Broadcasting methodwrong
 DNS OK
 DHCP OK
 Manually specified on AP
18. What frequency does IEEE 802.11n support? (Multiple Choice)
 2.5GHz
 2.4GHz OK
 5GHz OK
 6GHz
19. In IPv4 networks, AP supports static and DHCP methods to obtain IP addresses.
 True OK
 False
20. What is the maximum negotiation rate supported by the IEEE 802.llg standard?
 300Mbps
 150Mbpswrong
 54Kbps OK
 1200Mbps
21. Which WLAN security policies support the link authentication method of Open mode? (Multiple
Choice)
 WPA2-802.IX OK
 WPA2-PSKwrong
 WEP OK
 WPA OK
22. Which of the following SNMP packets are sent to the NMS by the Agent on the managed device?
 Set-Request
 Get-Request
 Get-Next-Request
 Response OK
23. Which of the following statements about RA and RS in IPv6 are OK? (Multiple Choice)
 RS is used to reply address prefix information
 RA is used to request address prefix informationwrong
 RS is used to request address prefix information OK
 RA is used to reply address prefix information OK
24. Telnetlib is a module that implements the Telnet protocol that comes with Python.
 True OK
 False
25. The controller is the core component of SDN. The controller connects to the device through the
southbound interface. Which of the following belong to the controller southbound protocol? (Multiple
Choice)
 SNMP OK
 PCEPwrong
 OpenFlow OK
 NETCONFwrong
 Which technologies can be used with Ethernet switches to achieve redundancy?
(Choose two)
 LAG / STP

 In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur?
 An Ethernet network with redundant paths not running STP.
 00:0200:58

 What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?
(Choose two):
 Providing path redundancy / Preventing loops

 Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN?
 A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains.

 What is required if devices on different VLANs with to communicate with each
other?
 Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP
router to connect the VLANs.

 The 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 - 8, VLAN
200 on ports 9 - 16 and VLAN 300 on ports 17 -24. Which of the following
describes the behavior of the switch when a broadcast frame is received on port
1?
 The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8.

 The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is
referred to as:
 Tagging

 What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects
multiple VLANs?
 VLAN tag
 Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier
differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?
 The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the
carriers network.

 What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?
 The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for
transmission on the transmission media.
 Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?
 Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission.

 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?
 IP
 00:0200:58
 Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?
 PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed.
 Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or
non-real time data?
 AAL5


 Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM?
 - Application data is transported in 53-byte cells.
- ATM circuits are identified by a VPI/VCI value.
- Provides enhanced QoS support with 5 classes of service.
- Ideal for multiple services on the same physical line.

 What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?
 STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84

 What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?
 STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s
 Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two)?
 SONET/SDH & E1 carrier
 How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?
 3
 Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that
was used for 10Mbit/s Ethernet?
 DEC-Intel-Xerox
 Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the
received bits?
 Frame check sequence
 How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?
 In Ethernet II the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type
indicator. In Ethernet 802.3 these two bytes indicate the length of the frame.
 Given the Mac Adress 00-20-60-ce-2b:28, which part is the Organizationally
Unique Identifier (OUI)?
 00-20-60
 Which of the following type of addressing scheme delivers information from one
source to all the devices who are members of a specific group?
 Multicast
 Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission?
 Half-duplex transmission is only 30-40% efficient because of collisions.
 What is the meaning of carrier sense in CSMA/CD algorithm?
 The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are
transmitting.
 What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-
duplex Ethernet link?
 20 Mbps
 Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?
 There are copper and optical versions for all of these Ethernet data rates.
 What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?
 100 m
 Which of the following statements is TRUE of Layer 3 addressing?
 Every Host device must have a unique Layer 3 address in order to access the
Internet.
 Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?
 Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.
 The physical networks connecting two PCs to the internet are DSL and PPP
respectively. Which layer will enable the two PCs to communicate?
 Layer 3
 Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?
 Same network prefix
 A Class C network is defined by a:
 24-bit network prefix
 Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?
 IANA
 What characteristics of IP addressing creates a hierarchical network?
 IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides.
 Which of the following is a private IP network address reserved by the IANA?
 172.30.0.0/16
 Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1's for the host
address?
 Broadcast address
 Complete the following sentence: The introduction of the subnet address added
another:
 Layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure
 What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?
 A string of 1s
 What is the purpose of the broadcast address?
 Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.
 Which three of the following are important considerations when designing
subnets?
 - Number of subnetworks currently required
- Future network growth requirements
- Number of hosts each subnetwork will support
 Network address: 200.12.30.0
Network mask: 255.255.255.0
Use the information above. You need to create 12 subnetworks supporting 10

host addresses each.
Which extended prefix will meet this requirement?

 /28
 Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?
 172.16.224.255/18
 A network administrator is creating a subnet plan to address 172.16.0.0/16. The
network must support 459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum
number of subnets. What subnet mask should be used?
 255.255.254.0
 With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are
valid host address?
 95.11.22.93
192.11.255.87
 Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host
address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?
 116.14.17.189
 Given the following (Network address: 208.40.224.0, Network prefix:/28.) What is
the address range, including the network and broadcast addresses, for the fourth
sub-network?
 208.40.227.0 - 208.40.224.255
 Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?
 There is no broadcast address on the network
 Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?
 A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.
 Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:
 Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one
network prefix.
 What is the preference value in the routing table used for?
 It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by different
routing protocols.
 At what stage in the packet forwarding process, is the IP packet header
examined?
 After the IP datagram is extracted from the L2 frame.
 What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer
2 frame in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 router?
 The IP datagram is passed to the IOM.
 Which of the following IP header fields contains information that indicates
whether routers are allowed to fragment a packet?
 Flags
 What is the main purpose of IP fragmentation?
 To allow IP datagrams to be carried over Layer 2 networks with varying MTU
sizes.
 Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?
 Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses
simultaneously.
 Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
 An IP filter is applied to allow or deny IP packets into a network.
 Which of the following command lines would be found in a list of commands
designed to permit only certain type of traffic from exiting router RTR-A to router
RTR-B?
 RTR-A>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1
 What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a
destination for which it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?
 ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply
 Which of the following best describes the function of an ARP cache within the
same subnet?
 Resolves the MAC address of a host device given its IP address.
 What is the sequence of events for a client to receive an IP address from the
server in the DHCP?
 Discover, offer, request, acknowledgement
 Which of the following statements is TRUE about ICMP?
 ICMP messages are encapsulated within an IP datagram
 What protocol is used by ping to verify IP network reachability?
 ICMP
 When a device in an IP network receives an echo request message that is
destined for itself, it then:
 Generates an echo reply
 What ICMP message type will a router use to indicate to a host that an IP
datagram sourced from that host cannot be delivered?
 Destination Unreachable
 A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from
the IP network. This describes:
 IP routing
 Which field in the IP routing table contains the name or address of the neighbour
that advertised the prefix to the router?
 Next hop
 What is the function of the Routing Table Manager?
 Based on the routing protocol preference values, chose the route with the lowest
preference and install it in the routing table.
 Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?
 Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.
 Which of the following describes a static default route?
 A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in
the routing table.
 What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? Choose two
 - RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols
- RTM installs its best route in the routing table
 Choose two true statements that characterize Distance Vector Routing?
 - Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically
- Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.
 What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a
destination network?
 Link bandwidth.
 You need to implement an interior gateway routing protocol for your network that
supports scalability, fast convergence and VLSM. Which routing protocol would
best serve your needs?
 OSPF
 Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF
neighbors must be the same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose
four.)
 - Area ID
- Authentication password
- Hello interval
- Dead interval
 Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF?
Choose two
 - The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set
- The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router
 Which of the following are FALSE statements about the OSPF routing protocol?
Choose two.
 - The default metric for OSPF is hop count.
- OSPF does not support VLSM.
 Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events in the forming of
an OSPF adjacency?
 Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates
 Which of the following best describes an autonomous system?
 An autonomous system is a network or group of networks operating under one
administrative authority.
 Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and
maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?
 TCP port 179.
 What are some of the characteristics of BGP? Choose three
 - BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.
- BGP routing is based on distance vector.
- A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number
 Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the Transport Layer
in the TCP/IP stack?
 Provides a data transport service to higher protocol layers
 Which of the following is NOT a function of TCP?
 Defining the method for routing data across the network.
 What must occur before two hosts can exchange data using TCP?
 The two hosts must perform a 3-way handshake before transmitting data.
 Host A is transmitting data to host B on a TCP connection. What is the purpose
of the ACK sent by host B?
 The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B
expects to see.
 Host A receives a TCP SYN/ACK segment. What does this signify?
 A TCP session is now established to host A.
 What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?
 These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using
the TCP connection.
 Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?
 MTU
 Which of the following fields is not a field in the TCP header used for the
establishment and termination of a TCP connection?
 TTL
 The sequence numbers are used by TCP to ensure that the data receive is
provided to the application in the correct order.
 TRUE
 What happens in a TCP session if a segment is not acknowledged within a
certain time period?
 The missing segment is retransmitted
 What is the purpose of TCP flow control?
 It allows the receiver to control the rate at which the sender transmits data
 Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate how many
segments it can receive?
 Window size
 What must the sender do when it receives a window size of 0 from the receiver?
 Stop transmitting.
 Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select
two)?
 - Provide a connectionless delivery service.
 Why does UDP have less overhead than TCP?
 UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or
retransmission.
 Which application below would be likely to use UDP?
 Real-time audio application such as VoIP.
 How does the Transport Layer identify which application is to receive the data?
 Using port numbers.
 What capability of TCP/IP allows two hosts to have multiple TCP sessions to
each other simultaneously?
 The combination of IP source and destination address and TCP source and
destination port uniquely identifies each session
 What operation is performed by an LSR when it receives an MPLS labeled
packet?
 The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, swaps the label and forwards the packet
to the next LSR or LER.
 What is the function of an LSR?
 Label Switching Routers make forwarding decisions based on the MPLS label
 In an MPLS network, which device is responsible for taking an unlabeled packet
and encapsulating it with an MPLS label?
 Ingress Label Edge Route
 Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels (Choose
three)?
 - A series of labels from one LER to another LER represent a logical tunnel
known as an LSP
- Labels used for a LSP may be static but are usually signaled dynamically with
an MPLS label signaling protocol
- Labels used for a LSP may be static but are usually signaled dynamically with
an MPLS label signaling protocol
 Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet
reaches the CE device
 The egress LER removes the MPLS label
 Which two protocols are used for the dynamic signaling of MPLS labels (Choose
two)?
 - RSVP-TE
- LDP
 How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?
 LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.
 A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers
MPLS network?
 CE always connects to a PE router.
 Which of the following are accurate statements about the PE device in a service
providers MPLS network? (Select three)
 - A PE router connects to at least one P router.
- A PE router connects to at least one CE device.
- PE routers support many different interface types connecting to CE devices.
 Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network
 In the core of the providers network.
 Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Networks? Choose all that
apply
 - VPWS
- VPLS
- VPRN
 Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? Choose two
 - MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol
- VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service
 Which statement best describes a SAP?
 The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers
access to the service
 Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for
different services.
 True
 SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet
port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.
 True
 Which statement best describes an SDP?
 Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and
used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be
bound to a single SDP.
 Which statement best describes a VPRN service?
 From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private
routed network administered by the service provider.
 How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from
different customers?
 Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance
to separate customer routing information.
 How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from
different customers?
 Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance
to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.
 A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet
SAPs.
 False
 Protocols (OSI model)
 1. Physical => 802.3 (Ethernet) | 802.11 (Wi-Fi) | 802.16 (WiMax)
2. Data Link Layer => Ethernet, Frame Relay, Token Ring, Fiber Distributed Data
Interface (FDDI) | Bridges and layer 2 switches
3. Network Layer => IPv4, IPv6, ICMP, IPSec | layer 3 switches, routers, and
firewalls
4. Transport => TCP and UDP
5. Session => NeBIOS, SOCKS and Network File System (NFS)
6. Presentation => Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer
(SSL)
7. Application => DNS, HTTP, FTP, ect.
 TCP/IP Model ( TCP => Transmission Control Protocol a reliable connection
oriented protocol that runs over IP the Internet Protocol.)
 1. Physical layer
2. Data link layer
3. Internet Layer
4. Transport Layer
5. Application Layer
 Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for path determination and end-to-end
forwarding of datagrams?
 The Internet layer
 What information is part of the encapsulation done at the Link layer?
 Source and destination MAC addresses
 Which of the following is NOT a function of the control plane in a router?
 To forward data packets towards their destination
 Which of the following shows a typical data packet flow when egressing a Nokia
7750 SR?
 SF/CPM -> IOM -> MDA -> SFP
 Which of the following about MD-CLI is FALSE?
 Uncommitted configuration changes are saved when a user exits the private
configuration edit mode.
 If one user is in the private configuration edit mode and another one is in the
read-only configuration edit mode, which candidate configuration datastore do
they have access to?
 The read-only user has access to the global configuration datastore and the
private user has access to its own configuration datastore
 Which of the following actions exits the MD-CLI implicit configuration mode?
 Navigating to the root CLI context
 Which of the following displays the hierarchical structure of the available CLI
commands at the current context level?
 tree
 Which of the following is NOT a valid log destination in a Nokia 7750 SR?
 Main
 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a hub?
 It inspects layer-2 frame headers.
 Which address type is used to send frames to all devices in a Local Area
Network?
 Broadcast
 What happens when a switch receives an Ethernet frame with an unknown
source MAC address and a destination MAC address of ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff?
 The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to
all ports except the receiving port.
 Which of the following statements about VLAN stacking is FALSE?
 It increases the size of the VLAN ID field in the Ethernet header.
 Which of the following statements about LAG is FALSE?
 It provides protection against link or node failure
 Which of the following protocols is used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks?
 STP
 Which of the following is used to connect multiple broadcast domains?
 Router
 Which of the following is NOT a Regional Internet Registry?
 IANA
 Which of the following is the broadcast address of the subnetwork to which host
172.16.176.135/24 belongs?
 172.16.176.255
 Which of the following is a unicast address that is assigned to two or more
devices on the same network?
 Anycast address
 Which of the following about hierarchical IPv4 addressing is FALSE?
 It increases the number of IP addresses available in the Internet.
 A network has an address of 206.47.132.0 and a network mask of
255.255.254.0. How many subnetworks can be created if each subnetwork must
have at least 25 hosts?
 16
 Which of the following is a characteristic of route summarization?
 It reduces the number of route advertisements within a network.
 Which of the following statements about the system IP address on a Nokia 7750
SR is FALSE?
 It is associated with the management port.
 Which of the following is NOT part of the IP forwarding process?
 Perform MAC address learning
 What type of message is an ARP request?
 A broadcast message
 Which of the following statements about ICMP is TRUE?
 ICMP messages are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
 Which DHCP message is used by a client to inform a DHCP server that it
accepts the assigned IP address?
 Request
 Which of the following protocols is NOT used to build a routing table?
 LDP

1. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a new type of network architecture

originally proposed by the Clean Slate research team at Stanford University.
SDN has three characteristics: forwarding-control separation, centralized
control, and open programmable interfaces.
a) True√
b) False
2. FTP is file transfer protocol and works in active or passive mode.
a) True √
b) False
3. To prevent out-of-order packets, it is recommended that Eth-Trunk use flow-

based load balancing
a) True√
b) False
4. The vlan batch 4 10 command is used to create VLAN 4 and VLAN 10

a) True
b) False√
5. Segment Routing (SR) provides an innovative traffic steering method. It

divides a network path into segments and allocates segment IDs (SIDs) to
these segments. The segments and nodes are sequentially arranged into a
segment list to form a forwarding path.
a) True√
b) False
6. Static routes and OSPF routes can form equal-cost routes

a) True
b) False√
7. In STP, a non-root-bridge switch can have two root ports

a) True
b) False√
8. Before sending an IPv6 packet, an interface performs the following

operations in this order: address configuration, address resolution, and
duplicate address detection (DAD)
a) True
b) False√
9. When two static routes work as the primary and backup routes, the
preference of the backup route can be changed to the same as that of the
primary route so that the two routes become equal-cost routes
a) True√
b) False
10.Specific routes can be summarized into a summary route only when they
have the same next-hop address
a) True √
b) False
11.Which of the following statements about BPDUs in STP is false?

a) TCN BPDUs are triggered only when the network topology changes
b) BPDUs are classified into configuration BPDUs and TCN BPDUs
c) A configuration BPDU contains parameters such as the bridge ID, path
cost, and port ID
d) When the network topology becomes stable, all switches proactively send
configuration BPDU√
12.IPv6 addresses can be classified into three types based on IPv6 address
prefixes. Which of the following is not an IPv6 address type?
a) Multicast address
b) Broadcast address√
c) Anycast address
d) Unicast address
13.Which of the following is not a method for an AP to discover an AC

address?
a) DHCP
b) Broadcast
c) Static configuration
d) OSPF√
e) DNS
14.The ping and tracert commands are used to check the network status. Which
of the following statements about the ping and tracert commands is false?
a) The ping command can be used to check connectivity to a destination
address
b) The source IP address of packets to be sent can be specified in the
command
c) The ping -s source-ip-address destination-ip-address command is used to
specify the source and destination IP addresses of ICMP Echo Request
packets.√
d) The tracert command can be used to check the gateways that packets pass
through before reaching the destination
15. Which of the following statements is false about Control and Provisioning
of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP)?
a) CAPWAP transmits two types of messages at the transport layer: service
data and management traffic
b) CAPWAP is used to maintain the connectivity between Aps and an AC
c) When tunnel forwarding is used, an AP exchanges data with an AC
through a CAPWAP tunnel
d) CAPWAP is an application layer protocol based on TCP√
16. Refer to the following configuration on a switch:

[Huawei]vlan batch 2 to 9 10
Which of the following statements is true about this command?
a) The command is incorrect. As a result, the VRP will report an error when
this command is run
b) VLANs 2 to 10 will be created on the switch√
c) VLANs 2, 9, and 10 will be created on the switch
d) VLANs 2 through 910 will be created on the switch
17. Which of the following statements about STP and RSTP is false?
a) RSTP is backward compatible with STP
b) There are five STP port states: Forwarding, Learning, Listening,
Blocking, and disabled
c) RSTP converges faster than STP
d) There are three RSTP port states: Forwarding, Learning, and Blocking √
18.SNMP is used to manage network devices. Refer to the following SNMP

configuration on a Huawei device. Which of the following statements is
false?
[Huawei] display current-configuration | include snmp
snmp-agent
snmp-agent local-engineid 800007DB03001974593301
snmp-agent sys-info version v3
snmp-agent mib-view included iso-view iso
snmp-agent group v3 v3group privacy read-view iso-view write-view notify-view
iso-view
snmp-agent usm-user v3 v3user
snmp-agent usm-user v3 v3user group v3group
snmp-agent usm-user v3 v3user authentication-mode sha cipher %^
%#&Ygn:NzQw;d>f=2+aJ;;=B\IM^”P1Hf/{L$F9UW@%^%#
snmp-agent usm-user v3 v3user privacy-mode aes256 cipher %^
%#&Ygn:NzQw;d>f=2+aJ;;=B\IM^”P1Hf/{L$F9UW@%^%#
snmp-agent usm-user v3 v3user
a) SNMPv3 is configured
b) SNMP packets will be encrypted using AES256
c) The v3user user can access nodes in the subtree with iso as the root node
d) The encryption mode of the v3user user is SHA √
19.Mastering the basic operations of the file system is crucial for network
engineers to efficiently manage the configuration files and VRP system files
of devices. Which of the following statements is true about these files?
a) A configuration file stores configuration commands. The common file
name extension is.cc.
b) A batch file is a type of software compatible with the system software.
The common file name extensions is.zip.
c) A PAF file effectively controls product features. The common file
name extension is.bin √
d) System software is mandatory for device startup and running. The
common file name extensions is.cfg.
20. Which of the following statements about edge ports is false?

a) If an edge port receives a configuration BPDU, it becomes a common
STP port
b) In most cases, edge ports are directly connected to user terminals
c) It takes 15 seconds for an edge port to change from the Disabled
state to the Forwarding state. √
d) In normal situations, an edge port cannot receive configuration BPDUs.
21. Refer to the following ACL configuration on a device. Which of the

following statements is true?
#
time-range satime 08:00 to 17:30 working day
#
Acl number 3002
Rule 5 permit ip source 10.164.2.0 0.0.0.255 destination 10.164.9.9 0.0.0.225 time-
range satime
a) This ACL is a user ACL according to the ACL classification rules
b) All packets with the source IP addresses on the network segment
10.164.2.0/24 will be permitted by the device.
c) The ACL rule takes effect only on working days.√
d) This ACL is a basic ACL according to the ACL classification rules.
22. The MAC address table of a switch is as follows:

00-01-02-03-04-AA G0/0/1
00-01-02-03-04-CC G0/0/3
A data frame with the destination MAC address 00-01-02-03-04-BB is received on
G0/0/1, and another data frame with the destination MAC address 00-01-02-03-04-
CC is received on G0/0/3. How does the switch process the two data frames?
a) Floods the first frame and discards the second frame.√
b) Forwards the first frame and discards the second frame.
c) Floods the first frame and forwards the second frame.
d) Forwards the first frame and floods the second frame.
23. OSPF authentication enables a device to encrypt OSPF packets by adding

an authentication field to the packets, ensuring network security. Which of
the following statements about OSPF authentication is false?
a) The authentication modes of two OSPF neighbors must be the same,
that is, both of them either use interface authentication or use area
authentication.√
b) OSPF authentication is classified into area authentication and interface
authentication
c) Area authentication applies to the packets received on all the interfaces in
a specific area
d) Interface authentication is configured in the interface view and applies to
all the packets received on the interface.
24. Dynamic routing protocols can be classified into Interior Gateway Protocol
(IGP) and Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) according to their working area.
Which of the following protocols is an EGP?
a) OSPF
b) IS – IS
c) BGP√
d) RIP
25. In STP, which of the following values cannot be set as the bridge priority?
a) 22528√
b) 16238
c) 0
d) 8192
26. The following shows partial OSPF neighbor information for a specific
routing:
OSPF Process 1 with Routing ID 10.1.1.3
Neighbors
Area 0.0.0.0 interface 10.1.1.3 (GigabitEthernet0/0/0)s neighbors
Routing ID: 10.1.1.1 Address: 10.1.1.1
State: Full Mode: Nbr is Slave Priority:1
DR: 10.1.1.5 BDR: 10.1.1.1 MTU:0
Dead timer due in 35 sec
Retrains times interval:5
Neighbor is up for 00:02:01
Authentication Sequence: [0]
Which of the following statements is false?
a) The routing ID of following statements is false?
b) The routing is the slave router in the master – slave relationship √
c) The preceding information is about the neighbor relationship of the router
and BDR router
d) The router is a DR-other router.
27. The process for an AP to go online is as follows: The AP sends a Join

Request packet to an AC, which then authenticates the AP after receiving
the packet. The AP gets managed after being successfully authenticated.
Which of the following AP authentication methods is not supported by an
AC?
a) MAC address authentication
b) Password authentication√
c) Non-authentication
d) Serial number authentication
28. Refer to the following AAA configuration on a device. Which of the

following statements is true?
[R1-aaa] display this
[V200R003C00]
#
Aaa
Authentication-scheme default
Authorization-scheme default
Accounting-scheme default
Domain default
Domain default_admin
Local-user Huawei password ciper %$%$m]Gr
Local-user Huawei privilege level 0
Local-user Huawei service-type telnet
#
a) The Huawei user can log in to the device through SSH
b) The Huawei user can run the the display current-configuration command
c) The authorization scheme is default and the authorization mode is non-
authorization
d) The authentication mode is local authentication√
29. The Network Configuration Protocol (NETCONF) provides a mechanism

for managing network devices. Which of the following statements about
NETCONF is false?
a) Yet Another Next Generation (YANG) is a data modeling language that
standardizes NETCONF data content.
b) NETCONG messages are formatted using either JSON or XML√
c) NETCONF supports trial runs and rollback in case of errors.
d) If YANG files are not integrated into a device, the device does not
support NETCONF
30. The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a common data link layer protocol for
wide area networks (WANs). Which of the following statements about PPP
is false?
a) The establishment of a PPP link goes through three phases: link
layer negotiation, network layer negotiation, and authentication.√
b) PPP supports the Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and
Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
c) PPP uses the Link Control Protocol (LCP) to negotiate link control layer
parameters.
d) If PPP uses password authentication mode, negotiation packets are
transmitted in plain text, which is insecure.
31. In the TCP/IP reference model, network layer protocols are responsible for
sending packets from the source host to the destination host. Which of the
following protocols is not a network layer protocol?
a) PPP√
b) IPv4
c) ICMP
d) IGMP
32. The establishment of an OSPF adjacency between device involves four

steps. Which of the following statements about these steps is true?
a) The devices establish bidirectional neighbor relationships, negotiate the
master/slave relationship, exchange LSAs, update LSAs, and synchronize
their LSDBs.√
b) The devices negotiate the master/slave relationship, exchange LSAs,
establish bidirectional neighbor relationships, update LSAs, and
synchronize their LSDBs.
c) The device exchange LSAs, negotiate the master/slave relationship,
establish bidirectional neighbor relationships, update LSAs, and
d) The devices negotiate the master/slave relationship, establish
bidirectional neighbor relationships, exchange LSAs, update LSAs, and
33. If the PVID of a trunk port on a switch is 10 and the port trunk allow-pass
vlan 7 9 command is configured on the port, which of the following
statements is true?
a) Data frames of VLANs 7,8, and 9 can be transmitted on a trunk link
b) Data frames of VLANs 1,7, and 9 can be transmitted on a trunk
link√
c) Data frames of VLANs 1,7,8, and 9 can be transmitted on a trunk link
d) Data frames of VLANs 7,8,9, and 10 can be transmitted on a trunk link
34. Which of the following commands can be used to check OSPF LSDB
information on a Huawei device?
a) Display ospf routing
b) Display ospf brief
c) Display ospf peer
d) Display ospf lsdb√
35. Refer to the following configuration on a Huawei router.

<huawei> system-view
[huawei] user-interface maximum-vty 7
Which of the following statements is true?
a) The router allows a maximum of seven users to log in concurrently
through the console port.
b) If a user forgets the system login password, the user will be locked out
after seven consecutive failed login attempts
c) The router allows a maximum of seven users to log in concurrently
through the asynchronous serial port.
d) The router allows a maximum of seven users to log in concurrently
through Telnet.√
36. NTP is a network protocol used to synchronize computer clocks with an

NTP server. Which of the following statements about NTP is false?
a) NTP packets are transmitted through UDP.
b) NTP is a network layer protocol in the TCP\IP protocol suite.√
c) The stratum indicates the hierarchy for clock synchronization. The value
1 indicates the highest clock precision.
d) The master time server directly synchronizes with the standard reference
clock through cables or radio signals.
37. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Typically, an IPv6 address is represented
by eight groups of 16-bit hexadecimal values separated by colons (:). Which
of the following statements about IPv6 addresses is false?
a) A global unicast address (GUA) is globally unique.
b) There may be ULA conflicts in a global scope.
c) Each IPv6 interface must have a unique local address (ULA)√
38. What is the valid VLAN ID range?
a) 1 to 4095
b) 0 to 4094
c) 0 to 4095
d) 1 to 4094√
39. In the same Ethernet network segment, five routers are running OSPF for
interconnection. When the protocol status of all routers is stable, which of
the following statements is true?
a) The neighbor status of a router on the network can only be Full or 2-
way√
b) The neighbor status of all routers is Full
c) There are routers of which all neighbor relationships are in 2-way state
on the network
d) The neighbor relationship between a DR router and another router can be
Full or 2-way.
40. An AC manages and controls Aps in a centralized manner through

CAPWAP tunnels. An AP sends a Discovery Request packet to find an
available AC. Which of the following methods cannot be used by an AP to
discover an AC?
a) Multicast√
b) Static configuration
c) DHCP
d) DNS
41. ACLs are used to match and distinguish packets. Which of the following
information can be used to define ACL rules?
a) Source and destination IP addresses of IPv4 packets√
b) Source and destination MAC addresses√
c) VLAN ID√
d) Protocol type of Ethernet frames √
42.The concept of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) was proposed by a

group of network service providers to solve problems such as too much
telecom network hardware, complex deployment and O&M, and difficult
service innovation. Which of the following components are included in the
standard NFV architecture?
a) MAMO√
b) VNF√
c) OS
d) NFVI√
43.In contrast with SNMPv1, which of the following operations are newly
added to SNMPv2c?
a) GetBulkRequest√
b) InformRequest√
c) GetNextRequest
d) SetRequest
44. A router can advertise default routes in an OSPF area. Which of the
following statements about OSPF default route advertisement are false?
a) The default-route-advertise command can be used to advertise a default
route in an OSPF area only when the default route exists on the local
device.
b) The preference of the advertised default route in the routing table is
10.√
c) After learning the default router advertised by the router, other
routers in the same OSPF area as the router must add this route to
their routing tables√
d) If there is no default router on the local device, the default-route-
advertise always command can be run to advertise a default route in an
OSPF area.
45. For IPv6 address 2000:002A:0000:0000:0000:000A:020C:023D, which of

the following comply with the address abbreviation rules?
a) 2000:2a:0:0:0:A:2C:23D
b) 2000:2A:0:0:0:A:20C:23D√
c) 2000:2A::A2C:23D
d) 2000:2A::A:20C:23D√
46.Which of the following statements are false about the forwarding behavior
of access ports on a switch?
a) When an access port of the switch sends an untagged data frame, the
port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame √
b) When an access port of the switch receives an untagged data frame, the
port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame
c) When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the
same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port accepts the frame
d) When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the
same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port discards the
frame √
47. Which of the following statements about OSPF areas are true?
a) OSPF areas can be classified into backbone areas and non-backbone
areas√
b) Route summarization can be performed at the border of two OSPF
areas to reduce the size of the routing table√
c) The OSPF multi-area design can reduce the LSA flooding scope√
d) OSPF multi-area improves network scalability and facilitates the
construction of large-scale networks. √
48. Refer to the following configuration on the VTY user interface 0. When a
user logs in to the system through VTY 0, which of the following statements
are true?
<huawei>system-view
[huawei] user-interface vty 0
[Huawei-ui-vty0]user privilege level 2
a) The user can use the debugging command to diagnose service faults
b) The user can use the ping and tracert commands√
c) The user can use some display commands √
d) The user can use service configuration commands, including
configuration commands√
49. Which of the following statements about IP addresses and MAC addresses
are true?
a) MAC addresses are assigned based on vendors √
b) IP addresses are assigned based on the network topology√
c) MAC addresses are unchangeable√
d) IP addresses are unchangeable
50. Which of the following are possible causes for an Aps failure to do online?
a) PoE parameters are incorrectly configured on the PoE switch to
which the AP is connected√
b) The AC version does not match the AP version√
c) The link between the AC and AP is not established√
d) Network cables are not properly connected√
51.Which of the following are advantages of switch stacking and clustering?

a) Simplifies network management√
b) Improves network reliability√
c) Improves the performance of single switches
d) Simplifies network structure√
52. Which of the following statements about OSPF router IDs are true?
a) To ensure protocol stability, it is recommended that the network
administrator manually configure a router ID for an OSPF process√
b) A router ID can be manually configured or automatically selected by
a device. √
c) The router ID of every device in an OSPF area must be unique√
d) A device uses the smallest IP address configured on loopback interfaces
as its router ID. If no loopback interface is configured, the device uses
the smallest IP address configured on interfaces as its router ID
53.Which of the following are MAC address types?

a) Unicast MAC address√
b) Multicast MAC address√
c) Broadcast MAC address√
d) Anycast MAC address
54. Which of the following statements about static and dynamic routes are true?
a) When creating a static route, you must specify both the outbound
interface and next hop
b) Dynamic routing protocol can be classified into distance-vector
routing protocols and link-state routing protocols based on their
working mechanism and routing algorithms.√
c) Static routes have low requirements on the system and are applicable
to simple, stable, and small-sized network.√
d) Dynamic routing protocols can automatically discover and generate
routes and are more suitable for large-scale network √
55. The Dynamic Name System (DNS) protocol is used to resolve domain
names to IP addresses. Which of the following elements constitute a
complete domain name?
a) Second-level domain name √
b) Top-level domain name√
c) Host name √
d) Root domain name√
56.Which of the following statements about collision domains and broadcast

domains and broadcast domains are true?
a) All devices connected to the same hub belong to the same collision
domain√
b) Each port of a switch connects to a collision domain √
c) The Ethernet uses CSMA/CD to avoid collisions in collision
domains√
d) Each port of a router connects to a broadcast domain√
57.Which of the following IP addresses are private IP addresses?

a) 192.168.1.1/30√
b) 10.0.1.1/30√
c) 172.33.1.1/30
d) 172.16.1.1/30√
58. Which of the following statements about Layer 2 and Layer 3 loops are
true?
a) The ….. ….. in the IP packet header can prevent Layer 2 loops.
b) The Layer 2 …. Header does not contain any information that can
prevent data frames frames from being forwarded endlessly √
c) A Layer 2 …. … … if cables are unconnected connected√
d) If …. Limes are dep yed on the network Layer 2 loops may …√
59.Which of the following statements about Layer 2 hybrid ports are true?
a) When receiving an untagged frame on a link, a Layer 2 hybrid port adds
a tag with the VID as its PVID to the frame and then forwards the frame
b) When a tagged frame needs to be sent from a Layer 2 hybrid port of
a switch and the VID in the tag of the frame is in the untagged
VLAN ID list, the port removes the tag from the frame and then
sends the untagged frame out on the link√
c) After receiving a tagged frame on a link, a Layer 2 hybrid port
checks whether the VID in the tag of the frame is in the tagged or
untagged VLAN ID list. If not the port discards the frame. √
d) When a tagged frame needs to be send from a Layer 2 hybrid port of
a switch and the VID in the tag of the frame is in the tagged VLAN
ID list, the port sends the frame out on the link without removing the
tag from the frame √
60. During IP packed forwarding, the last-hop router forwards packets using the
direct route
a) True√
b) False
61. When two static routes work as the primary and backup routes, the
preference of the backup route can be changed to the same as that of the
primary route so that the routes become equal-cost routes
a) True
b) False √
62.As every two nodes in a full-mesh network are connected using cables eash
node requires a large number …. Physical ports and connection cables,
resulting in relatively high costs.
a) True√
b) False
63.In an OSPF AS, a router can function as ABR and an ASBR
a) True √
b) False
64. AAA is short for authentication, authorization, and application
a) True
b) False √
65.Before sending an IPv6 packet, an interface performs the following
operations in this order: address configuration, address resolution, and
duplicate address detection (DAD)
a) True
b) False √
66.TFTP uses TCP to transfer files, and default server port number is 21
a) True √
b) False
67. Frames transmitted on the trunk link between switches are all tagged
a) True
b) False √
68.WLAN technology enables transmission of information by radio waves over
the air. Currently the 2.6 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands are used
a) True
b) False √
69.FTP is a file transfer protocol and works in active or passive mode
a) True √
b) False
70.Which of the following statements about BPDUs in STP is false?
a) When the network topology becomes stable all switches proactively
BPDUs
b) BPDUs are classified into configuration BPDUs and TCN BPDUs
c) A configuration BPDUs contains parameters
Resource summary
Question 1
Question
201. Which of the following OSPF protocol packets can ensure the reliability of LSA updates?
Answer
o A.LSACK√
o B.DD
o C.LSU
o D.LSR
Question 2
Question
202. The last option field of IPv4 is variable-length optional information. What is the maximum length of
this field?
Answer
o A.10B
o B.40B
o C.60B
o D.20B√
Question 3
Question
203. Which of the following advantages does router-on-a-stick achieve inter-VLAN routing
intercommunication?
Answer
o A. Reduce the number of equipment

o B. Reduce the use of IP addresses
o C. Reduce the number of link connections √
o D. Reduce routing table entries
Question 4
Question
204. If STP is not turned on for the network composed of switches, there must be a Layer 2 loop.
Answer
o A.TRUE√
o B.False
Question 5
Question
205. The switch receives a unicast data frame. If the destination MAC of the data frame can be found in
the MAC table, the data frame will be forwarded from the corresponding MAC port.
Answer
o A.TRUE√
o B.False
Question 6
Question
206. The output information of the link aggregation port of a certain switch is as follows. If you want to
delete Eth-Trunk 1, which of the following commands is correct?
Image:
36 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
o A.undo interface Eth-trunk 1 √

o B.inte GigabitEthernet 0./0/2 Undo eth-trunk Quit Undo interface eth-trunk 1
o C.inte GigabitEthernet 0./0/1 Undo eth-trunk Quit inte GigabitEthernet 0./0/2 Undo eth-trunk Quit
o D.inte GigabitEthernet 0./0/1 Undo eth-trunk Quit Undo interface eth-trunk 1
Question 7
Question
208. If the value of the Type/Length field of an Ethernet data frame is 0 x 0800, the length of the upper
layer message header carried by this data frame is in the range of 20-60B.
Answer
o A.TRUE√
o B.False
Question 8
Question
209. When using FTP for file transfer, how many TCP connections will be established?
Answer
o A.2
o B.1
o C.3
o D.4 √
Question 9
Question
210. What are the user authentication methods that can be deployed in wlan? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Portal authentication√
o B. MAC authentication√
o C. Radius certification
o D. 802.1X authentication√
Question 10
Question
211. Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards support operation in the 5GHz frequency band?
(Multiple choice)
Answer
o A.802.11ac√
o B.802.11n
o C.802.11g
o D.802.11a√
Question 11
Question
212. In order to join the wireless network STA needs to obtain wireless network information first. Which of
the following messages is used by the STA to actively obtain the SSID information?
Answer
o A.Probe√
o B.Join
o C.Discovery
o D.Beacon
Question 12
Question
213. Broadly speaking, which of the following does the transmission medium that constitutes the wireless
local area network wlan not include?
Answer
o A. Ray√
o B. Radio waves
o C. Infrared
o D. Laser
Question 13
Question
214. Which field of the ipv6 packet header can be used for QoS?
Answer
o A.Traffic Class√
o B.Payload Length
o C.Version
o D.Next Header
Question 14
Question
215. Connection between switches and hosts, which port link type is often used by the switch?
Answer
o A. Access link√
o B. Trunk link
o C. Trunk link
o D. Hybrid link
Question 15
Question
216. When using the FTP protocol to upgrade the router software, which of the following transmission
mode should be selected?
Answer
o A. Binary mode√
o B. Byte mode
o C. Text mode
o D. Stream byte mode
Question 16
Question
217. Network shown below, Host A does not configure the gateway, the host B exists gateway ARP
cache, which of the following statements are correct?
Image:
Answer
o A. Enable ARP proxy on the GO/0/1 port of the router, then host A can communicate with host B
o B. Host A and Host B cannot communicate in both directions √
o C. The data packet sent by host B with the destination IP address of 10.0.12.1 can be forwarded to
host A
o D. The data packet sent by host A with the destination IP address of 11.0.12.1 can be forwarded to
host B
Question 17
Question
218. The network structure and OSPF partition is shown in the following figure, in addition to RTA, router
RTB, RTC and RTD are ABR routers.
Image:
Answer
o A.TRUE
o B.False√
Question 18
Question
219. The network administrator hopes to effectively use the IP address of the 192.168.176.0/25 network
segment. Now that the company’s marketing department has 20 hosts, which of the following is the best
address segments allocated to the marketing department?
Answer
o A. 192.168.176.160/27√
o B. 192.168.176.0/25
o C. 192.168.176.96/27
o D. 192.168.176.48/29
Question 19
Question
220. What is the main function of the dynamic routing protocol?
Answer
o A. Manage routers
o B. Generate IP address
o C. Dynamically generate routing entries√
o D. Control router interface status
Question 20
Question
221. The device port running STP protocol is in Forwarding state. Which of the following statements is
correct?
Answer
o A. The port not only forwards user traffic but also processes BPDU packets. √
o B. The port only receives and processes BPDUs, and does not forward user traffic.
o C. The port will build a MAC address table based on the received user traffic, but does not forward
user traffic.
o D. The port not only does not process BPDU packets, but also does not forward user traffic
Question 21
Question
222. Which of the following descriptions about spanning tree designated ports is correct?
Answer
o A. The designated port can forward configuration BPDU messages to the network segment
connected to it.√
o B. The port on the root switch must not be a designated port.
o C. Each switch has only one designated port.
o D. The port on the root switch must be a designated port
Question 22
Question
223. Which of the following statements about link aggregation is correct?
Answer
o A. GE electrical interfaces and GE optical interfaces cannot be added to the same Eth-Trurnk
interface.
o B. Eth-Trurnk interfaces cannot be nested.√
o C. When two devices are connected, it is necessary to ensure that the link aggregation mode on
both devices is the same.
o D. GE interface and FE interface cannot be added to the same Eth-Trunk interface.
Question 23
Question
224. What is the total length of the VLAN frame format defined by IEEE802.1Q?
o A. 1
o B. 2
o C. 3
o D. 4√
Question 24
Question
225. CSS refers to the combination of two switch devices that support cluster features and logically
combine them into one switch device.
Answer
o True√
o False
Question 25
Question
226. The host uses the IP address 192.168.1.2 to access the Internet, which must go through NAT.
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 26
Question
227. Before the STA associates with the AP, it needs to exchange some messages to obtain the SSID.
What are these messages?
Answer
o A. Discovery
o B. Beacon
o C. Probe
o D. ResponseProbe Request√
Question 27
Question
228. Which of the following statement about MPLS Labe1 statement label is wrong?
Answer
o A. The label is encapsulated between the network layer and the transport layer √
o B. The tags are carried by the head of the packet, does not contain topology Information
o C. The label is used to uniquely identify the forwarding equivalence class FEC to which a packet
belongs
o D. The label is a short identifier with a fixed length. It has only local meaning
Question 28
Question
229. Which of the following refers to network communication? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Use instant messaging software (such as, QQ, WeChat) to chat with friends √
o B. Use a computer to visit the company's official website √
o C. Use computer to watch video online√
o D. Download emails from the company mailbox to your compute √
Question 29
Question
230. In the VRP interface, use the command startup saved-configuration backup.cfg to configure the
startup.cfg file for the next startup.
Answer
o A. TrUe√
o B. FALSE
Question 30
Question
231. Which of the following fields does the ARP packet format include? (Multiple choice
Answer
o A. HardwareType√
o B. Protocol Address of sender√
o C. Operation Code√
o D. Protocol Type√
Question 31
Question
232. Both pwd and dir commands in the VRP operating platform can view the file information under the
current directory
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 32
Question
233. The OSI reference model from high-level to bottom-level is ().
Answer
o A. Application layer, transport layer, network layer, data link layer, physical layer
o B. Application layer, session layer, presentation layer, transport layer, network layer, data link layer,
physical layer
o C. Application layer, presentation layer, session layer, network layer, transport layer, data link layer,
physical layer
o D. Application layer, presentation layer, session layer, transport layer, network layer, data link layer,
physical layer√
Question 33
Question
234. Which of the following attributes cannot be used as a parameter to measure Cost? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Bandwidth
o B. Sysname√
o C. Delay√
o D. Hop count
Question 34
Question
235. A company applies for a Class C address segment, which needs to be evenly distributed to 8
subsidiaries. The largest subsidiary has 14 computers. Different subsidiaries must be in different network
segments. The subnet mask should be designed as ().
Answer
o A. 255.255.255.240√
o B. 255.255.255.128
o C. 255.255.255.192
o D. 255.255.255.0
Question 35
Question
236. The priority of the LACP protocol is shown in the figure. Switch A and Switch B adopt LACP mode
link aggregation, and all interfaces join the link aggregation group. At the same time, set the
maximumnumber of active ports to 3. Which interface of switch A is not active port?
Image:
Answer
o A. G0/0/1
o B. G0/0/3√
o C. G0/0/0
o D. G0/0/2
Question 36
Question
237. If the Ethernet data frame Length/Type=0X0806, which of the following statement is correct?
(Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. The source MAC address of the data frame must not be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF √
o B. The data frame is an IEEE 802.3 frame
o C. The data frame is an Ethernet II frame√
o D. The destination MAC address of the data frame may be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Question 37
Question
238. VLAN 4095 cannot be created on Huawei switches, and VLAN 1 cannot be created.
Answer
o True√
o False
Question 38
Question
239. Which of the following port states is not included in the RSTP protocol?
Answer
o A. Learning
o B. Discarding
o C. Forwarding
o D. Blocking
Question 39
Question
240. Which statement about the Hybrid port is correct?
Answer
o A. When the Hybrid port sends data frames, it must carry VLAN TAG
o B. Hybrid port only receives data frames with VLAN TAG
o C. Hybrid port can strip TAG of VLAN in the direction of the interface √
o D. Hybrid port does not require PVID
Question 40
Question
242. What are the advantages of using dynamic host configuration protocol DHCP to assign IP
addresses? (Multiple choice)
o A. Heavy workload and difficult to manage

o B. Reuse of IP address can be realized√
o C. Avoid IP address conflicts√
o D. When the configuration information changes (such as DNS), only the administrator needs to
modify it on the DHCP server to facilitate unified management √
Question 41
Question
243. The role of the collaboration layer in the SDN architecture is to complete job deployment based on
user intentions. OpenStack belongs to the business collaboration layer
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 42
Question
244. Which of the following statement about Python is incorrect?
Answer
o A. Is a fully open source high-level programming language √

o B. Has a rich third-party library
o C. Have a clear grammatical structure, simple and easy to learn, colleagues run efficiently
o D. can be used for operation and maintenance of automation scripts, Artificial Intelligence, Data
science and many other fields
Question 43
Question
245. The administrator has configured the AR2200 as shown in the figure, then which of the following
description of the configuration information is correct?
Image:
Answer
o A. The saved configuration file will be replaced by the running configuration file
o B. If the user wants to clear the next startup configuration file of the device configuration, then
should select "N"
o C. If the user wants to clear the next startup configuration file of the device configuration, then
should select "Y"√
o D. The next startup file of the device configuration will be retained
Question 44
Question
246. When building a campus network, which of the following protocols can be used to avoid Layer 2
loops?
Answer
o A.SNMP
o B.RSTP√
o C.NAT
o D.OSPF
Question 45
Question
247. The tree network topology is actually a hierarchical star structure, which is easy to expand the
network scale, but the higher the level, the more serious the network problem caused by the node failure.
Answer
o True√
o False
Question 46
Question
248. The routing table is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct? (Multiple
choice)
Image:
Answer
o A. The router forwards data packets with the destination IP address 10.0.3.3 from Ethernet0/0/0 √
o B. Router from Ethernet0/0/0 forwarding destination IP address 10.0.2.2 packet √
o C. The router forwards data packets with the destination IP address 10.0.12.1 from Ethernet0/0/0 √
o D. The NextHop of the destination network 10.0.3.3/32 is not directly connected, so the router will
not forward packets with the destination IP address of 10.0.3.3.
Question 47
Question
249. The network administrator uses Ping to test the connectivity of the network. Which of the following
protocols may be used in this process? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A.ICMP√
o B.UDP
o C.TCP
o D.ARP√
Question 48
Question
250. The router needs to modify the destination IP address in the data packet when forwarding data
packets
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 49
Question
251. Which of the following description about DD packets and LSA of OSPF is correct? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. The header of an LSA can uniquely identify an LSA √

o B. LSA header is only a small part of LSA√
o C. DD packet contains detailed information about LSA
o D. The DD packet contains only LSA header information √
Question 50
Question
252. Which of the following statement about the main functions of the router is wrong? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Realize the mutual communication between the same network disconnection equipment √
o B. Forwarding according to the source IP address of the received data packet √
o C. Establish routing tables through multiple protocols
o D. Guide data forwarding according to the routing table √
Question 51
Question
253. In the broadcast network as shown in the figure, OSPF runs on four routers in the same area and on
the same network segment. OSPF will automatically elect one DR and multiple BDRs to achieve better
backup results.
Image:
Answer
o A.True
o B.False√
Question 52
Question
254. The Router ID of the OSPF process takes effect immediately after modification
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 53
Question
255.How many types of OSPF messages are there?
Answer
o A.2
o B.4
o C.5√
o D.3
Question 54
Question
256. In the network shown in the figure below, switch A and router A are connected through two links, and
the two links are aggregated in manual load sharing mode. The aggregated port number is 1, and the
aggregated link performs data when forwarding, you need to carry VLAN TAG 100. Switch A uses Trunk
link. Which of the following configurations should be used for Switch A?
Image:
Answer
o A
Image:
À (binary/octet-stream)
o B
Image:
B (binary/octet-stream)
o C
Image:
C (binary/octet-stream)
o D
Image:
D (binary/octet-stream)
Question 55
Question
257. By default, the port cost calculated by STP has a certain relationship with the port bandwidth, that is,
the greater the bandwidth, the () the cost.
Answer
o A. greater
o B. Consistent
o C. Not necessarily
o D. smaller√
Question 56
Question
258. Which of the following port states does the RSTP protocol include? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A.Learning√
o B.Discarding√
o C.Listening
o D.Forwarding√
Question 57
Question
259. In the RSTP standard, in order to improve the convergence speed, the port that the switch is directly
connected to the terminal can be defined as ( ).
Answer
o A. Edge port√
o B. Root port
o C. Fast port
o D. Backup por
Question 58
Question
260. The configuration information of a certain port of the switch is shown in the figure, then the port will
strip off the VLAN TAG when sending data frames carrying which VLAN?
Image:
Answer
o A.4.6
o B.1.4.5.6
o C.4.5.6
o D.1.4.6√
Question 59
Question
261. The Backup ports in RSTP may alternatively failed root port.
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 60
Question
262. As shown in the figure, all four switches run STP, and various parameters adopt default values. If the
G0/0/2 port of switch C is blocked and the configuration BPDU cannot be sent through this port, how long
will it take for the blocked port in the network to enter the forwarding state?
Image:
Answer
o A. about 3 seconds
o B. about 50 seconds√
o C. about 30 seconds
o D. about 15 seconds
Question 61
Question
263. If the largest number in an ACL rule is 12, by default, the user does not specify a number when
configuring a new rule, then what is the number assigned by the system for the new rule?
Answer
o A.13
o B.15√
o C.14
o D.16
Question 62
Question
264. Complete the ACL configuration shown in the figure on the router RTA, which of the following
description is correct?
Image:
Answer
o A. The VRP system will not adjust the sequence number, but will first match the rule permit source
20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
o B. Configuration error, the sequence number of the rules must be configured from small to large
o C. The VRP system will adjust the sequence number of the first rule to 5 according to the
configuration sequence
o D. The VRP system will first match the rule by numbering in sequence deny source 20.1.1.0
0.0.0.255√
Question 63
Question
265. Using the ACL shown in the figure on the router RTA to match routing entries, which of the following
entries will be matched? (Multiple choice)

Image:
Answer
o A.172.16.1.0/24
o B.192.17.0.0/24
o C.172.18.0.0/16√
o D.172.16.1.1/32√
Question 64
Question
266. The configuration information of a router is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Multiple choice)
Image:
Answer
o A. The authentication method adopted by the domain with the domain name huawei is local ID
o B. The authorization method for the domain with the domain name huawei is local authorization √
o C. Use the username huawei for authentication, the password needs to be 654321
o D. The domain with the domain name huawei does not use the billing plan √
Question 65
Question
267. What is the main function of the DNS protocol?
Answer
o A. Domain name resolution√

o B. File transfer
o C. Remote access
o D. Mail transmission
Question 66
Question
268. What is the data link layer MAC address of each VAP on the AP?
Answer
o A.SSID
o B.BSS
o C.ESS
o D.BSSID√
Question 67
Question
269. Which of the following does not include the advantages of Wi-Fi 6 compared to Wi-Fi 5?
Answer
o A. Higher bandwidth
o B. Lower transmission delay
o C. Higher power consumption√
o D. Higher number of access terminals per AP
Question 68
Question
270. PPPoE session can only use CHAP authentication
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 69
Question
271. Which of the following types does IPv6 address contain? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Unicast address√
o B. Broadcast address
o C. Multicast address√
o D. Anycast address√
Question 70
Question
272. Regarding the IPv6 address 2031:0000:720C:0000:0000:09E0:839A:130B, which of the following

abbreviations is correct?
Answer
o A.2031:0:720C:0:0:9E:839A:130B
o B.2031:0:720C::9E0:839A:130B√
o C.2031:0:720C:0:0:9E0:839A:130B
o D.2031::720C::9E0:839A:130B
Question 71
Question
273. Which of the following protocols does the RA message used by IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
belong to?
Answer
o A.IGMPv6
o B.ICMPv6√
o C.UDPv6
o D.TCPv6
Question 72
Question
274. When planning the campus network, which of the following mask lengths is recommended for device
interconnection IP addresses?
Answer
o A.16
o B.32
o C.24
o D.30√
Question 73
Question
275. Which of the following are related to the purpose of encapsulation and decapsulation? (Multiple
choice)
Answer
o A. Encapsulation and decapsulation are important steps to realize different protocol functions √
o B. Interworking between different networks√
o C. Shorten the length of the message
o D. Encapsulation and decapsulation can complete network fault location
Question 74
Question
276. Which of the following statement about the transport layer protocol is correct? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. UDP is suitable for the transmission of delay-sensitive traffic, and can be reorganized according
to the sequence number field in the message header
o B. The range of well-known port numbers is 0-1023√
o C. UDP uses the STNOACK flag to request and confirm the establishment of a connection
o D. TCP establish a connection is a three-way handshake process, TCP terminates the connection
will have to go through four-way handshake√
Question 75
Question
277. Which of the following descriptions about wireless devices is correct?
Answer
o A. The wireless device has no wired interface

o B.FIT AP-like independent user access, Authentication, Forwarding services and other functions
o C. Wireless Controller AC-like at the aggregation layer of the entire network, providing high-speed,
Safe and Reliable VLAN business√
o D. FAT AP generally works with wireless controller
Question 76
Question
278. What is the full name of the general routing platform VRP?
Answer
o A.Versatile Redundancy Platform
o B.Versatile Routing Protocol
o C.Versatile Routing Platform√
o D.Virtual Routing Platform
Question 77
Question
280. The network shown in the figure below. The administrator hopes that RTA uses static routing, and
preferentially sends data packets to RTB 's Loopback0 interface through G0/0/1 por, while G0/0/2 serves
as a backup. So how to configure on RTA to achieve this requirement?
Image:
Answer
o A.ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2 ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255

10.0.21.2 preference 40
o B.ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2 preference 70 ip route-static 10.0.2.2
255.255.255.25510.0.21.2
o C.ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2 ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255
10.0.21.2
o D.ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2 ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255
10.0.21.2 preference 70√
Question 78
Question
281. If the broadcast address of a network is 172.16.1.255, then what may its network address be?
Answer
o A.172.16.1.128√
o B.172.16.2.0
o C.172.16.1.1
o D.172.86.1.253
Question 79
Question
282. The administrator wants to configure a hundred IP address on the G0/0/0 interface of the router,
then which of the following addresses is correct?
Answer
o A.192.168.10.112/30
o B.237.6.1.2/24
o C.127.3.1.4/28
o D.145.4.2.55/26√
Question 80
Question
284. In the network as shown in the figure below, the host has an ARP cache. Which of the following
statements is correct? (Multiple Choice

Image:
Answer
o A. The following entries may exist in the ARP cache of host A. 10.0.12.2 MAC-C
o B. The router needs to be configured with static routing, otherwise host A and host B cannot
communicate in both directions
o C. The following entries exist in the ARP cache of host A 11.0.12.1 MAC-B
o D. Host A and Host B can communicate in both directions√
Question 81
Question
285. Compared with STP, which of the following port roles are newly defined in RSTP? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Designated port
o B. Root port
o C. Alternate port√
o D. Backup port√
Question 82
Question
286. The Layer 2 switch is a data link layer device, which can identify the MAC address information in the
data frame, forward data according to the MAC address, and record these MAC addresses and
corresponding port information in its own MAC address table.
Answer
o True√
o False
Question 83
Question
287. The two switches shown in the figure below have both enabled the STP protocol. Which port will
eventually be in the Blocking state?
Image:
Answer
o A. G0/0/2 port of SWB

o B. G0/0/3 port of SWB√
o C. G0/0/2 port of SWA
o D. G0/0/3 port of SWA
Question 84
Question
288. On Huawei switches, you can use the command vlan batch to create multiple VLANs in batches.
simplifying the configuration process
Answer
o True√
o False
Question 85
Question
289. As shown in the figure, the two switches use the default parameters to run STP, the configuration
command STP root primary is used on switch A, and the configuration command STP priority 0 is used
on switch B. Then which port will be blocked?
Image:
Answer
o A. G0/0/1 of switch B
o B. G0/0/1 of switch A
o C. HUB's G0/0/3
o D. G0/0/2 of switch A√
Question 86
Question
290. In the network shown in the figure below, two switches are connected by four links, COPPER refers
to electrical interface, and FIBER refers to optical interface. Which of the following two interfaces can
achieve link aggregation?
Image:
Answer
o A.G0/0/2 and G0/0/1

o B.G0/0/3 and FE0/0/3
o C.G0/0/3 and G0/0/1√
o D.G0/0/2 and FE0/0/3
Question 87
Question
291. Trunk ports can allow multiple VLANs to pass, including VLAN4096.
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 88
Question
292. The following statements about the election of active ports in link aggregation LACP mode. Which is
correct?
Answer
o A. Compare the priority of the interface first, and it is impossible to determine the better one to
continue to compare the interface number, the smaller the better √
o B. Only compare interface priority
o C. Compare device priority
o D. Only compare interface numbers
Question 89
Question
293. Which of the following parameters is not included in the configuration BPDU of the STP protocol?
Answer
o A. Port ID
o B. VLAN ID√
o C.Bridge ID
o D.Root ID
Question 90
Question
294. Which of the following options are configured in a Layer 2 ACL? (Multiple choices)
Answer
o A.rule 10 permit 12-protoco1 arp

o B.rule 25 permit source 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0
o C.rule 20 permit source-mac 0203-0405-0607√
o D.rule 15 permit vlan-id 100√
Question 91
Question
295. A company has 50 private IP addresses. The administrator uses NAT technology to connect the
company’s network to the public network, but the company has only one public network address and is
not fixed. Which of the following NAT conversion methods meets the needs?
Answer
o A. easy-ip√
o B. NAPT
o C. Static NAT
o D.Basic NAT
Question 92
Question
296. In the network shown in the figure, the administrator hopes that all hosts cannot access the web
service (the port number is 80), and other services are normally accessed, so in the interface
configuration of G0/0/1, traffic-filtar outbound needs to define which ACL rule?
Image:
Answer
o A. acl number 3000 rule 5 deny tcp destination-port eq www rule 10 permit ip # √
o B. acl number 3001 rule 5 deny udp destination-port eq www rule 10 permit ip #
o C. acl number 3003 rule 5 permit ip rule 10 deny udp destination-port eq www #
o D. acl number 3002 rule 5 permit ip rule 10 deny tcp destination-port eq www #
Question 93
Question
297. At present, the company has a network administrator, and the AR2200 in the company network can
be remotely managed by directly entering the password through Telnet. After the two new network
administrators arrived, the company hopes to assign their own user names and passwords to all
administrators, as well as different levels of authority. So how should it be done? Multiple choices
Answer
o A. Each administrator uses a different public IP address of the device when running the Telnet
command
o B. The user authentication mode configured by Telnet must select AAA mode √
o C. When configuring each administrator's account, different permission levels need to be
configured√
o D. Configure three user names and their corresponding passwords in the AAA view √
Question 94
Question
298. What is the main function of the DHCP DISCOVER message?
Answer
o A. The server's confirmation response to the REQUEST message

o B. The client is used to find the DHCP server√
o C. The client requests configuration confirmation, or renews the lease
o D. The DHCP server is used to respond to the DHCP DISCOVER message, which carries various
configuration information
Question 95
Question
299. Which of the following network parameters can be assigned by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
DHCP? (Multiple choices)
Answer
o A. IP address√
o B. Gateway address√
o C. Operating system name
o D. DNS address√
Question 96
Question
300. In the WLAN architecture, the FIT AP cannot work independently and needs to be managed by the
AC. Which of the following protocols are used to communicate between FIT AP and AC?
Answer
o A. IPsec
o B.WEP
o C.CAPWAP√
o D.WAP
Question 97
Question
301. What is the first operation performed by the FIT AP after obtaining the AC's IP address?
Answer
o A. Upgrade software version

o B. Download the configuration file
o C. Establish CAPWAP tunnel√
o D. Request configuration file
Question 98
Question
302. How many types of data flows with different service levels can be marked based on MPLS labels?
Answer
o A.4
o B.2
o C.16
o D.8√
Question 99
Question
303. Which of the following functions does the LCP protocol in the PPP protocol support? ( Multiple
Choice)
Answer
o A. Negotiate network layer address

o B. Negotiate authentication agreement
o C. Detect link loops√
o D. Negotiate the maximum receiving unit MRU√
Question 100
Question
304. The network management system can only view the operating status of the device through the
SNMP protocol, but cannot issue configurations.
Answer
o True
o False√
Question 101
Question
305. The network devices running the SNMP protocol are running locally-an agent process
Answer
o True√
o False
Question 102
Question
306. Which extension headers are supported by IPv6 packets? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Destination option extension header√

o B. Fragmentation extension header√
o C. Hop-by-hop option extension header√
o D. VLAN extension header
Question 103
Question
307. Which of the following are not open interfaces of Huawei network equipment? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A.NETCONF
o B.RESTCONF
o C.JSON√
o D.XML√
Question 104
Question
308. Which of the following are not the characteristics of a small-sized campus network?
Answer
o A. Simple network level

o B. Fewer users
o C. Simple network requirements
o D. Wide coverage√
Question 105
Question
309. Which statement are correct about the shortcut keys of the VRP operating platform? (Multiple
choice)
Answer
o A. TAB prompts the most recently entered command

o B. CTRL+C to stop the current command√
o C. The left cursor key (<) moves the cursor to the left position. √
o D.CTRL+Z back to user view√
Question 106
Question
310. Which of the following information prompts will the VRP operating platform use for incomplete input
commands?
Answer
o A.Error :Ambiguous command found at' position

o B.Error :Incomplete command found at' position√
o C.Error: Too many parameters found at' position
o D.Error: Wrong parameter found at 'position
Question 107
Question
311.As shown in the figure below, which port of the following switches will be blocked?
Image:
Answer
o A.SWC G0/0/1
o B.SWC G0/0/2
o C.SWB G0/0/3
o D.SWA G0/0/3
Question 108
Question
312.An existing switch is connected to a designated port through a port, but the port does not forward any
packets, but can monitor network changes by receiving BPDUs, then what is the role of the port?
Answer
o A. Designated port
o B. Alternate port
o C. Disable port
o D. Root port
Question 109
Question
313.In the network shown in the figure, which of the following description is correct?
Image:
Answer
o A. The network between RTA and SWC is the same conflict domain
o B. The network between SWA and SWC is the same conflict domain
o C. The network between SWA and SWB is the same broadcast domain
o D. The network between SWA and SWC is the same broadcast domain
Question 110
Question
314. The output information of a switch is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is
correct? (Multiple choice)
Image:
Answer
o A. The GE0/0/2 port of the switch carries VLAN TAG when sending VLAN20 data frames
o B. The user manually created 4 VLANs
o C. The GE0/0/1 port of the switch does not carry VLAN TAG when sending VLAN20 data frames
o D. The GE0/0/1 port of the switch does not carry VLAN TAG when sending VLAN10 data frames
Question 111
Question
315. As shown in the figure, if host A has the ARP cache of host B, host A can ping host B
Image:
Answer
o A.True
o A.False
Question 112
Question
316. By default, what is the STP Forward Delay time in seconds?
Answer
o A.5
o B.10
o C.15
o D.20
Question 113
Question
317. The G0/0/1 interface configuration information of router A is shown in the figure. Which of the
following statements is correct? (Multiple choice)
Image:
Answer
o A. This interface will not forward received FTP packets

o B. This interface will not forward ICMP packets
o C. This interface will not forward received SNMP packets
o D. This interface can establish OSPF neighbor relationships with other routers
Question 114
Question
318. To apply the ACL configured in the figure in Telnet, which of the following statements is correct?
Image:
Answer
o A. The device with IP address 172.16.105.4 can use Telnet service

o B. The device with IP address 172.16.105.3 can use Telnet service
o C. The device with IP address 172.16.105.5 can use Telnet service
o D. The device with IP address 172.16.105.6 can use Telnet service
Question 115
Question
319.Which of the following fields is not included in the HELLO packet of the OSPF protocol?
Answer
o A.Neighbor
o B.Network Mask
o C.HelloInterva
o D.Sysname
Question 116
Question
320. All interfaces of the router belong to the same broadcast domain
Answer
o True
o False
Question 117
Question
321. The host's IPv4 address is 200.200.200.201/30. Which of the following hosts has an IPv4 address
and its communication does not need to be forwarded by a router?
Answer
o A.200.200.200.202
o B.200.200.200.200
o C.200.200.200.203
o D.200.200.200.1
Question 118
Question
322. Among the following commands to configure the default route, which one is correct?
Answer
o A.[Huawei-Seria10] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
o B.[Huawei] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
o C.[Huawei] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
o D.[Huawei] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1
Question 119
Question
323. If the network address of a network is 192.168.1.0, then its broadcast address must be
192.168.1.255.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 120
Question
324.On Huawei AR G3 routers, what is the -i parameter of the Ping command in VRP used to set?
Answer
o A. The destination IP address of the Echo Reply message

o B. The source IP address of the Echo Request message
o C. Interface for receiving Echo Reply messages
o D. Interface for sending Echo Request messages
Question 121
Question
325. If the Proto of a route information in the routing table is OSPF, the priority of this route must be 10.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 122
Question
326.In the switch MAC address table, which of the following entries will not age?
Answer
o A. Dynamic MAC address table entry

o B. Static MAC address table entry
o C. Port MAC address table entry
o D. Device MAC address table entry
Question 123
Question
327.What is the transmission rate of an Eth-Trunk port in manual link aggregation mode related to?
(Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Number of member ports

o B. Bandwidth of member ports
o C. If an IP address is configured on the member port
o D. If the member port is on the public or private network
Question 124
Question
328.What is the role of the command port trunk allow pass vlan all?
Answer
o A. If the port default vlan 3 command is configured for the connected remote device, VLAN 3 cannot
communicate between the two devices
o B. All VLAN data frames are allowed to pass through this port
o C. The connected peer device can dynamically determine which VLAN IDs are allowed to pass
o D. The opposite port connected to the port must be configured with port trunk permit vlan all
Question 125
Question
329.Hybrid port can be connected to user host and other switches.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 126
Question
330. In which working state of the STP protocol can the port be changed to the Forwarding state without
going through other states?
Answer
o A. Blocking
o B. Learning
o C. Listening
o D. Disabled
Question 127
Question
331. Switches running SIP protocol, the port needs to wait for the forwarding delay in the Learning state
before it can be transformed into the Forwarding state.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 128
Question
332. In order to realize the network layer function on VLANIF interface, what need to be configured on
VLANIF interface? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. MAC address
o B. Subnet mask
o C. IP prefix
o D. IP address
Question 129
Question
333. As shown in the figure, a static NAT command is deployed on router R1. When the PC accesses the
Internet, the destination address in the data packet will not change
Image:
Answer
o A.True
o B.False
Question 130
Question
334. A DHCP server is deployed in the network, but the administrator found that some hosts did not
correctly obtain the address specified by the DHCP server. What are the possible reasons? (Multiple
choice)
Answer
o A. The address pool of the DHCP server has all been allocated
o B. Some hosts cannot communicate with the DHCP server normally, and the client systems of
these hosts automatically generate addresses in the range of 169.254 0.0
o C. There is another DHCP server in the network that works more efficiently
o D. Some hosts cannot communicate with the DHCP server normally, and the client systems of
these hosts automatically generate addresses in the range of 127.254.0.0
Question 131
Question
335. On the AC, you can manually specify the source address or source interface of the CAPWAP tunnel.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 132
Question
336. AC uses CAPWAP control tunnel to transmit management messages to FIT AP.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 133
Question
337. What is the coverage area of an AP in WLAN?
Answer
o A. BSS
o B. SSID
o C. BSSID
o D.ESS
Question 134
Question
338. FIT AP can work independently without relying on AC
Answer
o True
o False
Question 135
Question
339. In the CAPWAP tunnel establishment phase, after the AC receives the Join Request message
sentby the AP, the AC will check the validity of the AP. Which of the following is the authentication
method supported by the AC? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. SN certification
o B. Password authentication
o C. MAC authentication
o D. Not certified
Question 136
Question
340. Which of the following statements about the S field in the MPLS packet header are correct? (Multiple
choice)
Answer
o A. s bit has only 1 bit in frame mode and 2 bit in cell mode
o B. s bit exists in every MPLS packet header
o C. It is used to mark whether there are other labels behind this label, 1 means yes, 0 means no
o D. It is used to mark whether there are other labels behind this label, 0 means yes, 1 means no
Question 137
Question
341. The network management workstation manages network equipment through the SNMP protocol.
When an abnormality occurs in the managed device, what kind of SHMP message will the network
management workstation receive?
Answer
o A. trap message
o B. get-response message
o C. set-request message
o D. get-request message
Question 138
Question
342. What type of IPv6 address FE80: 2E0: FCFF: FE6F: 4F36 belongs to?
Answer
o A. Multicast address
o B. Link local address
o C. Global semicast address
o D. Anycast address
Question 139
Question
343. The origin of SDN is the separation of transfer and control. The separation of transfer and control is
a way to realize SDN, not the essence.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 140
Question
344. Which of the following IEEE802.11 standards only supports 2.4GHz frequency band for
communication?
Answer
o A.802.11a
o B.802.11g
o C.802.11ax
o D.802.11n
Question 141
Question
345. Through SR (Segment Routing), an explicit path can be easily defined. The nodes in the network
only need to maintain the SegmentRouting information to cope with the real-time rapid development of
the business. What are the following characteristics of Segment Routing? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. By extending the existing protocol (eg IGP), the existing network can better and smoothly evolve
o B. SR (Segment Routing) adopts IP forwarding, no additional maintenance is required for another
label forwarding table
o C. Adopting source routing technology to provide the ability to quickly exchange text between the
network and upper-layer applications
o D. Support the centralized control mode of the controller and the distributed control mode of the
transponder at the same time, and provide a balance between centralized control and distributed
control
Question 142
Question
346. The MPLS label header is encapsulated between the data link layer header and the network layer
header of the message.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 143
Question
347. If the MAC address of an interface is 0OEO-FCEF-OFEC, what is its corresponding EUI-64
address?
Answer
o A.00EO-FCEF-FFFE-OFEC
o B.02EO-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
o C.00EO-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
o D.02EO-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC
Question 144
Question
348. Which of the following description of static and dynamic routing is wrong?
Answer
o A. Dynamic routing protocols take up more system resources than static routing protocols
o B. After the link fails, the static route can automatically complete the network convergence.
o C. After the administrator deploys the dynamic routing protocol in the corporate network, later
maintenance and expansion can be more convenient
o D. Static routing is simple to configure and easy to manage when applied in the enterprise
Question 145
Question
349. Which of the following descriptions of OSPF areas are correct? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. All networks should be declared in zone 0

o B. The number of the backbone area cannot be 2
o C. Before configuring the OSPF area, an IP address must be configured for the loopback interface
of the router
o D. The number range of the area is from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255
Question 146
Question
350. The Layer 2 Ethernet switch generates entries in the MAC address table according to the ( ) of the
Ethernet frame received by the port.
Answer
o A. Source IP address
o B. Source MAC address
o C. Destination MAC address
o D. Destination IP address
Question 147
Question
351. The MAC address table of existing switches is shown in the figure. Which of the following statement
is correct?
Image:
Answer
o A. The MAC address 5489-9885-18a8 is manually configured by the administrator

o B. The MAC address 5489-9811-0b49 is manually configured by the administrator
o C. The MAC address 5489-989d-1d30 is manually configured by the administrator
o D. After the switch restarts, all MAC addresses need to be relearned
Question 148
Question
352. When the switch port sends a data frame carrying the same VLAN TAG and PVID, it must strip the
VLAN TAG and forward it.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 149
Question
353.Which of the following levels is not a common network level in mid-sized campus network
architecture?
Answer
o A. Access layer
o B. Core layer
o C. Convergence layer
o D. Network layer
Question 150
Question
354. UDP cannot guarantee the reliability of data transmission, and does not provide the functions of
message sequencing and flow control. It is suitable for flows with low transmission reliability requirements
but high transmission speed and delay requirements.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 151
Question
355. Which stage of the life cycle of campus network construction is the beginning of a project?
Answer
o A. Network optimization
o B. Network implementation
o C. Planning and design
o D. Network operation and maintenance
Question 152
Question
356. When the router is powered on, it will read the configuration file from the default storage path to
initialize the router. If there is no configuration file in the default storage path, what will the router use for
initialization?
Answer
o A. Initial configuration
o B. Current configuration
o C. New configuration
o D. Default parameters
Question 153
Question
357. In the OSPF protocol, which of the following descriptions of DR is correct? (Multiple choice) A. If the
priority values of the two routers are equal, the router with the larger Router ID is selected as the DR
Answer
o A. If the priority values of the two routers are equal, the router with the larger Router ID is selected
as the DR
o B. By default, all routers in this broadcast network will participate in the DR election
o C. If the priority values of the two routers are different, select the router with the lower priority as the
DR
o D. DR and BDR should also establish an adjacency relationship
Question 154
Question
358. Which of the following fields is not included in the HELLO packet of the OSPF protocol?
Answer
o A. Neighbor
o B.Network mask
o C.Sysname
o D.Hellointerval
Question 155
Question
359. If the network address of a network is 10.1.1.0/30, what is its broadcast address?
Answer
o A.10.1.1.2
o B.10.1.1.3
o C.10.1.1.4
o D.10.1.1.1
Question 156
Question
360. If the broadcast address of a network is 172.16.1.255, what might its network address be?
Answer
o A.172.16.2.0
o B.172.16.1.128
o C.172.16.1.1
o D.172.16.1.253
Question 157
Question
361. When the IPv4 protocol is used as the network layer protocol, which field is not included in the
network layer header?
Answer
o A. Source IPv4 address

o B. Sequence number
o C. Destination IPv4 address
o D. TTL
Question 158
Question
362. When the router forwards a data packet, if it does not match the corresponding detailed route and
there is no default route, it will directly discard the data packet.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 159
Question
363. What kind of message does the OSPF protocol use to send LSA to neighbors?
Answer
o A. LSU
o B. LSACK
o C. LSR
o D. LSA
Question 160
Question
364. Apply the ACL configured as shown in the figure in Telnet. Only the device with the IP address of
172.16.105.2 is allowed to log in remotely: # acl number 2000 rule 5 permit source 172.16.105.2 0 #
Answer
o A.True
o B.False
Question 161
Question
365. Regarding the corresponding relationship between the access control list number and type, which of
the following description is correct?
Answer
o A. The basic access control list number range is 1000-2999

o B. The access control list number range of the second layer is 4000-4999
o C. The number range of interface-based access control list is 1000-2000
o D. The range of advanced access control list numbers is 3000-4000
Question 162
Question
366. What is the number range of the Layer 2 ACL?
Answer
o A.2000-2999
o B.3000-3999
o C.4000～4999
o D.6000～6031
Question 163
Question
367. What is the destination IP address of the DHCP DISCOvER message?
Answer
o A.127.0.0.1
o B.224.0.0.1
o C.224.0.0.2
o D.255.255.255.255
Question 164
Question
368. In the history of WLAN development, which of the following is not included in the main wireless
protocol standards in the primary mobile office era?
Answer
o A.802.11g
o B.802.11a
o C.802.11b
o D.802.11ac
Question 165
Question
369. The router running the OSPF protocol can reach the FULL state after completing the LSDB
synchronization.
Answer
o A.True
o B.False
Question 166
Question
370. In order to distinguish different users and provide different network services on the AP. Which of the
following can be configured?
Answer
o A.VT
o B.VAP
o C.VAC
o D. WAP
Question 167
Question
371. Network equipment running the SNMP protocol can take the initiative to report alarm information so
that the network administrator can discover the fault in time
Answer
o True
o False
Question 168
Question
372.The IPv6 protocol uses NS and NA packets for duplicate address detection (DAD)
Answer
o True
o False
Question 169
Question
373. Which of the following descriptions are correct about the concept of IEV architecture? (Multiple
choice)
Answer
o A.MANO is composed of NFVO.VNFN and VIM.

o B.VFM. Virtual network function management, responsible for the life cycle management of VNF
o C.VIM (Virtualised Infrastructure Manager) virtual resource management, responsible for the
virtualization of infrastructure.
o D. NFVO (NEV Orchestrator) is responsible for business orchestration
Question 170
Question
374. Which of the following methods can read data non-blocking in Python's telnetlib?
Answer
o A.telnet_Read_all
o B.telnet_read_very_lazy
o C.telnet._read_eager
o D.telnet_read _very_eager
Question 171
Question
375. Regarding the control plane of the device, which of the following statements is correct? (Multiple
choice)
Answer
o A. The control plane is responsible for the interaction of routing protocols between devices
o B. The control plane provides equipment monitoring capabilities
o C. The control plane is responsible for directing data forwarding
o D. The control plane is responsible for generating the IP routing table
Question 172
Question
376. Which of the following commands can modify the device name to huawei?
Answer
o A. Hostname Huawei
o B. Sysname Huawei
o C. Rename Huawei
o D.Do name Huawei
Question 173
Question
377. Which statement is wrong about the ARP message?
Answer
o A. ARP reply packets are sent unicast

o B. Any link layer protocol requires ARP messages to assist in obtaining data link layer identification
o C. ARP packets cannot be forwarded to other broadcast domains
o D. ARP request message is sent by broadcast
Question 174
Question
378. Which of the following networks belong to a local area network? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. A home network
o B. Office network of a company
o C. Internet
o D. Broadband Metropolitan Area Network
Question 175
Question
379. Which statement about OSPF protocol DR is correct?
Answer
o A. DR must be the highest priority device in the network

o B. Router ID, the larger the value, the more preferred to be elected as DR
o C. DR election is preemptive
o D. An interface priority is 0, then the interface cannot be a DR
Question 176
Question
380. Which of the following elements are included in the routing table? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. Interface
o B. Destination/mask
o C. Nexthop
o D. Protocol
Question 177
Question
381. The following rules exist in a certain ACL of the router. rule deny tcp source 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
destination 172.16.10.1 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 21 Which statement is correct?
Answer
o A. The source IP is 192.168.1.1, the destination IP is 172.16.10.1, and all TCP packets whose
destination port number is 21 match this rule
o B. The source IP is 192.168.1.1, the destination IP is 172.16.10.2, and all 1CP packets whose
destination port number is 21 match this one
o C. The source IP of the rule is 192.168.1.1, the destination IP is 72.16.10.3. All TCP packets with
the destination port number of 21 match this rule
o D. The type of ACL is a basic ACL
Question 178
Question
382. Which of the following parameters cannot be used in the advanced visit control list?
Answer
o A. Protocol numbe
o B. Destination port number
o C. Physical interface
o D. Time range
Question 179
Question
383. In the network shown in the figure below, host A logs in to router A through Telnet, and then obtains
the configuration file of router B through FTP on the remote interface. How many TCP connections exist
on router A at this time?
Image:
Answer
o A.1
o B.2
o C.3
o D.4
Question 180
Question
384. Which type of message is used by network devices running SNMPv 1 protocol to actively send alarm
information?
Answer
o A. Trap
o B. Response
o C.Get Request
o D. Get-Next Request
Question 181
Question
385. By default, network devices running SNMPv2c protocol use which of the following port numbers to
send trap messages to the network management system?
Answer
o A.6
o B.161
o C.17
o D.162
Question 182
Question
386. Which of the following types of addresses is not included in IPv6 addresses?
Answer
o A. Anycast address
o B. Broadcast address
o C. Unicast address
o D. Multicast address
Question 183
Question
387. In the VRP interface, use the command startup saved-configuration backup.cfg. to configure the
backup.cfg file for the next startup.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 184
Question
388. Which of the following statements about Trunk port and Access port are correct?
Answer
o A. Trunk ports can only send untagged frames

o B. Access port can only send tagged frames
o C. Trunk ports can only send tagged frames
o D. Access port can only send untagged frames
Question 185
Question
389. If the Length/Type of an Ethernet data frame is 0X8100, which of the following is correct?
Answer
o A. This data frame must carry VLAN TAG

o B. There must be a UDP header in the upper layer of this data frame
o C. There must be an IP header in the upper layer of this data frame
o D. There must be a TCP header in the upper layer of this data frame
Question 186
Question
390. The two switches shown below have both enabled the STP protocol. An engineer made the following
conclusions on this network. Which conclusions do you think are correct? (Multiple choice
Image:
Answer
o A. The G0/0/3 port of SWA is stable in Forwarding state

o B. The G0/0/2 port of SWA is stable in Forwarding state
o C. Both ports of SWA are designated ports
o D. G0/0/2 port of SWB is stable in Forwarding state
Question 187
Question
391. What is the length of the Ethernet_II frame containing the Ethernet header?
Answer
o A.60-1560B
o B.46-1500B
o C.64-1500B
o D.64-1518B
Question 188
Question
392. By default, the bridge priority of Huawei switches is 32768
Answer
o True
o False
Question 189
Question
393. On the switch, which VLANs can be deleted by using the undo command? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A.vlan 4094
o B.vlan 2
o C.vlan 1
o D.vlan 1024
Question 190
Question
394.According to the command shown in the figure, which of the following description is correct? (Multiple
choice）
Image:
Answer
o A. The PVID of GigabitEthernet0/0/2 port is 1

o B. The PVID of GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port is 10
o C. The PVID of GigabitEthernet0/0/2 port is 10
o D. The PVID of GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port is 11
Question 191
Question
395.Which of the following advantages does the router-on-a-stick approach achieve routing
intercommunication between VLANs?
Answer
o A. Reduce the number of equipment

o B. Reduce routing table entries
o C. Reduce the use of IP addresses
o D. Reduce the number of chain connections
Question 192
Question
396. When the host frequently moves, which VLAN division method is most appropriate?
Answer
o A. Based on AC address division

o B. Based on strategy division
o C. Based on IP subnet division
o D. Based on port division
Question 193
Question
397. Which of the following description are wrong about the Forwarding state in the spanning tree
protocol? (Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. The port in the Forwarding state can forward data packets

o B. The port in the Forwarding state does not learn the source MAC address of the packet
o C. Ports in Forwarding state can receive BPDU packets
o D. The port in the Forwarding state will definitely send BPDU packets
Question 194
Question
398. On the VRP platform, what is the role of the command "interface vlanit <vlan-id>" ?
Answer
o A. Create a VLAN
o B. No such command
o C. Create or enter VLAN virtual interface view
o D. Configure VLAN for a port
Question 195
Question
399. The second layer ACL can match the source MAC, destination MAC, source IP, destination IP and
other information.
Answer
o A.True
o B.False
Question 196
Question
400. The configuration of the country code will affect the actual transmission frequency and maximum
transmission power.
Answer
o True
o False
Question 197
Question
401. What equipment is generally involved in the wlan deployment scheme in the enterprise scenario?
(Multiple choice)
Answer
o A. AC(Acess Controller)
o B. Poe switch
o C. CPE
o D. AP
Question 198
Question
402. The role of telnet.read_all() in Telnetlib is to read all data until EOF. If the echo does not return EOF,
it will always be blocked
Answer
o True
o False
Question 199
Question
403. In the network shown in the figure below, all routers run the OSPF protocol, and the link cost value is
shown in the figure. What is the cost value of the route entry to the network 10.0.0.0/8 in the RTA routing
table?
Image:
Answer
o A.70
o B.100
o C.20
o D.60
Question 200
Question
404. The router output information is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is wrong?
Image:
Answer
o A. The IP address of the Ethernet0/0/0 interface is 10.0.12.1/24

o B. The MTU value of the Ethgrnet0/0/0 interface is 1480
o C. The physical link of the Ethernet0/0/0 interface is normal
o D. The broadcast address corresponding to the Ethernet0/0/0 interface is 10.0.12.255

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Typical Campus Network Architectures and Practices (quiz стренажера)

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a tree network?

3. What are the functions of the firewall?

Кластер (CSS) поддерживает только два устройства. iStack может поддерживать больше устройств.

def – функция, init – инициализация объекта, class – ключевое слово для класса.

Знак @ не используется в качестве идентификаторов Python.

4. What are the advantages of Python?

5. Which of the following high-level programming languages are compilation-type?

Можно выделить три уровня языка в стеке вычислительных технологий:

8. Java and Python are interpretative languages.

D. Host A and Host B can communicate in both directions

A. Divide VLAN based on port

B. Divide VLAN based on MAC address

C. Divide VLAN based on subnet

D. Divide VLAN based on protocol

Which statement about OSPF protocol DR is correct?

A. DR election is preemptive

B. An interface priority is 0, then the interface cannot be a DR

C. DR must be the highest priority device in the network

B. Configure VLAN for a port

C. Create or enter VLAN virtual interface view

D. No such command

The link aggregation interface can only be used as a Layer 2 interface.

A. FC00 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC

B. 2000 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC

C. FF02 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC

D. FE80 :: 2E0 : FCFF : FEEF : FEC

Which of the following types of addresses is not included in IPv6 addresses?

B. Direct routing,OSPF,RIP,Static routing

C. Direct routing,Static routing,RIP,OSPF

D. Direct routing,RIP,Static routing,OSPF

SNMPv1 defines 5 protocol operations.

A. No keyword found

B. Input command is not clear

C. Wrong parameter type

D. The input command is incomplete

C. Operating system name

B. Fragmentation extension header

C. Destination option extension header

D. Hop-by-hop option extension header

A. The IP address of the interface is 10.0.12.2/24

B. The working rate of this interface is 1Gbps

C. The MTU value of this interface is 1000

D. The MAC address of the interface is 00e0-fc22-4fff

A. The destination IP address of the Echo Reply message

C. Interface for sending Echo Request messages

D. The source IP address of the Echo Request message

The function of 0SPF hello message is (). (Multiple Choice)

A. Synchronize the LSDB of the router

C. Maintain neighbor relations

D. Update LSA information

A. Use telnet.Telnet (host) to connect to the Telnet server.

D. Telnetlib can achieve this function

B. Equal cost routing

What address does 192.168.1.127/25 represent?

B. Hybrid port only receives data frames with VLAN TAG

D. Hybrid port does not require PVID

A. Host A and Host B cannot communicate in both directions

A. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 32 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0

B. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.1

C. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 0 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0

D. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2

AC uses CAPWAP control tunnel to transmit management messages to FIT AP.

A. G0/0/2 and FE0/0/3