INDEX

Foreword��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������� iii
Acknowledgement��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������v
Preface��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������vi
Why this Book?����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������vii
What the book consists of and how it helps����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������� viii

Part A

Chapter 1. Introduction to the examination ������������������������������������������������������������������������������� 1-9

1.1 Eligibility for the examination���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������1
1.2 Plan of examination ������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������3
1.3 CSE number of seats and cut off �����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������5
1.4 IFS number of seats and cut off�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������7
Chapter 2. Macro-view : Subjects and Roles��������������������������������������������������������������������������� 10-21
2.1 Official Prelims Syllabus���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������10
2.2 General composition of Prelims paper������������������������������������������������������������������������������� 11
2.3 Trends in 7 Subjects�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������12
2.4 Role of Subjects�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������14
2.5 Syllabus completion calculator������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������20
Chapter 3. Micro-view : Heads, Themes and Trends ������������������������������������������������������������� 22-45
3.1 History�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������25
3.2 Geography��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������28
3.3 Polity����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������31
3.4 Economy����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������34
3.5 Environment�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������37
3.6 Science�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������38
3.7 Current Affairs�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������43
Chapter 4. Questions in UPSC Prelims������������������������������������������������������������������������������������ 46-60
4.1 Type of questions asked in Prelims������������������������������������������������������������������������������������46
4.2 Attempting the questions���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������52
4.3 Exam temperament������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������55
 Part B (PYQs with detailed explanations)

Chapter 5. Introduction to part B ���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������61-62

Chapter 6. History���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������63-126
6.1 Ancient History������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������66
6.2 Medieval History���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������72
6.3 Religious beliefs����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������80
6.4 Culture�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������87
6.5 Modern History����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������100
6.6 Post-independence�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������125
Chapter 7. Geography �����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������127-190
7.1 Physical Geography���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������129
7.2 Indian Geography������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������140
7.3 India Mapping������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������145
7.4 World Mapping����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������154
7.5 Agriculture�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������160
7.6 Energy������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������176
7.7 Human Geography�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������185
Chapter 8. Polity����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������191-248
8.1  Preamble Schedules & Part 3, 4, 4A�������������������������������������������������������������������������������193
8.2 Executive�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������203
8.3 Legislature�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������208
8.4 Judiciary���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������217
8.5 Part 9 to 20 of the Constitution����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������224
8.6  Bodies������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������232
8.7  Philosophical, amendments and judgements�������������������������������������������������������������������239
Chapter 9. Economy����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������249-296
9.1 Basics�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������251
9.2 Fiscal policy & Government budgeting���������������������������������������������������������������������������256
9.3   Monetary policy & Inflation��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������266
9.4 Banking����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������275
9.5 Finance & investment������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������283
9.6 External sector�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������290
Chapter 10. Environment���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������297-358
10.1   Theory������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������299
10.2 Environmental problems and solutions����������������������������������������������������������������������������307
 10.3   International initiatives����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������323
10.4 National initiatives�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������336
10.5 Protected areas and Conservation sites����������������������������������������������������������������������������345
10.6 Species�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������351
Chapter 11. Science�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������359-396
11.1   General Science���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������361
11.2 Space, Communications and Defence�����������������������������������������������������������������������������367
11.3 Health�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������377
11.4 Emerging technologies and research areas����������������������������������������������������������������������385
Chapter 12. Current affairs�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������397-446
12.1  National initiatives�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������400
12.2 International initiatives����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������423
12.3 Indices and reports�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������439
12.4 Sporadically asked factual themes�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������443

Part C
Chapter 13. Thematic futher suggested readings�������������������������������������������������������������������447-468
Chapter 14. Simplified themes��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������469-515
History
14.1 NCM, CDM and QIM comparison����������������������������������������������������������������������������������471
14.2 Major acts before independence��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������472
Geography
14.3 Rainfall pattern, Vegetation and Soil types in India��������������������������������������������������������474
14.4 Major rivers and dams of India����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������476
14.5 States, UTs, neighbouring countries and their borders����������������������������������������������������478
14.6 Biogeographic zones and biodiversity spots of India������������������������������������������������������480
14.7 World Heritage Site in India��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������481
Polity
14.8 Constitutional bodies ������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������482
14.9 Non-Constitutional Bodies����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������483
14.10 Different types of Majorities in the Constitution and their application areas �����������������484
14.11 Removal of President, Vice President and Supreme Court/ High Court Judges�������������486
14.12 Removal of Presiding Officers of the Parliament������������������������������������������������������������487
14.13 Participants in President's election and President's removal �������������������������������������������487
14.14 Keywords and their mention in the constitution �������������������������������������������������������������488
14.15 Different provision in the Constitution for specific sections�������������������������������������������489
14.16 Classification of DPSP into Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal.�����������������������������������������490
 Economy
14.17 Budget profile of India and relative idea of numbers������������������������������������������������������491
14.18 Economy at a glance��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������492
14.19 Macro view of India's trade���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������492
14.20 Budgetary deficits simplified�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������493
Environment
Protected areas and Conservation sites in India ��������������������������������������������������������������494
14.21 Biosphere Reserves in India��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������496
14.22 Ramsar sites in India��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������498
14.23 Tiger Reserves and National Parks in India���������������������������������������������������������������������501
14.23. a Eastern States/UTs��������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������502
14.23. b Central States/UTs �������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������503
14.23. c Western States/UTs ������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������504
14.23. d Northern States/UTs ����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������505
14.23. e Southern States/UTs ����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������506
Science
14.24 Blood and Plasma������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������508
Current Affairs
14.25 Sustainable development goals���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������� 511
14.26 Ministries and Departments of the Government of India �����������������������������������������������514
Chapter 15. CSAT����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������516-526
15.1 Syllabus and exam pattern�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������517
15.2 Understanding Subjects���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������517
15.3 Distribution of questions and trend����������������������������������������������������������������������������������518
15.4 Trends������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������521
15.5 Action plan for CSAT preparation�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������521
15.6 Pointers for CSAT preparation�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������523
15.7 Action plan for attempting the paper�������������������������������������������������������������������������������523
Chapter 16. UPSC Optional Selection�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������527-528
16.1 Optional subjects in UPSC exam�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������527
16.2 CSE optional selection�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������528
16.3 IFS optional selection������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������528
Annexure - I UPSC official answer keys since 2011���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������529
Annexure - II Abbreviations�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������532
Annexure -III Themes appearing across subjects/heads�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������533
Annexure - IV Mains syllabus Simplified����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������535
Annexure - V Prelims 2022 analysis�����������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������539
Annexure -VI Thematic syllabus of UPSC Prelims������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������546
Annexure-VII Head-wise division of the Prelims syllabus�������������������������������������������������������������������������������548
This page is intentionally left blank
 Prelims 2022 Analysis The Unique Academy

Annexure -V : Prelims 2022 Analysis

Contents
General overview . .............................................................................................................................539
Prelims 2022 analysis and way ahead ........................................................................................................540
Smart preparation through PYQ
1. Repeated questions from PYQ.........................................................................................................540
2. Direct help by PYQ Questions and explanations.............................................................................540
3. Indirect help by PYQ Questions and explanations...........................................................................541
Smart examination through structured thinking and intelligent guessing
4. Relatively unheard concepts.............................................................................................................541
5. Studied concepts with non-prepared aspects....................................................................................542
Other Observations
6. Thematic story continues..................................................................................................................542
7. Current based static questions..........................................................................................................543
8. Overlapping questions......................................................................................................................543
9. Due importance is paid . ..................................................................................................................543
10. Change is not always tough – New pair type questions in 2022......................................................543
11. Simplified themes helped..................................................................................................................544
12. 3 Step approach................................................................................................................................544
13. Concluding remarks..........................................................................................................................544
Prelims 2022 statistics
14. Headwise division of Prelims paper...............................................................................................545
15. Thematic division of paper.............................................................................................................545

General overview
Despite increasing competition, cut off for Prelims examination is decreasing since 2016 (exception 2019, constant).
Prelims 2022 is also another thread in this story.

CSE Prelims cut off since 2016

(This is just demonstration, for all categories cut off trend, refer chapter 1)

Prelims Simplified 1
 The Unique Academy Prelims 2022 Analysis

What are the various factors, which are making cut off decrease year on year? May be
33 Untouched areas being explored by UPSC
33 Lengthier statements in questions and options
33 Increasing number of bouncer type questions
33 New pair type option in 2022 for 7 questions?
33 Dropping of questions while preparing results (2 in 2020 & 1 in 2021)
However, despite above factors, there is a ray of hope, as things are largely the same:
33 Repetition of questions (5 in 2021 & 2 in 2022)
33 Many questions are completely/partially solvable by smart skills (15 fully and 4 partly in Prelims 2022)
33 Answer of many questions found in PYQ statements/explanations
33 Many questions directly asked from Simplified themes/Further suggested readings
33 3 step approach (Basics, cover gap areas & smart skills) is still applicable
This analysis is an attempt to reflect the changing/static nature of Prelims paper with observations from Prelims
2022, so that aspirants brace up well for next Prelims. Observations have been supplemented with examples from
Prelims 2022 paper. E.g. Cripps mission [22/54] means question number 54 in Set A of Prelims 2022, which was based
on Cripps Mission. To find the question in the book, get the theme number from table at the end of this analysis. For
more examples and detailed inputs, kindly solve the 2022 Prelims questions in this book and refer explanations.
It is a humble submission that this book has been authored mainly to help aspirants; devoid of guidance, to strategise
their preparation so that they PREPARE SMARTLY and ATTEMPT EXAMINATION SMARTLY. Questions solvable
directly from previous editions may be mere coincidence, but the discrete approaches (in preparation as well as exam)
suggested in this book should be the key takeaways.

PRELIMS 2022 ANALYSIS AND WAY AHEAD

Author believes that SMART PREPARATION and SMART EXAMINATION are two mandatory components
of success in Prelims. This analysis first covers these two aspects and then moves to other observations. In all the
observations, examples from Prelims 2022 paper have been provided for demonstration.

Smart preparation through PYQ

1. Repeated questions from PYQ
In Prelims 2022, two questions were repeated from earlier prelims papers.
1. 22/100 – Acid rain question repeat of concept in 13/30
2. 22/75 – Central Ground water authority repeat of statement 2 of 20/98
This is less in number, compared with 5 questions in 2021 Prelims, Still freebies are free and it's good even if we
get one.
2. Direct help by PYQ Questions and explanations
Fully solvable (+2 marks)
Question number in
Sl No. Question topic Solution by
2022 Prelims Set A
Longest day of Northern
1. 22/29 hint in PYQ explanation - page 133, 3rd edition
hemisphere
2. 22/68 RBI controlling inflation hint in PYQ explanation - page 320, 3rd edition
3. 22/47 Mahseer fish hint lies in PYQ - page 420, 3rd edition

2 Prelims Simplified
 Prelims 2022 Analysis The Unique Academy

Partially solvable
Question number in
Sl No. Question topic Solution by
2022 Prelims Set A
1. 22/57 First invasion of Mughals hint in PYQ statement - page 59, 3rd edition
2. 22/54 Cripps mission question hint in PYQ explanation - page 98, 3rd edition
3. 22/22 System of Rice intensification hint in PYQ explanation - page 172, 3rd edition
4. 22/17 AGI question hint in PYQ explanation - page 267, 3rd edition
5. 22/09 Capital expenditure hint in PYQ explanation - page 308, 3rd edition

3. Indirect help by PYQ Questions and explanations

This book advises thematic approach to cover PYQ in progressive way and to align preparation to requirement of
UPSC on daily basis. This also helps to understand what type of information/concepts is to be processed and what type
of it are to be just glanced through.
Below are some examples:
33 In 2018 Prelims [18/13], UPSC asked if Aral sea dried up immensely in recent past? Hence, it is expected
that you try to know about such events while covering current affairs.
33 In 2022 Prelims [22/23], UPSC asked if Lake Faguibine dried up and turned into a desert?
33 In 2015 Prelims [15/57], UPSC asked if India is a member of APEC, ASEAN and East Asia Summit?
Hence, it is expected that you try to know about India being a member, while covering any international
organization/grouping.
33 In 2022 Prelims [22/66], UPSC asked if India is a member of AIIB, MTCR, SCO ?

Smart examination through structured thinking and intelligent guessing

In the present era of Prelims, it is really difficult to sail through Prelims just on the basis of concepts studied from
standard books. Smart skills of structured thinking and intelligent guessing, acquired by practice comes for the rescue
in such cases.
4. Relatively unheard concepts
In recent Prelims, UPSC has been touching new unheard areas (unavailable in any book), which make the paper
tougher. However, as highlighted earlier, there is ray of hope since many of them are solvable through smart skills
including structured thinking and intelligent guessing. Below is the list of such questions from Prelims 2022. (For in
depth understanding of approach, refer questions and detailed explanations in the book)
Examples from Prelims 2022 paper:
Fully solvable (+2 marks)
Question number in
Sl No. Question topic Solution by
2022 Prelims Set A
1. 22/28 Monazite question Statement feasibility approach
2. 22/72 Coal controller organisation Option statement combination approach
3. 22/05 Inflation indexed bonds Etymology approach
4. 22/40 Solar flare effects Statement feasibility approach
PYQ knowledge + statement combinations
5. 22/42 Under2 coalition & EP100
approach
6. 22/36 Short range devices Etymology approach
7. 22/99 DNA barcoding Parallelism approach
8. 22/33 SaaS Example approach
9. 22/35 Qubit Etymology approach

Prelims Simplified 3
 The Unique Academy Prelims 2022 Analysis

10. 22/69 Non Fungible Tokens Statements consistency approach

11. 22/67 Vietnam growth Statements combination approach
Partially solvable (+2 marks)
Question number in
Sl No. Question topic Solution by
2022 Prelims Set A
1. 22/48 Nitrogen fixing plants Statements combination approach
2. 22/46 Polyethylene terephthalate Statements wording approach
5. Studied concepts with non-prepared aspects
There may be some concepts which one would have covered in Prelims preparation. But, the question asked in the
actual examination may be having some different aspect of the particular concept. In such questions also, smart skills
play important role in getting +2 marks.
Examples from Prelims 2022 paper:
Fully solvable (+2 marks)
Question number in
Sl No. Question topic Solution by
2022 Prelims Set A
Reserved and transferred
1. 22/51 Statement feasibility approach
subjects in 1919 act
2. 22/43 Rainforests, kidney question Parallelism approach
3. 22/98 Nanoparticles Common sense approach
4. 22/19 Ayushman bharat Feasibility approach
Partially solvable
Question number in
Sl No. Question topic Solution by
2022 Prelims Set A
1. 22/93 Sangam literature Paper setter mind approach
2. 22/11 Contempt of court provisions Statements combination approach
Other observations
6. Thematic story continues
Individual papers may look out of turn. But, a holistic view of Prelims over the years draws a story that could be
useful in preparation. Covering syllabus through PYQs helps understand this thematic story. This story is expected to
continues in the upcoming Prelims, and the questions asked will from the next thread in the story.
At first glance, Prelims 2022 paper may look a bit undoable. But, if you prepare thematically, you will find that
UPSC had been forming a story from 2011-21 and 2022 Prelims paper was just the next thread in the story. A general
trend is that first UPSC asks about a very basic aspect about a topic, then moves towards detailed provisions, and then
towards multiple statements checking in depth concepts related the same.
Below are some examples from Prelims 2022 paper for the same.

33 In 2019 Prelims [19/73], UPSC asked if BBB selects PSB chairman

33 In 2022 Prelims [22/64], UPSC asked detailed provisions regarding BBB

33 In 2016 Prelims [16/39], UPSC asked who deciphered Ashokan edicts.

33 In 2020 Prelims [20/30], UPSC asked statement from edict and to identify rulers.
33 In 2022 Prelims [22/91], UPSC asked to match rock edicts with location.

4 Prelims Simplified
 Prelims 2022 Analysis The Unique Academy

Wildlife protection act question-

33 In 2017 Prelims [17/91], UPSC asked what inclusion in schedule I implies?
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/81], UPSC asked what inclusion in schedule VI implies?
33 In 2022 Prelims [22/89], detailed provisions about the act has been asked.

7. Current based static questions

Analysis of Prelims papers (2011 onwards) suggest that UPSC is interested in static feature of Current affairs.
Questions from Prelims 2022 also indicate the same. Hence, one should refer to static portion in basic book or make
BRIEF internet search to cover such concepts. Else, annual compilation of any good institute may also be referred.
Examples from Prelims 2022-
33 22/96 – Somnath temple question, is conected to circuit house inauguration by PM
33 22/95- Ramanuja question, is conected to statue inauguration by PM
Even description of questions in the exam paper mentioned that in reference to inauguration by PM…..

8. Overlapping questions
UPSC aspirants are expected to prepare concepts including their overlap in other subjects. They should not keep the
subjects in silos, they should interrelate concepts within the subject, across the subjects as well as across the stages of
examination (Prelims, Mains and Interview).
Examples of such overlapping questions from Prelims 2022 are as below:
33 Prelims 2022 question on Location of peaks and mountains [22/25], Overlap of Environment (Biosphere
reserves) and Geography subjects
33 Prelims 2022 question on Senkaku islands [22/86], overlap of International relations and Geography
subjects.
This overlap is observed more in mapping section of Geography.
9. Due importance is paid
Text extract from 1st edition of Prelims Simplified.
Blood and Plasma - This theme may look a bit technical, not normally asked theme in UPSC. However, due to recent
COVID 19 crisis, plasma donation, race for vaccine, talk on immunity etc, it is advised that one knows these basics.
Since, it is not normally available in source book at one place, hence it is being provided here.
In 2022 Prelims, UPSC asked a detailed question on COVID 19 vaccines [22/39] and another question on B and T
cell [22/97]. If something big (like COVID, Russia Ukraine war etc) happens around, there is a good chance that UPSC
will ask about static aspect of the same, in this year, next year or later.
10. Change is not always tough – New pair type questions in 2022
Whenever something new is asked in UPSC examination, there is a tendency to label it as tough. Afterall, when it is
difficult, you need guidance, when you need guidance, then only you will pay and there are several businesses waiting
for the same.
In Prelims 2022, 7 questions were asked (3 in History, 3 in Geography and 1 in Environment), where following
options were provided. How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
This type of option was not given anytime before in Prelims papers. There is a disadvantage that in previous type
of questions, [like 1 & 2 only], pair combinations help in elimination of options. But, there is an advantage in this type
also. You do not have to mark a perticular pair as correct or incorrect. Instead you can mark the probability of each pair
being correct. Suppose you are 50% -50% about in/correctness of Pairs 1 and 3. - 100% sure that. Pair 2 is correct and
Pair 4 is incorrect.
Here, you go, mathematically you mark only two pairs as the answer. (1 for pair 2 and another for anyone of 1 and

Prelims Simplified 5
 The Unique Academy Prelims 2022 Analysis

3).
Mathematically, you have a high probability to get the correct answer, without actually knowing if 1 and 3 are
correct or not., This was not possible in previous pair type options. Hence, you are suggested to take anything new
in Prelims paper with a calm and composed mind, apply logic and go ahead. Also, if it is tough, it is tough for all.
Remember that it is relative exam.
11. Simplified themes helped
In Simplified themes chapter of the book, tabular, flowchart and mapped representation of complicated themes
have been provided. They cover the topic in holistic way and help in answering questions. Aspirants have been ad-
vised to smartly prepare their own simplified representation for other themes.
Examples of help from Simplified themes in Prelims 2022
Question number in
Sl No. Question topic Hint by
2022 Prelims Set A
Location of peaks and Simplified theme on Biosphere reserves - page
1. 22/25
mountains 429, 3rd edition
Simplified theme on Rivers and dams - page
2. 22/70 Reservoirs and states
206, 3rd edition
Simplified theme on Ramsar sites - page 430, 3rd
3. 22/30 Wetland/lake and location
edition
Simplified theme on Blood and Plasma - page
4. 22/97 B and T cell question
487, 3rd edition
It has been demonstrated here to show applicability of simplifying these relatively bulky themes smartly.

12. 3 Step approach

3 Step approach to clear cut off is very well applicable.
The book suggests the following 3 steps for Prelims Preparation. This was very well applicable in Prelims
2020/2021 and now 2022 paper.
 Cover basic books with an understanding of what to prepare and what to leave. This understanding will
be developed by solving thematic PYQs in this book along with syllabus coverage.
 Fill up gap areas in preparation through PYQs coverage and Further suggested readings. Read more
about correct/incorrect options and around the question terms.
 Develop structured thinking and intelligent guessing skills through explanations in this book. Also,
develop exam temperament through inputs in section 3.3 of this book as well as your own learnings every
day. Apply these learnings in the exam hall.

13. Concluding remarks

It does not matter how tough the paper is, what matters is the smart study and smart application of mind in the exam
hall. After all, it is a RELATIVE EXAM:
It is the summary of all the above observations. Plan well, monitor your preparations well with the help of this book,
learn from your mistakes and you will be through. ‘The theory of relativity’ works here:
 In the preparation stage, just keep yourself aligned and keep improving every day, to be where you want
to be. Check if your approach towards study, concepts etc is getting better relative to the previous day.
 In the exam hall, just raise your head once and look around, you will find many perplexed faces. What
will take you through is your exam temperament and calm, composed smart approach relative to others.

6 Prelims Simplified
 Prelims 2022 Analysis The Unique Academy

Prelims 2022 statistics

14. Headwise division of Prelims paper

There are a total of 40 heads in Prelims syllabus.
UPSC Prelims paper of 2022 touched a total of 37 heads and it can be said to be relatively balanced paper than
2020 and 2021, where paper touched 35 and 33 heads respectively. Head-wise number of questions has been indicated
in chapter 3. Some prominent heads are mentioned as below (arranged in decreasing order to show their relative
importance in Prelims papers, Numbers in bracket indicate the number of questions asked in Prelims 2022)
In Prelims 2022 –
International initiatives (9) Culture (5)
Environmental problems and solutions (8) Fiscal policy and Government budgeting (4)
World mapping (6) Modern History (4)
Emerging technologies and research areas (5) Medieval History* (4)
These 8 heads consisted 45% of Prelims 2020 paper.
*Medieval History head includes questions based on terminology also. Refer theme H11 for details.
15. Thematic division of paper
There are a total of 200 themes in Prelims syllabus.
UPSC Prelims paper of 2022 touched a total of 75 themes. Theme-wise questions have been placed in the respective
subject chapters. Below are the question numbers of 2022 Prelims set A and their thematic division with answer key.
Question Theme Ans Question Theme Ans Question Theme Ans Question Theme Ans Question Theme Ans
number number number number number
1 C19 B 21 Env 9 B 41 Env 17 A 61 Eco 16 A 81 G4 D
2 Eco 16 C 22 G26 D 42 Env 14 B 62 G27 C 82 C23 C
3 Eco 8 B 23 G23 B 43 Env 1 D 63 Eco 10 B 83 C23 C
4 C19 C 24 G22 C 44 C27 B 64 Eco 10 B 84 G32 B
5 Eco 13 A 25 G19 B 45 Env 27 C 65 Eco 13 C 85 C17 D
6 Eco 13 B 26 G23 A 46 Env 11 A 66 C21 D 86 G23 B
7 Eco 2 A 27 G24 C 47 Env 28 A 67 C22 C 87 G24 C
8 Eco 5 D 28 G36 B 48 Env 2 A 68 Eco 8 D 88 G24 B
9 Eco 4 A 29 G1 B 49 Env 7 A 69 S16 A 89 Env 19 A
10 Eco 3 C 30 Env 24 B 50 Env 7 C 70 G22 C 90 Env 1 A
11 P16 B 31 C8 D 51 H27 C 71 C11 C 91 H3 B
12 P18 B 32 S16 D 52 H8 B 72 P31 A 92 H4 B
13 P26 B 33 S15 D 53 H25 D 73 P1 A 93 H5 B
14 P9 B 34 S9 C 54 H24 B 74 Env 21 B 94 H17 A
15 P22 B 35 S16 B 55 H17 B 75 Env 18 C 95 H18 A
16 P24 B 36 S7 D 56 H17 C 76 C17 A 96 H12 A
17 P30 D 37 S11 D 57 H6 B 77 C30 A 97 S3 D
18 P2 C 38 S11 C 58 H8 D 78 C17 D 98 Env 9 D
19 C4 B 39 S10 B 59 H20 B 79 P31 D 99 S13 D
20 P10 A 40 Env 12 C 60 H17 D 80 Env 6 A 100 Env 9 B

Free pdf document of Prelims 2020 and Prelims 2021 analysis (from 2nd and 3rd edition respectively) can be
downloaded from www.prelimssimplified.com.

Prelims Simplified 7
History
 History
H 3 - Mauryan and Post Mauryan
PYQs
1. Consider the following pairs: [22/91]
Site of Ashoka's Location in
major rock edicts the State of
1. Dhauli – Odisha
2. Erragudi – Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada – Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi – Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. There are 4 types of Ashokan edicts:
33 Minor Pillar Edicts
33 Minor Rock Edicts
33 Major Pillar Edicts
33 Major Rock Edicts.
Major rock edicts are located even outside India
i.e., Afghanistan (Kandhar) and Pakistan (Hazara).
In India they are located in all parts Viz.
yy Northern part - Uttarakhand (Kalsi) Pair 4 R
yy In Southern part - Andhra Pradesh (Erragudi)
Pair 2 T and Karnataka (Sannati)
yy Eastern part - Orissa (Dhauli & Jaugada) Pair
1 R and Pair 3 T
yy Western part - Gujarat (Junagadh) &
Maharashtra (Sopara)
Hence, option (b) Only two pairs is the answer.
H 4 - Gupta and Post Gupta
PYQs
1. Consider the following pairs: [22/92]
King Dynasty
1. Nannuka – Chandela
2. Jayashakti – Paramara
3. Nagabhata II – Gurjara-Prathihara
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
4. Bhoja – Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1.  Chandella dynasty was founded by Nannuka
in 9th Century. He established his capital at
Kharjjuravahaka (Khajuraho). Jayashakti also
belonged to Chandela Dynasty Pair 1 R &
Pair 2 T
33 Nagabhatta II and Bhoja both were kings of
Gurjara−Pratiharas dynasty. Pair 3 R & Pair
4T
Hence, option (b) Only two pairs is the answer.
H 5 - South (including Vijaynagar)
PYQs
1. Which one of the following statements about
Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
[22/93]
(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference
to material culture.
(b) The social classification of Varna was known
to Sangam poets.
(c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior
ethic.
(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces
as irrational.
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. The meaning of term Sangam is assembly of
Tamil poets. It is believed that three Sangams were
convened all under the patronage of the Pandya
kings of Madurai. Regarding Sangam literature,
option (b) is the answer.
– Just think what is available to a Prelims paper
setter. A History book, which would be describing
that xyz civilization was aware of abc technique.
9
 The Unique Academy
Generally, books will not consist statements such
as – xyz civilization were devoid of any reference
to abc. If they are part of question statements,
try pondering upon how much the paper setter
has to research, to be 100% sure that any series
of poem had no reference warrior ethics. Now,
observe options (a) and (c). They can be negated
by this approach. This approach is a bit risky and
aspirants are advised to use it wisely, and only
for supplementing, what they have studied. Also,
refer H1 – 13/45 to understand non applicability
of this approach.
Note – Though Sangam age belongs to Ancient
History, it has been put in H5 to keep all questions
related to Southern kingdom at one place. Check
the terms related to Sangam including tippayadal,
enadi, arasar, kadaisiyar, Aṇaṅku etc. Also, take
correct statements of this PYQ as concepts.
H 6 - Sultanate
PYQs
1. With reference to Indian history, consider the
following statements: [22/57]
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened
during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one
Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and
besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost
portions of north-west of his kingdom to
Mongols.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. Chengez Khan invaded India during the reign of
Iltumish for the first time. He was the founder
and first Great Khan of the Mongol Empire.
St.1. T
2. St.2 R
10
History
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq defeated the Mongols
and he had not lost any of the portions of his
kingdom to them. St.3 T
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Thread - Refer previous question. With the
knowledge of correctness of statement 1 in 21/38,
statement 1 is this question (22/57) could be
negated, effectively eliminating 2 options (a&c).
Another benefit of PYQ and explanations from
this book.
- One should try to understand timeline of
various dynasties, main events of Indian History.
You should not take it, as if you have to remember
a particular ruler ruled from 695 AD to 722 AD.
A general idea of chronology with major events
will suffice.
H 8 - Terminologies and Miscellaneous
PYQs
1. In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:
[22/52]
(a) Clothing (b) Coins
(c) Ornaments (d) Weapons
2. With reference to Indian history, who of the
following were known as "Kulah- Daran"?
[22/58]
(a) Arab merchants (b) Qalandars
(c) Persian calligraphists (d) Sayyids
Ans Key - 1-B | 2-D
Explanations
1. Coins were called by popular names such as: anna,
cash, dhinglo, dokdo, doudou, dub, escudo, fanam,
faruqi, karshapara, kas, kon, mohur, naya paisa,
pagoda, panam, pice, pie, rupia, suvarna, tanga,
and tanka. The fanam was a small coin used in
south India between the 9th and 19th centuries.
These small gold coins weighed as little as 0.3
grams and had a diameter of less than a centimetre.
Hence option (b) Coins is the correct answer.
2. Kulah means a pointed cap and Sayyids were
called ‘Kulah Daran’ during Delhi sultanate.
Hence, option (d) Sayyids is the answer. They
Prelims Simplified
 History
were claimed to descent from the Prophet through
his daughter Fatima and commanded special
respect in Muslim society. It is called that Timur
protected the life of Sayyids during his invasion
in India, despite having policy of slaughter.
H 12 - Architecture and Sculpture
(including temple architecture)
PYQs
1. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new
Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval.
Which of the following statements are correct
regarding Somnath Temple? [22/96]
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga
shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given
by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple
(installation of the present day temple) was
done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation
of the present day temple) was done by India’s
first President Dr. Rajendra Prasad. St. 3 T Rest
statements are correct. Hence, option (a) 1 and 2
only is the answer.
Additional info –
12 Jyotirlinga are situated in 8 states as below:
33 Northern part: UK – Kedarnath, UP - Viswanath
(Varanasi)
33 Southern part: AP- Mallikarjuna (Srisailam), TN
– Rameshwar
33 Eastern part: JH – Vaijyanath (Deoghar)
33 Western part: GJ – Somnath, MH – Bhimashankar
(Pune), Tryambakeshwar (Nashik), Aundha
Nagnath, Grushneshwar (Aurangabad)
33 Central part: MP - Mahakaleswar (Ujjain),
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
Omkareshwar (Khandwa)
Regarding Somnath temple/Prathasa Pattana, it
is situated on west coast of Kathiawar. Literal
meaning of Somnath is “the protector of moon
god”. It is known as the “shrine external” as
temple has been rebuilt after getting destroyed
six times. It finds mention in Rigveda. Al- Beruni
has written about the temple.
H 17 - Literature and Language
PYQs
1. With reference to Indian history, consider the
following texts: [22/55]
1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Which of the above are Jaina texts?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
2. With reference to Indian history, consider the
following pairs: [22/56]
Historical person Known as
1. Aryadeva – Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga – Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni – Vaishnava scholar
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) None of the pairs (b) Only one pair
(c) Only two pairs (d) All three pairs
3. According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of
the following are correct? [22/60]
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a
judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she
was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered
by her master, the son was entitled to the
legal status of the master's son.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
11
 The Unique Academy
4. "Yogavasistha" was translated into Persian by
Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of: [22/94]
(a) Akbar (b) Humayun
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
Ans Key - 1-B | 2-C | 3-D | 4-A
Explanations
1. 1. Nettipakarana is a Buddhist scripture with
methods from Buddha's disciple Kaccana. St.1
T status of the master's son. St.2 R & St. 3 R.
2. Parishishtaparvan/Sthaviravalicharitra is
a 12th-century Sanskrit mahakavya by
Hemachandra, which details the histories of
the earliest Jain teachers. St. 2 R
3. The Avadanashataka or "Century of Noble
Deeds" is an anthology in Sanskrit of one
hundred Buddhist legends, approximately
dating to the same time as the Ashokavadana. It
deals with stories and tales related to Buddha.
St. 3 T
4. Mahapurana or Trishashthilkshana
Mahapurana is a major Jain text composed
largely by "Acharya" Jinasena during the
rule of Rashtrakuta ruler Amoghavarsha
and completed by his pupil Gunabhadra in
the 9th century CE. Mahapurana consists of
two parts. The first part is Adi purana written
by "Acharya" Jinasena. The second part is
Uttarapurana which is the section composed
by Gunabhadra. St. 4 R
Hence, option (b) 2 and 4 only is the answer.
2. 1. Āryadeva (3rd century), was a Mahayana
Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and
a Madhyamaka philosopher. He is a central
figure in the development of early Indian
Madhyamaka philosophy. Pair 1 T
2. Dignaga was the early 6th century Indian
Buddhist Monk and was also the founder of
Indian logic, Hetu Vidya. He was born in
Simhavakta near Kanchipuram. Pair 2 R
3. Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as
Sriman Nathamuni, was a Vaishnava theologian
who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya
12
History
Prabandham. Pair 3 R
Hence, option (c) Only two pairs is the answer.
3. The Arthashastra states that a man could be a slave
either by birth, by voluntarily selling himself, by
being captured in war, or as a result of a judicial
punishment. St.1 R. Slavery was a recognized
institution and the legal relationship between
master and slave was clearly defined e.g. if a
female slave bore her master a son, not only was
she legally free but the child was entitled to legal
Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
4. YogaVasistha, Hindu spiritual text by Valmiki on
Rama, was translated into Persian multiple times
throughout the Mughal Dynasty, as commanded
by Akbar, Jahangir, and Darah Shikuh. Nizam al-
Din Panipati completed one of these translations,
known as the Jug-Basisht, in the late sixteenth
century AD. Hence, option (a) Akbar is the answer
H 18 - Schools of philosophy
PYQs
1. The World's second tallest statue in sitting pose of
Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister
of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the
following statements correctly represents the
teachings of Ramanuja? [22/95]
(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly
authoritative.
(c) Logical arguments were essential means for
the highest bliss.
(d) Salvation was to be obtained through
mediation.
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. Sri Ramanujacharya was born in Tamil Nadu in the
11th century and he was deeply influenced by the
Alvars (Vishnu worshippers) and according to him
the best means of attaining salvation was through
intense devotion to Vishnu. He propounded the
Prelims Simplified
 History
doctrine of Vishishtadvaita or qualified oneness.
Option (a) is the answer.
Additional info - A 216-feet tall ‘Statue of
Equality commemorating Sri Ramanujacharya
has been inaugurated at Hyderabad, marking the
1000th birth anniversary of the Saint. The statue
is made of ‘panchaloha’, a combination of five
metals: gold, silver, copper, brass, and zinc and is
among one of the tallest metallic statues in sitting
position, in the world. Again, static concept of
current affairs has been asked in this question.
Whenever you read current affairs, go back to
your book/source and cover static portion, if not
covered.
Timeline
H 20 - Pre 1857
PYQs
1. With reference to Indian history, consider the
following statements: [22/59]
1. The Dutch established their factories/
warehouses on the east coast on lands
granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from
the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established
a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased
from a representative of the Vijayangara
empire.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. The Dutch founded their first factory in
Masaulipatam in Andhra Pradesh in 1605,
whereas Gajapati rulers ruled areas over
Odisha, Andhra, Bengal, Madhya Pradesh
and Jharkhand during 15th & 16th century.
Dynasty declined in 1541 and last ruler was
Kakharua Deva. St.1T
2. St.2 R & St. 3 R
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
Timeline
H 20 - Pre 1857
PYQs
1. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission,
consider the following statements: [22/54]
1. The Constituent Assembly would have
members nominated by the Provincial
Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to
accept the new Constitution would have
the right to sign a separate agreement with
Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. As per Cripps mission:
1. Members of this assembly would be partly
elected by the provincial assemblies through
proportional representation and partly nominated
by the princes. St.1T
2. Statement 16/93 explanation. St.2 R
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Timeline
H 20 - Pre 1857
PYQs
1. Consider the following freedom fighters: [22/53]
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated
with the Ghadar Party?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
13
 The Unique Academy History

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only H 27 - Major Acts

Ans Key - 1-D
PYQs
Explanations 1. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions
of Provincial Government were divided into
1. 1. The first revolutionary groups in Bengal
"Reserved and Transferred" subjects. Which of
were organised in 1902 in Midnapore (under
the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects?
Jnanendranath Basu) and in Calcutta (the
[22/51]
Anushilan Samiti founded by Promotha Mitter,
1. Administration of Justice
and including Jatindranath Banerjee, Barindra
2. Local Self- Government
Kumar Ghosh and others.) [St.1 T as Ghadar
party was active during 1913] 3. Land Revenue
4. Police
2. Hindustan Republican Association/Army Select the correct answer using the code given
or HRA (later renamed Hindustan Socialist below:
Republican Association or HSRA) was
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
founded in 1924 in Kanpur by Ramprasad
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Sachin
Sanyal. St. 2 T Ans Key - 1-C
3. Rash Behari Bose was one of the masterminds
behind the Delhi conspiracy case, participated Explanations
in the Ghadar movement, and established the
Indian Independence league in Japan. St.3 R 1. Option (c) 1, 3 and 4 is the answer.

Hence, option (d) 3 only is the answer. – Check the options of this question. They are
symmetrical types. Method to solve this question
can be either to find three correct statements or one
incorrect statement. Try visualising the scenario in
1919, would Britishers give away administration
of justice, land revenue or Police to transferred
subject. Seems less probability than giving local
self-government to transferred subject. Relating
the events with timeline and political scenario in
the nation will help in this type of question.

–––––––––––– ––––––––––––

14 Prelims Simplified
GEOGRAPHY
 The Unique Academy
G1- Earth in Solar system
PYQs
1. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the
year normally occurs in the: [22/29]
(a) First half of the month of June
(b) Second half of the month of June
(c) First half of the month of July
(d) Second half of the month of July
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. Refer explanation of 19/20. On 21st June, the
Sun reaches its northernmost position, as seen
from earth. This makes the longest day of the year
in northern hemisphere occur on the same day.
Hence, option (b) is the answer.
G 4 - Atmosphere
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements: [22/81]
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation
and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of
infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's
surface and thus cause warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. 1. Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar
radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
St.1 T
2. High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming
solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some
of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the
Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby
warming the surface of the Earth. St.2 T
16
Geography
Hence, option (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is the answer.
- Low and high have been exchanged smartly
by the paper setter in the question statements to
check conceptual clarity as well as attention to
details, in the exam hall environment.
G 19 - Hills
PYQs
1. Consider the following pairs: [22/25]
Peak Mountains
1. Namcha Barwa : Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi : Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek : Sikkim Himalaya
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. Extracts from Class 11 NCERT Indian
Geography
The Arunachal Himalayas - These extend from
the east of the Bhutan Himalayas up to the
Diphu pass in the east. The general direction
of the mountain range is from southwest to
northeast. Some of the important mountain
peaks of the region are Kangtu and Namcha
Barwa. Pair 1 T
2. Refer ‘Themes simplified’ of Biosphere
reserves in India. Pair 2 R & Pair 3 T
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
G 22 - Famous places
PYQs
1. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by
which one of the following rivers. [22/24]
(a) Cauvery (b) Manjira
(c) Pennar (d) Tungabhadra
Prelims Simplified
 Geography
2. Consider the following pairs: [22/70]
Reservoirs States
1. Ghataprabha : Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar : Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar : Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon : Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
Ans Key - 1-C | 2-C
Explanations
1. Gandikota is a village and historical fort on the
right bank of the Penna river in Andhra Pradesh.
The fort was the centre of power for various
dynasties, such as the Kalyani Chalukyas,
Pemmasani Nayakas, and the Golconda Sultanate.
Hence, option (c) Penner is the answer.
2. 1. Ghataprabha has a hydroelectric and
irrigational dam at Hidkal in Belagavi,
Karnataka. Pair 1 T
2. Gandhi Sagar dam, on Chambal river, is
located in Madhya Pradesh. Pair 2 R
3. Indira Sagar Dam (largest dam in India,
in terms of volume of water stored in the
reservoir), on Narmada river, is located in
Madhya Pradesh. Pair 3 T.
4. Maithon dam, on Barakar river, is located in
Jharkhand. Pair 4 T.
Hence, option (C) only three pairs is the answer.
G 23 - Seas and their borders
PYQs
1. Which one of the following lakes of West
Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
[22/23]
(a) Lake Victoria (b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta (d) Lake Volta
2. The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly
corresponds to which of the following regions?
[22/26]
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean
shores
(b) Region along North African shores stretching
from Egypt to Morocco
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of
Africa
(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean
Sea
3. Which one of the following statements best
reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes
mentioned in the news? [22/86]
(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial
islands made by a country around South
China Sea.
(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes
over these islands in East China Sea.
(c) A permanent American military base has
been set up there to help Taiwan to increase
its defence capabilities.
(d) Through International Court of Justice
declared them as no man's land, some South-
East Asian countries claim them.
Ans Key - 1-B | 2-A | 3-B
Explanations
2. Levant, the region along the eastern Mediterranean
shores, roughly corresponding to modern-day
Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and certain adjacent
areas. Hence, option (a) is the answer.
3. Japan and China claim the uninhabited islands,
known as the Senkaku in Japan and Tiaoyu in
China, as their own, but Japan has administered
them since 1972. The Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands
were formally claimed by Japan in 1895. After
Japan’s defeat in World War II, the island chain
was controlled by the US until 1971 before its
return. Since then, Japan has administered the
island chains. Hence option (b) is the answer.
G 24 - Area in News
PYQs
1. Consider the following countries: [22/27]
1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan
17
 The Unique Academy
3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
2. Consider the following pairs: [22/87]
Country – Important reason for being in the
news recently
1. Chad – Setting up of permanent 3. 1. A broad peninsula that lies between the Black
military base by China.
2. Guinea – Suspension of Constitution
and Government by military
3. Lebanon – Severe and prolonged
economic depression
4. Tunisia – Suspension of Parliament by
President
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
3. Consider the following pairs: [22/88]
Region often Country
mentioned in the news
1. Anatolia – Turkey
2. Amhara – Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado – Spain
4. Catalonia – Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
Ans Key - 1-C | 2-C | 3-B
Explanations
1. Option (c) 3, 4 and 5 only is the answer.
– If you have observed world map and areas in
and around Mediterranean, Caspian Sea etc. You
would be able to negate statement 1, as Azerbaijan
and Afghanistan are far away. There is only one
option matching this criterion and is the answer.
Lesson - UPSC wants you to have general idea
of important places, rather than mugging up all
bordering countries of a country in news.
18
Geography
2. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched, as Chad is landlocked
country at the crossroads of North and Central
Africa and referred news of permanent military
base by China pertains to first Atlantic military
base in Equatorial Guinea, location in Central
Africa and opening to Atlantic ocean. All other
pairs are correctly matched. Hence, option (c)
Only three pairs is the answer.
Sea and the Mediterranean Sea and called Asia
Minor (Lesser Asia) by the Romans, is the
Asian part of modern Turkey, across Thrace.
It lies across the Aegean Sea to the east of
Greece and is usually known by its ancient
name Anatolia. Pair 1 R.
2. The Amhara Region is located in the North-
western part of Ethiopia and is the site of
the largest inland body of water in Ethiopia,
Lake Tana. This region has historical conflicts
among different groups of Ethiopia. Pair 2 R.
3. Cabo Delgado, northernmost province of
Mozambique, was in news due to attacks by
extremist group. Pair 3 T.
4. Catalonia, triangular area in the North-eastern
corner of Spain, is bordered by France to the
north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east and
other countries. It was in news due to mass
protests, due to arrest of its separatist leader.
Pair 4 T.
Hence, option (b) Only two pairs is the answer.
G 26 - Good practices
PYQs
1. "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in
which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is
practised, results in: [22/22]
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D
Prelims Simplified
 Geography
Explanations
1. System of Rice Intensification (SRI) was first
developed in Madagascar in the 1980s and since
then several countries in the world have been
practising it, including India. It promises to save 15
to 20% ground water, improves rice productivity.
It gives all three positive results mentioned in the
statements. Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the
answer.
Note – Refer explanation of 14/01. Explanation has
mention of SRI being example of more with less
principle. Such add ons in the examination can help
in reaching the correct answer. Another advantage
of thematic PYQ approach.
G 27 - Crops
PYQs
1. Consider the following States: [22/62]
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as
tea- producing States?
(a) Only one State (b) Only two States
(c) Only three States (d) All four States
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. Generally known tea- producing States is a
subjective term and interpretation of the same may
be different. Answer is expected to be (b). It will
be updated on www.prelimssimplified.com after
UPSC official keys.
G 32 - Non-fossil based sources
PYQs
ƒƒ Solar
1. Consider the following statements: [22/84]
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International
Airport.
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic
project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. 1. Bhadla Solar Park of Jodhpur, Rajasthan is the
world's largest solar park, spread over a total
area of 14,000 acres. St.1 T
2. Kerala's Cochin International Airport Ltd
(CIAL) is the first airport in the world running
fully on solar power. It got 'Champion of the
Earth' award; the highest environmental honour
granted by the United Nations. St.2 R
3. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
has successfully commissioned India's largest
Floating Solar PV plant in NTPC Simhadri,
Andhra Pradesh. It is 25 MW floating SPV
project covering an area of 100 acres. St.3 T
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Note - Change of proper nouns in statements 1 &
3 to make incorrect statements.
G 36 - Minerals
PYQs
1. With reference to India, consider the following
statements: [22/28]
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire
Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can
process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans Key - 1-B
19
 The Unique Academy
Explanations
1. 1. Refer explanation of 12/86. St.1 R
2. Monazite occurrence has been confirmed in
Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala,
West Bengal, and Jharkhand till now. Hence,
statement 3 suggesting it being naturally
occurring in the ENTIRE INDIAN COASTAL
SANDS in India is incorrect.
3. Monazite is a mineral mainly containing rare
earths and thorium-a prescribed substance
to be handled by the Department of Atomic
Energy (DAE) St. 2 R. Accordingly, Indian
Rare Earths Ltd. (IREL) wholly owned by
the Govt. of India, under the administrative
control of DAE utilises monazite mainly for
production of rare earth compounds, and
thorium, as needed in the DAE. St. 4 R
Hence, option (b) 1, 2 and 4 only is the answer.
- Observe extreme statement 3. Do you think
that ENTIRE INDIAN COASTAL SANDS is a
possible source for Monazite or an eddition by
paper setter to make incorrect statement. st. 3 T,
–––––––––––– ––––––––––––
20
Geography
answer arrived, as it is the only option matching
the criteria.
G 27 - Crops
PYQs
1. Consider the following States: [22/62]
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as
tea- producing States?
(a) Only one State (b) Only two States
(c) Only three States (d) All four States
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. Generally known tea- producing States is a
subjective term and interpretation of the same may
be different. Answer is expected to be (b). It will
be updated on www.prelimssimplified.com after
UPSC official keys.
Prelims Simplified
Polity
 The Unique Academy
P 1 - Preamble and Schedules
PYQs
1. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule
of the Constitution of India, which one of the
following statements best reflects the consequence
of it? [22/73]
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of
tribal people to non- tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body
in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union
Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared
a special Category State.
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. In Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997)
case, Honourable Supreme Court held that the transfer
of tribal land to private parties for mining was null
and void under the Fifth Schedule. Hence, option (a)
is the answer.
P 2 - Part III - Fundamental Rights
(Article 12-35)
PYQs
1. With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts
in India, consider the following statements:
[22/18]
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private
organisation unless it is entrusted with a public
duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even
though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner
to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo
Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-C
22
Polity
Explanations
1. Literal meaning of Mandamus is ‘we command’.
This is issued by the court to a public official asking
him to perform the official duties that he has failed
or refused to perform. It can also be issued against
any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a
tribunal, or government for the same purpose. St.1
R & St. 2 T.
Literal meaning of Quo Warranto is ‘by what
authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to
enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to
a public office. St.3 R, as any interested person (not
necessarily aggrieved person) can approach court to
obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Hence, option (c)
1 and 3 only is the answer.
P 9 - Prime Minister (Article 74-75, 77-78)
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements: [22/14]
1. The Constitution of India classifies the
ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister,
Minister of State with Independent Charge,
Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union
Government, including the Prime Minister,
shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number
of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. Article 74 just provides mention of a Council of
Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to
aid and advise the President in the exercise of his
functions. Mentioned division of four ranks of
ministers is not present in the Constitution. St.1
T
2. Article 75 (1A) The total number of Ministers,
including the Prime Minister, in the Council
of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
This was brought by the 91st Constitutional
Prelims Simplified
 Polity
amendment, 2003. St. 2 R
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Note – Relate this with the post-independence
history, where you might have heard about dal badal
events in politics of India. In 1985, anti defection
law was brought to keep a check on the same.
Relating provisions in the Constitution (especially
the amended provisions) with post-independence
events will help form a story.
Parliament (Article 79-122)
P 10 - General and Officers of
Parliament (Article 79-98)
PYQs
1. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha,
consider the following statements: [22/20]
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct
of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of
Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as
the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the
election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of
Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal
opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as
of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting
of the House and no appeal lies against his
rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice
regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker
is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and
duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. Section 8 (1) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct
of Business in Lok Sabha
The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on
such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
General shall send to every member notice of this
date. St.1 R
St.2 T & St. 4 T, as there is no such provision
either in constitution or as a parliamentary practice.
St. 3 R. Hence, option (a) 1 and 3 only is the answer.
– Observe incorrect statements 2 and 4. Relate
them with the mind of paper setter, what would have
been his thought to frame these incorrect statements.
Sometimes, it is told that such complicated
statements are generally correct. This assumption
has been negated here.
P 16 - Supreme Court (Article 124-147)
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements: [22/11]
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal
Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the
Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish
for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil
Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the
powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. Regarding contempt of court in India, St.1 2 & 4
R. The Contempt of Court Act, 1971 defines both
civil and criminal contempt and it is not defined
in the Constitution of India. St.3 T Hence, option
(b) 1, 2 and 4 is the answer. Contempt of court
protects judicial institutions from motivated attacks
and unwarranted criticism, and it acts as a legal
mechanism to punish those who lower its authority.
– Observe the options. Statements 2 and 3 are a
bit more related to each other than other statements.
Both discuss about provisions of contempt in the
23
 The Unique Academy
Constitution whether empowering or defining.
Observe the combination of statements in the options.
ONE AND ONLY ONE OF ST 2 OR ST 3 WILL
BE CORRECT. This can be a key in answering
this question correctly. Try recalling what have you
studied in books/news. What seems more probable?
You might have heard about the contempt notices
given by Supreme and High courts. Also, if such
provision has been given by the Constitution. Article
129. If you are able to do any of 4 possibilities i.e.
St.2 correct/incorrect, St.3 correct/incorrect. You
have solved question 66%, as you have eliminated
2 options, where 3 were to be eliminated.
P 18 - Subordinate Courts (Article 233-237)
PYQs
1. With reference to India, consider the following
statements : [22/12]
1. Government law officers and legal firms
are recognised as advocates, but corporate
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded
from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down
the rules relating to legal education and
recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. In ever evolving legal field, changing law
related activities have given rise to legal
professionals such as government law officers,
corporate lawyers, law firms, law professors,
legal researchers, and patent attorneys. But
they all have been excluded from recognition as
advocates. St.1 T
2. St.2 R.
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Additional info – The Bar Council of India (a
statutory body, established through the Advocates
Act, 1961) has main role in regulating the advocates
throughout India, i.e. who shall be enrolled as an
24
Polity
advocate, professional conduct of advocates, the all
India Bar examination etc. Membership eligibility
of the council is that s/he needs to have a law degree
from recognised institution and enrolment as an
advocated in the state Bar Councils. Aspirants are
advised to read more about this topic.
P 22 - Relations between the Union and
the States (Part 11) (Article 245-263)
PYQs
1. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power (s)
of Lok Sabha? [22/15]
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the
Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. Article 352 Proclamation of Emergency (4) Every
Proclamation issued under this article shall be
laid before each House of Parliament and shall,
except where it is a Proclamation revoking
a previous Proclamation, cease to operate at
the expiration of one month unless before the
expiration of that period it has been approved by
resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. St. 1 T
as both houses have same power in ratification.
2. Article 75 (3) The Council of Ministers shall
be collectively responsible to the House of the
People. Hence, a no confidence motion can be
passed only in Loksabha against the Council of
Ministers. St.2 R
3. Article 61 Procedure for impeachment of the
President - has no distinction between the two
houses of Parliament. It can be initiated and
charges can be investigated (yes, the term is
investigation, as mentioned in the Constitution
for this) in either of the houses, just depending
on which house had it started. St. 3 T
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Prelims Simplified
 Polity
Note – Concept asked in this question is part of basic
books as well as the same has been asked repeatedly
in Prelims (check previous questions in this theme).
Hence, one should not make it incorrect in the exam
hall.
P 24 - Elections (Part 15, Article
324-329) and election laws
PYQs
1. With reference to anti- defection law in India,
consider the following statements: [22/16]
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator
cannot join any political party within six
months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame
within which the presiding officer has to
decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. Option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Additional info – Though anti-defection law came
in 1985 by 52nd Amendment Act, the legislative
attempts had started long back in 1969 with Y B
Chavan committee. 52nd amendment act 1985 made
changes in four articles and added 10th schedule.
In 2003, 91st amendment deleted one exception
provision i.e., disqualification on ground of defection
not to apply in case of split. Aspirants are advised
to read more about this law, as this law is in current
affairs due to political changes in different states.
– Observe statement 1. The law specifies that a
nominated legislator cannot join any political party
after (not within) six months of being appointed to
the House. Just observe the mind of paper setter,
there are two periods in discussion. 0-6 months
of getting elected and 6 month onwards. Actual
provision provides option to join in first period and
not in second. Statement in UPSC just reverses
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
the period. A good way to check concept clarity as
well as attentiveness to each word of the question
statement. Also, when we read such provisions while
during self-study, we should not just pass on with the
facts. Try ponder upon, discuss with friends, is it not
strange why 6 months later one cannot and before
s/he can? Why there is no time-frame for presiding
officer in deciding? Has this unlimited time frame
clause been used anytime since independence? It will
help both in retention as well as linking the threads.
P 26 - Amendment of the Constitution
(Part 20) (Article 368)
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements : [22/13]
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires
a prior recommendation of the President of
India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
presented to the President of India, it is
obligatory for the President of India to give
his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be
passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha by a special majority and there is no
provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. • St.1 T, as such bill does not need prior
recommendation of the President of India.
• St.2 R & St. 3 R in this context.
Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
– Observe the options given. At max, one of
the statements can be incorrect. In case, you are
unable to find correctness/incorrectness of all
three statements, another approach to find the most
probable negated statement out of three can help.
Just another approach, specific to the option types.
25
 The Unique Academy
P 30 - Attorney General of India
(Article 76)
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements: [22/17]
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor
General of India are the only officers of the
Government who are allowed to participate in
the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India,
the Attorney General of India submits his
resignation when the Government which
appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. Refer explanation of above question. Power
mentioned in statement 1, has been given to Attorney
General of India, but not Solicitor General of India.
St.1 T. Please note partial correctness of statement
1, but overall it will treated as incorrect.
Article 76. Attorney-General for India.—
(1) The President shall appoint a person who is
qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme
Court to be Attorney-General for India.…..
(4) The Attorney-General shall hold office during
the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such
remuneration as the President may determine.
Term of Attorney-General is not fixed by the
Constitution. St. 2 T.
Hence, option (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is the answer.
– There is one trend in UPSC Polity questions,
to put a clause in statement Viz. ACCORDING TO
THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA. Though the
statement is factually correct sometimes, but source
is changed and hence becomes incorrect. (Also check
explanations of 17/76 & 20/20 in Theme P10). This
trend checks the following
33 Whether you know the concept
26
Polity
33 Whether you know the source
33 Attention of minute details in the statement
(sometimes in hurry, we may just check
correctness/incorrectness, not the source)
P 31 - Other bodies
Static + Current
PYQs
1. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's
Organization (CCO)? [22/72]
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in
Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive
Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government's
notification relating to acquisition of coal-
bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver
the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
2. With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider
the following statements: [22/79]
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Minister
of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in
Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and
Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans Key - 1-A | 2-D
Explanations
1. Option (a) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
Additional info - Coal controller organization
(earlier Coal Commissioner) was established in
1916 with the aim to have Government control to
meet the coal requirement during First World War.
Afterwards, there have been several orders such as
Prelims Simplified
Polity
deregulation of distribution and pricing of coal in
1996 and Colliery Control Order 2000, Coal Mines
(Conservation and Development) Amendment
Rules, 2011 etc.
– It is less probable that someone has prepared
this topic with minute detail and knows in/correctness
of all 4 statements in the exam hall. Still many will
come out of exam with +2 marks and other will
afraid of attempting. We should at least start with
consistency of options in these questions. Observe
togetherness of 1 and 2 in all options. Either both
of them are correct or incorrect. What do you derive
from the name of the organisation or statements?
Check statement 4. Does it not look too much of
monitoring with respect of 2022? Think about
independence of Coal India Limited? Won’t it be
too much of regulations? Can we take risk? Now,
we have arrived at a situation of where 1 & 2 are
correct with incorrect statement 4. With this info,
think about statement 3, when one organisation looks
–––––––––––– ––––––––––––
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
after progress of development of Coal blocks, will it
hear objections regarding notifications. Seems yes
for me (answer arrived), what about you? Can take
a risk or not? Your choice.
2. 1. Tea board was set up under section 4 of the Tea
Act 1953, hence a statutory body. St.1 R
2. It is attached to Ministry of Commerce. St.2 T
3. Head office is in Kolkata. St. 3 T
4. St.4 R
Hence, option (d) 1 and 4 is the answer.
– Though it is less probable to know facts about
tea board. But, arrangement of statements in options
can given a little help for aspirants knowing context.
Only 2 of the options will be correct and other 2
incorrect. Any information like head office, overseas
office, legislation forming the board or attached
ministry will help not only in affirming/negating a
statement, but also multiple options with a gateway
to correct answer.
27
Economy
 Economy
Eco 2 - Other basic concepts in economy
PYQs
1. Which of the following activities constitute real
sector in the economy? [22/07]
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading
company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated
Bonds overseas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. The real sector of the economy deals with the
production side, while the nominal economy deals
with the financial side. Financial activities majorly
support real activity. The financial sector generates a
good portion of its revenue from loans and mortgages.
Out of given statements, 1 and 2 are real sector,
whereas 3 and 4 are financial sectors. Hence, option
(a) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
Eco 3 - National income
PYQs
1. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
following statements: [22/10]
1. A share of the household financial savings goes
towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market- related rates
in auctions form a large component of internal
debt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-C
Explanations
1. Option (c) Both 1 and 2 is the answer.
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
Additional info -
33 Household financial savings refer to
mutual funds, insurance, currency, bank deposits,
debt securities, pension funds, and investments in
small savings schemes by households. In 2020-
21, the net household financial savings was
11.5 percent of Gross national disposal income.
As government borrows through the issue of
government securities called G-secs and Treasury
Bills, part of this financial saving goes toward
government borrowing, mainly provident funds.
Government borrows from the market, small
savings funds, state provident funds, external
assistance and short-term borrowings. Any
adverse movement in the household savings will
have a significant bearing on banks, insurance
companies and mutual/provident funds, as they
are key investors in government securities.
33 Public debt is the total liabilities of the central
government contracted against the Consolidated
Fund of India. It is further classified into internal
& external debt. Internal debt is categorised
into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include
G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction.
Non-marketable securities include intermediate
treasury bills issued to state governments, special
securities issued to national Small Savings Fund
among others. Based on the spending targets and
likely resource mobilisation on tax and non-tax
front, the government announces its borrowing
programme for the fiscal in the Budget.
Eco 4 - Budget
PYQs
1. With reference to the expenditure made by an
organisation or a company, which of the following
statements is/are correct? [22/09]
1. Acquiring new technology is capital
expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital
expenditure, while equity financing is
considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
29
 The Unique Academy
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. 1. Refer explanation of 16/12. As capital
expenditures refer to funds that are used by a
company for the purchase, improvement, or
maintenance of long-term assets to improve.
Hence, costs to upgrade or purchase software,
acquiring new technology etc, are also considered
part of Capital expenditure, as they are investment
to improve operational efficiency and increase
revenue in the long term. St.1 R.
2. Debt financing – Borrowing by a company to be
paid back at a future date with interest. It occurs
when a firm sells fixed income products, such as
bonds, bills, or notes. It could be in the form of
a secured as well as an unsecured loan. Equity
financing is the opposite of debt financing and
entails issuing stock to raise money. Both debt
financing and equity financing are considered
as part of capital receipts for the company, as
capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities
or reduce financial assets. St.2 T.
Hence, option (a) 1 only is the answer.
Eco 5 - Taxation
PYQs
1. Which one of the following situations best reflects
"Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media
recently with reference to India ? [22/08]
(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign
enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign
country on the profits arising out of its
investment
(b) A foreign company investing in India and
paying taxes to the country of its base on the
profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets
in a foreign country and sells such assets after
their value increases and transfers the proceeds
to India
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such
shares derive their substantial value from
assets located in India
30
Economy
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. Option (d) is the correct answer and correct
explanation of Indirect transfers.
Note - Read more about retrospective taxation and
Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021.
Eco 8 - RBI & Monetary policy
PYQs
1. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
following statements: [22/03]
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) is likely to buy government
securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is
likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union
were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy
dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. In India, which one of the following is responsible for
maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
[22/68]
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) Expenditure Management Commission
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Ans Key - 1-B | 2-D
Explanations
1. 1. Inflation is high, means excess money in the
market. RBI would like to withdraw money and
hence sell government securities, pull money for
reducing liquidity. St.1 T
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, means there
is more rupees in market than desired by RBI.
Hence, RBI will either pull rupees or infuse
dollars. Hence, ‘RBI will sell dollars in the
market’ is likely step. St.2 R.
Prelims Simplified
 Economy
3. Interest rate increase in USA or EU will motivate
investors to shift to India. This will increase
rupees demand and rupees will appreciate (less
rupees available). To control this, RBI will buy
dollars i.e., infuse further rupees to balance the
situation. St.3 R
Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
2. Refer additional info in 17/11 explanation. option
(d) Reserve Bank of India is the answer.
Additional info -
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs administers
the policies for Consumer Cooperatives, price
monitoring, essential commodity availability,
consumer movement and control of statutory
bodies such as the Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS) and Weights and Measures.
(b) Expenditure Management Commission is
mandated to evaluate proposals for reducing
the three major subsidies (i.e., food, fertilizer
and oil).
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council
envisages to strengthen and institutionalize the
mechanism of maintaining financial stability,
financial sector development, inter-regulatory
coordination along with monitoring macro-
prudential regulation of the economy
Note - Above is the way to cover incorrect choices
of PYQ (Potential questions of upcoming prelims).
It will be no surprise, if UPSC asks function of any
of the above three in upcoming Prelims exams.
Eco 10 - Banking regulations
PYQs
1. With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)',
which of the following statements are correct?
[22/64]
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads
of Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in
developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements: [22/63]
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated
by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA
is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating
agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-B | 2-B
Explanations
1. Nationalised Bank Scheme, 1980 was amended in
2016 to provide the legal framework for composition
and functions of the Banks Board Bureau. The board
comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio members
i.e., Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises,
Secretary of the Department of Financial Services
and Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
and three expert members. St.1 T, as the Governor
of RBI is not its chairman. Other two statements
are correct in this context. Hence, option (b) 2 and
3 only is the answer.
Additional info – Function of BBB also include
recommending/advising following to central govt
for mandated institutions:
33 advising on appointments/confirmation/tenure
extension/termination of services of the Directors,
33 advising on the desired management structure,
at the level of Board of Directors and senior
management,
33 advising the Central Government on a suitable
performance appraisal system
33 Any other work assigned by the Government in
consultation with RBI
2. Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI
(not RBI, change of proper noun to make incorrect
statement). St.1 T. Other statements are correct in
this context. Option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
Additional info –
33 The SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations,
1999 govern the credit rating agencies and
provide for eligibility criteria for registration of
credit rating agencies, monitoring and review of
ratings, requirements for a proper rating process,
avoidance of conflict of interest and inspection of
31
 The Unique Academy
rating agencies by SEBI, amongst other things.
33 ICRA Limited was set up in 1991 by leading
financial/investment institutions, commercial
banks and financial services companies as
an independent and professional investment
Information and Credit Rating Agency. ICRA is
a Public Limited Company, with its shares listed
on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National
Stock Exchange.
33 Brickwork Ratings (BWR), is a SEBI registered
Indian Credit Rating Agency founded by bankers,
credit rating professionals, former regulators as
well as professors, is committed to promoting
Financial Literacy. Brickwork Ratings has Canara
Bank, as its promoter and strategic partner.
Eco 13 - FDI, FII, Bonds, disinvestment
PYQs
1. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the
advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
[22/05]
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on
its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from
uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains
on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms,
operating in India, which of the following statements
is/are correct? [22/06]
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to
offering their platforms as market- places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers
on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the
following statements: [22/65]
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for
equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of
interest.
32
Economy
2. The option to convert to equity affords the
bondholder a degree of indexation to rising
consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-A | 2-B | 3-C
Explanations
1. Inflation-Indexed Bond (IIB) is an instrument
that is used to provide a hedge and to safeguard the
investor against macroeconomic risks in an economy.
They protect the bonds' purchasing power by tying
interest and principal payments to an index of price
changes, WPI in case of India. These bonds include
two types of compensation, a real rate of return
plus a compensation for the erosion of purchasing
power. St.1 R & St. 2 R in this context. As Interest
or inflation compensation both are taxable, St.3 T.
Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
– What the name ‘Inflation indexed bond’
suggests? It just suggests that it is a bond which
is indexed with inflation. It seems that inflation
will not reduce the yield, as the bond yield may be
considerable to inflation in some way or the other.
Observe statements.
33 Does not statement 2 look obviously correct ?.
33 Why would such a bond interest/capital gain be
relaxed from tax? Name does not give any such
hint.
Can take risk. St.2 R & St. 3 T gives only choice
i.e. (a) and is the answer.
2.  As per Consumer Protection (E-Commerce)
Rules, 2020, e-commerce entity (including
foreign owned) means any person who owns,
operates or manages digital or electronic facility
or platform for electronic commerce, but does not
include a seller offering his goods or services for
sale on a marketplace e-commerce entity. St.1 T
33 In order to keep it fair, there are limitations in
the degree to which they can own big sellers on
their platforms. St.2 R
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Additional info -
33 Marketplace based model of e-commerce
Prelims Simplified
 Economy
means providing an IT platform by an e-commerce
entity on a digital & electronic network to act as
a facilitator between buyer and seller.
33 Inventory based model of e-commerce means
an e-commerce activity, where inventory of
goods and services is owned by e-commerce
entity and is sold to the consumers directly.
FDI is not permitted in inventory-based model
of e-commerce. Inventory of a vendor will
be deemed to be controlled by e-commerce
marketplace entity if more than 25% of purchases
of such vendor are from the marketplace entity
or its group companies.
Note - One does not need to have this concept covered
in static economics. These provisions have been in
news for quite some time and a little knowledge with
application of Amazon/Flipkart example in the exam
will help you arrive at correct answer.
3.  Convertible bonds are hybrid securities that
offer investors the best of both stocks and bonds.
Like any other kind of bond, they provide a
guaranteed income stream and pay back the
amount you originally lent the company.
33 Convertible bonds typically carry lower
interest rates payments than straight corporate
bonds—the savings in interest expense can be
significant. Investors accept the lower interest
payments because the conversion option offers
the opportunity to benefit from increases in the
stock price. St.1 R
33 The option to convert to equity affords the
bondholder a degree of indexation to rising
consumer prices. As indexation will ensure that
prices are adjusted with inflation over a period
of time. It will help bondholders to lower their
long- term capital gains when converting bonds
into equity, bringing down their taxable income.
St.2 R
Hence, option (c) both 1 and 2 is the answer.
Eco 16 - Currency and
Foreign exchange
PYQs
1. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
following statements: [22/02]
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange
Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of
rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange
Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in
trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation
relative to inflation in other countries is likely
to cause an increasing divergence between
NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements: [22/61]
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve
could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost
of firms with existing External Commercial
Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases
the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-C | 2-A
Explanations
1. 1. NEER is a measure of the value of a currency
against a weighted average of several foreign
currencies. NEER is the amount of domestic
currency needed to purchase foreign currency.
An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation
of the local currency against the weighted basket
of currencies of its trading partners. St.1 R
2. The real exchange rate is the relative price of
foreign goods in terms of domestic goods. It is
equal to the NEER times the foreign price level
divided by the domestic price level. It measures
the international competitiveness of a country
in international trade. An increase in REER
implies that exports become more expensive and
imports become cheaper and hence a loss of trade
competitiveness. St.2 T
3. As REER is the NEER after factoring in relative
inflation (CPI), increase in domestic inflation
(relative to other countries) will cause divergence
33
 The Unique Academy
between these two. St.3 R
Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 only is the answer.
2. 1. Capital flight is the outflow of capital from a
country due to negative monetary policies. St.1
R as tight policies can lead outflow of capital.
2. Also, these outflows could increase the increase
the interest cost of firms with existing External
Commercial Borrowings. St.2 R.
3. Devaluation of domestic currency increases (not
decreases) the currency risk associated with
ECBs. St.3 T
Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
– Observe statement 3. Opposite effect of one
thing to other has been given to make an incorrect
–––––––––––– ––––––––––––
34
Economy
statement. Try understanding mind of paper setter.
If you have heard about the term capital flight for
the first time. You can check the Hindi version of the
paper. It says ‘Punji palayan’, which would help to
understand that yes, it is talking about the outflow
of capital/punji.
Additional info - A taper tantrum is when investors
have a tantrum or a reaction to news of the central
bank slowing or stopping bond purchases. Investors
may react by selling bonds, which topples the price
of bonds and raises the yield. The sharp climb in
bond yields after the central bank announcement is
called a taper tantrum. The term was coined in 2013,
when U.S. Federal Reserve announced future plans
of tapering asset purchases.
Prelims Simplified
Environment
 The Unique Academy
Env 1 - Ecology and Biodiversity basics
PYQs
1. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the
Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys."
Which one of the following functions of wetlands
best reflects the above statement? [22/43]
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface
runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which
fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles
and mammals thrive.
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining
sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and
excess nutrients.
2. Certain species of which one of the following
organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? – This question may initially look tough, as these
[22/90]
(a) Ant (b) Cockroach
(c) Crab (d) Spider
Ans Key - 1-D | 2-A
Explanations
1.  Tropical rainforests - lungs of the Earth- draws
in carbon dioxide and breathe out oxygen.
33 Natural wetlands - earth's kidneys- high and long-
term capacity to filter pollutants from the water
Hence, option (d) is the answer.
– One does not need to study this concept in totality
to answer this in exam hall. Actually, one should not
expect that seen questions will be repeated in the
exam hall. Just think what is the role of Kidney in
human body. Removing wastes, extra fluid, remove
acids, maintain healthy balance of water, salts,
and minerals. When question statement mentions
wetlands being the kidney, naturally answer (d) best
suits similar function for the earth and is the answer.
2. The ant–fungus mutualism is a symbiosis, in which
ants actively cultivate fungus much like human’s
farm crops as a food source. Hence, option (a) Ant
is the answer.
36
Environment
Env 2 - Food chain/web/Cycles
PYQs
1. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
[22/48]
1. Alfalfa 2. Amarnath
3. Chickpea 4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. Option (a) 1, 3 and 4 only is the answer.
all six being nitrogen-fixing plants or not may not be
readily available in some book. But, as highlighted
in different explanations, one should see the question
together with options (combination of statements)
before deciding to attempt or leave any question. E.g.,
in this question, Chickpea is well known leguminous
plant, which is having Nitrogen fixing property. This
itself eliminates options (c) and (d). Two-third of the
job is done. Now, knowing incorrectness of 5/6 or
correctness of 4, will give final answer. Effectively 6
statement question reduced to 2 statement question.
Also, Hindi knowing candidates may refer to Hindi
translation of paper. E.g., in this case, except Alfalfa,
Hindi name of all others have been given. Names
used in common parlance (like Chana daal for
Chickpea) may help to correctly answer the question.
Env 6 - Environmental Problems -
National/local issues including Pollution
PYQs
1. Which one of the following best describes the term
"greenwashing"? [22/80]
(a) Conveying a false impression that a
company's products are eco-friendly and
environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental
Prelims Simplified
 Environment
costs in the Annual Financial Statements of
a country.
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological
consequences while undertaking
infrastructure development.
(d) Making mandatory provision for
environmental costs in a government
project/programme.
Ans Key - 1-A
Env 7 - Solutions to environmental
problems - Solutions to Global issues
PYQs
1. "Biorock technology" is talked about in which one
of the following situations? [22/49]
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using
plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/
extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in
forest/protected areas
2. The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:
[22/50]
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid
and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically
modified flora
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and
on sea surfaces.
Ans Key - 1-A | 2-C
Explanations
1. Biorock or Mineral Accretion Technology is a coral
reef restoration technology that utilizes low voltage
electricity to improve the health and growth rates of
corals and other marine organisms. A small amount
of electrical current is passed through electrodes
in water. This makes calcium ions combine with
carbonate ions resulting in formation of Calcium
carbonate. Coral larvae adhere to this and grow four
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
to six times quickly, as they need not spend their
energy in building their own calcium carbonate
skeletons. Hence option (a) is the answer.
2. Miyawaki method
33 for creation of Urban miniforests
33 method based on the work of Japanese botanist
Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s.
33 technique compresses layers of a forest – shrubs,
trees, canopies
33 – on small plots of land, turning them into tiny
forests.
33 planting two to four trees per square metre, the
plantation becomes approximately 30 times
denser, grows 10 times faster and becomes
maintenance-free after a span of 3 years
33 species are planted close to each other so that
the greens receive sunlight only from the top and
grow upwards than sideways
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Env 9 - Chemical/pollutants - Source
PYQs
1. Among the following crops, which one is the most
important anthropogenic source of both methane and
nitrous oxide? [22/21]
(a) Cotton (b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
2. Consider the following statements: [22/98]
1. Other than those made by humans,
nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are
used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products
which enter the environment are unsafe for
humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
3. Consider the following : [22/100]
1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/
are cause(s) of acid rain?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
37
 The Unique Academy
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans Key - 1-B | 2-D | 3-B
Explanations
2. Nanoparticles are much smaller than the wavelengths
of visible light (400-700 nm), hence they cannot be
seen with ordinary optical microscopes and require
the use of electron microscopes or microscopes with
laser. They occur widely in nature and are objects of
study in many sciences such as chemistry, physics,
geology and biology. A significant fraction (by
number, if not by mass) of interplanetary dust, that
is still falling on the Earth at the rate of thousands
of tons per year, is in the nanoparticle range; and
the same is true of atmospheric dust particles. Iron
oxides/sulphides, silver, and gold are some of the
representative examples of naturally-occurring
nanoparticles in the environment. St.1 T & St. 2
R. Also, St. 3 R in this context.
Hence, option (d) 2 and 3 is the answer.
– Observe statement 3. By general understanding
of environment, pollution, nanoparticles etc, this
statement seems to be correct. There is no need of
specialised study for this. Out of remaining options [b
& d], in/correctness of statement 2 will help us reach
answer. Again, general understanding cosmetic (even
if not read in preparation, could have been attended
by solving PYQs such as 12/15, 17/73 etc), suggests
that St.2 R. Answer arrived.
3. Refer explanation of 13/30. Option (b) 2 and 4 only
is the answer.
Env 11 - Chemical/pollutants -
Remedy/alternate usage
PYQs
1. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use
of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider
the following statements: [22/46]
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and
cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store
any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottle made of it can be recycled into other
38
Environment
products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of
by incineration without causing greenhouse
gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. Polyethylene terephthalate (PET/PETE/PETP/
PET-P), is the most common thermoplastic polymer
resin of the polyester family and is used in fibres
for clothing, containers for liquids and foods,
and thermoforming for manufacturing, and in
combination with glass fibre for engineering resins.
The biggest application is in fibres (in excess of
60%), with bottle production accounting for about
30% of global demand. In the context of textile
applications, PET is referred by polyester, whereas
the acronym PET is generally used in relation to
packaging. St.1 R & St. 3 R.
Liquor becomes carcinogenic when stored in
plastic bottles. St.2 T. As per one estimate, the
production and incineration of plastic pumps more
than 850 million tonnes of greenhouse gases into the
atmosphere. St.4 T.
Hence, option (a) 1 and 3 is the answer.
– Check the symmetrical options. Strictly 2
statements will be correct and other two incorrect.
Try finding any statement, which you are much sure
of being correct or incorrect. Check statement 4,
‘EASILY’ & ‘WITHOUT’. These two words with
‘polyethylene terephthalate’ & ‘widespread in our
daily lives’ in the question statement give a clear hint
that St.4 T. 2/3 of the job is done. Out of remaining
options, either statement 1 or 2 will be correct. Try
answering with existing knowledge.
Env 12 - Consequences of
Environmental hazards
PYQs
1. If a major solar storm (solar-flare) reaches the Earth,
Prelims Simplified
 Environment
which of the following are the possible effects on
the Earth? [22/40]
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of
the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of
the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the
aircraft flying over polar regions could be
interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only reaches very far from it. Will it certainly happen,
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans Key - 1-C
Explanations
1. Impact of Solar Flares and Coronal Mass Ejections
Env 14 - Formation/Parent organisation
on Earth
33 Astronauts: Astronauts on spacewalks face health
risks from possible exposure to solar radiation
1. Consider the following statements:
outside the Earth’s protective atmosphere.
33 Radio communication: Geomagnetic
storms interfere with high-frequency radio
communications and GPS navigation systems.
33 Space-dependent services: Solar storms can
hit operations of space-dependent services like
global positioning systems (GPS), radio, and
satellite communications. St.1 R & St. 6 R
33 Magnetosphere : CMEs, with ejectiles loaded
with matter travelling at millions of miles an
hour, can potentially create disturbances in the
magnetosphere, the protective shield surrounding
the Earth.
33 Other: Aircraft flights, power grids, and space
exploration programmes are vulnerable. St.3 R
Only options matching these criteria i.e., option (c)
1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only is the answer.
– The question consists of 7 statements and that
too on a possibility. There is little probability that
you have covered this topic in preparation. Let us
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
try reversing the question. 7 statements are given.
Select the options with incorrect statements i.e.,
things which will not possibly happening due to
Solar storm reaching on earth.
(a) 3, 6 and 7 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only (d) None of the above
Is it not looking simpler to solve? Such approach is
applied in Sudoku game. Now, solving this question
in reverse way.
(a) There is good chance of satellite orbit being
disturbed. Eliminated.
(b) Good chance of navigation system failing also.
Eliminated.
(c) Tsunami will occur at equatorial regions.
Seems very specific. Less chances to happen for
a SPECIFIC ZONE ONLY. Suppose Solar flare
may be no. Forest fire over MUCH of the planet.
Again, less probability, as forests of the world are
not all interconnected to get fire spread. This option
seems best bet and answer.
PYQs
[22/42]
1. "The Climate Group" is an international
non- profit organization that drives climate
action by building large networks and runs
them.
2. The International Energy Agency in
partnership with the Climate Group launched
a global initiative "EP100".
3. EP100 brings together leading companies
committed to driving innovation in energy
efficiency and increasing competitiveness
while delivering on emission reduction
goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of
EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the
Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
39
 The Unique Academy Environment

Ans Key - 1-B Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute. Hence,
option (a) is the answer.
Explanations
Env 18 - Environment Legislations
1. Option (b) 1, 3 and 4 only is the answer.

- Refer explanation of 20/10 in Env 13. Statement PYQs

5 is incorrect. Only option matching the criteria is
1. Which one of the following has been constituted
(b) 1,3 and 4 only. Now verify by thinking about
under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
consistency of statements with these three correct
[22/75]
and others incorrect. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are a bit
(a) Central Water Commission
generic sort of, whereas 2 and 5 are very specific,
for which making incorrect statements is very easy. (b) Central Ground Water Board
Might have been the thought of paper setter. Worth (c) Central Ground Water Authority
taking risk to mark Option (b) in exam hall. (d) National Water Development Agency
Additional info – EP100 is a global initiative led by Ans Key - 1-C
the international non- profit Climate Group, bringing
together over 120 energy smart businesses committed
Explanations
to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency
improvements. The Climate Group’s initiatives such
1. Refer explanation of 20/98. Option (c) is the answer.
global EP100, RE100, EV100 and EP100 have been
joined by several Indian companies.
Env 19 - Forests and Wildlife Legislations
Env 17 - Terminology
PYQs
PYQs 1. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife
protection, consider the following statements:
1. "Climate Action Tracker, which monitors the
[22/89]
emission reduction pledges of different countries
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the
is a: [22/41]
government.
(a) Database created by coalition of research
2. When a wild animal is declared protected,
organisations
such animal is entitled for equal protection
(b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate
whether it is found in protected areas or
Change"
outside.
(c) Committee under "United Nations
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal
Framework Convention on Climate Change"
becoming a danger to human life is sufficient
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United
ground for its capture or killing.
Nations Environment Programme and World
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Bank
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
Ans Key - 1-A (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

Explanations Ans Key - 1-A

1. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent Explanations

scientific analysis that tracks government climate
action and measures it against the globally agreed 1. 1. Section 39 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
Paris Agreement aim of temperature rise, using the is Wild animals, etc., to be Government property.
MAGICC climate model. It is a collaboration of St.1 R

40 Prelims Simplified
 Environment
2. The act does not discriminate between animals
found in protected areas and outside. It provides
for equal protection for wild animals irrespective
of where they are found. St.2 R.
3. Section 11 of the act - Hunting of wild
animals to be permitted in certain cases.—(1)
Notwithstanding anything contained in any other
law for the time being in force and subject to
the provisions of Chapter IV,— (a) the Chief
Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any
wild animal specified in Schedule I has become
dangerous to human life or is so disabled or
diseased as to be beyond recovery, by Order in
writing and stating the reasons therefor, permit
any person to hunt such animal or cause such
animal to be hunted; St. 3 T
Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 is the answer.
- Earlier UPSC asked about implication of
inclusion in different schedules of Wildlife protection
act, but now through this question they have delved
into detailed provisions. Also, author has given
detailed explanation from act viz statement 3. Does
that mean one should get the bare act book and start
covering sections? No
In UPSC preparation, you have only two resources
time and energy. Use them wisely. Observe the
questions from this act, UPSC has only asked
provisions, which one should know as a common
person and more definitely as a civil servant i.e.,
when can a wild animal be captured or killed?
Whether wild animals have same protection outside
protected area? etc. The general understanding about
such act provisions is needed, which could be well
covered by relevant newspaper articles or current
compilations. [In statement 3, explanation from the
act is given just to give flavor of act provisions].
Env 21 - Institutions
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements: [22/74]
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform
to promote sustainable sanitation and is
funded by the Government of India and the
World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an
apex body of the Minister of Housing and
Urban Affairs in Government of India and
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
provides innovative solutions to address the
challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a multi-
stakeholder platform bringing together the
government, private sector, financial institutions,
civil society groups, media, donors, multilateral
experts etc. to work in the sanitation space to
drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership
model. St.1 T & St.2 R.
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Env 24 - Location
PYQs
1. Consider the following pairs: [22/30]
Wetland/Lake Location
1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta -. Tamil Nadu Lake
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. Refer ‘Themes simplified’ on Ramsar sites. Pairs 1
& 4 are incorrectly matched, whereas pairs 2 & 3
are correctly matched. Hence, option (b) Only two
pairs is the answer.
- There was a lot of discussion on this new type
of question in UPSC Prelims 2022. In UPSC arena,
there is a general tendency to mark something new
as difficult. Afterall when it is difficult, you need
guidance, when you need guidance, then only you
will pay. Coaching theory ….
41
 The Unique Academy
Returning to solve this question. It is true that
statement combinations help in eliminating options
and one can correct question even when s/he is not
sure of all in/correctness of all the statements in the
question paper. However, in this type of question
where we do not need to exactly tell which all pairs
are in/correct, this is another positive thing. Suppose
you are half sure of any two pairs being correct. You
take them as one correct pair. Mathematically, you
will be closer to answer based on your knowledge.
Env 27 - Flora
PYQs
1. With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in
the news, consider the following statements: [22/45]
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the
Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-C
Explanations
1. Gucchi/Morel Mushrooms
33 are costliest among fungi in the world. St.1 R
33 are grown in clusters on logs in decaying wood
33 is a rare variety that cannot be cultivated
commercially
33 are grown in parts of Himachal Pradesh,
Uttarakhand and Jammu and Kashmir. St.2 R
& St. 3 T
33 fresh mushroom season is limited to a barely few
weeks in the spring
–––––––––––– ––––––––––––
42
Environment
Option (c) 1 and 2 is the answer.
Note - After this question in UPSC Prelims, some
Instagram posts were shared showing that answer
was available in this post and all. When UPSC asks
100 questions from things around world (more
across India), there is a probability that one of them
can be from any random post or story or any non-
reference book. This is just a coincidence. One
should not worry about being on social media or
scrolling posts just for this reason. Trust your sources
and you HAVE to mark questions from those sources
correct in the exam hall. Always remember, cut off is
around 50-60% of maximum marks only and there
is enough scope to leave a question.
Env 28 - Fauna Categorisation
PYQs
1. Which of the following is not a bird? [22/47]
(a) Golden Mahseer (b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill (d) White Ibis
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. Refer 19/29 explanation in Env 29. Mahseer are
fishes and hence option (a) Golden Mahseer is
the answer. Another advantage of solving PYQ in
correcting this type of questions.
Additional info - Mahseer are fishes with literal
meaning as mahi – fish and sher – tiger. Presently
seven species of Mahseer are recognized in India:
Golden or putitora mahseer, Turiya or tor mahseer,
Deccan or khudree mahseer, Humpback or mussullah
mahseer, Dwarf mahseer, Jungha of the Assamese
and Copper or mosal mahseer.
Prelims Simplified
science
 The Unique Academy
S 3 - Biology
PYQs
1. Which one of the following statements best describes
the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
[22/97]
(a) They protect the body from environmental
allergens.
(b) They alleviate the body's pain and
inflammation.
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused
by pathogens.
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. Refer Themes simplified on Blood and Plasma. B and
T lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses
of the body. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
- Extract from 1st edition of the book for Blood
and Plasma:
This theme may look a bit technical, not normally
asked theme in UPSC. However, due to recent
COVID 19 crisis, plasma donation, race for vaccine,
talk on immunity etc, it is advised that one knows
these basics. Since, it is not normally available in
source book at one place, hence it is being provided
here.
Author has tried to tell at various places that UPSC is
interested in static portion of current affairs. In 2022
Prelims, such questions include this one, Somnath
temple question, Ramanujam question etc. Hence,
when you read some topic in current affairs, try peep
into static related to the same. Also, if something big
happens, UPSC will ask about it, if not in current
year in coming years. E.g. Covid related questions
in Prelims 2022. National policy on biofuels in 2020
Prelims (policy came in 2018).
44
Science
Communication
S 7 - Concepts
PYQs
1. Consider following communication the technologies:
[22/36]
1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered Short- Range
devices/technologies?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. Short Range Devices are radio devices that offer a
low risk of interference with other radio services,
usually because their transmitted power, and hence
their range, is low. Many devices such as Closed-
circuit television (CCTV), Radio Frequency
Identification (RFID), Wireless Local Area Network
(WLAN), Access control (including door and gate
openers), Alarms and movement detectors, Cordless
audio devices, Industrial control, Medical implants,
Metering devices, Remote control etc come in this
cateogry. Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
- Suppose you have not heard about this short-
range device/technology before the exam. But the
words are familiar and they suggest that it refers
to something which is for smaller ranges. A hint
comes from Option combinations, as at max 1 of the
given statements will be incorrect. So, at least two
qualify as short-range device. Try finding similarity
between any two similar mentioned devices and their
correlation with the name ‘Short range’.
2011 question (11/57) explanation Wireless Local
Area Network (WLAN), as the name suggests,
typically covers a small area like a home or an
office may also help. Also, when you see such terms
in question statements, you should try to see first
alphabet of each word to relate it with any common
acronym around. E.g. you may not be familiar with
Closed Circuit Television, but of course with CCTV.
Similarly for RFID. Now, all three devices seem
Prelims Simplified
 Science
to be working on short ranges and fitting in the
narrative. A risk of marking option (d) may be taken.
Communication
S 9 - Defence
PYQs
46. Which one of the following statements best reflects
the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment
System" often talked about in media ? [22/34]
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space
to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth
and explode it in space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after
making several orbital motions.
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the
Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the
same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Ans Key - 1-C
Explanations
1. A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System is a
warhead delivery system that uses a low earth orbit
towards its target destination. Just before reaching
the target, it deorbits through a retrograde engine
burn. The flight path of the warhead from the system
does not reveal the target location till the payload
hits the destination. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.
China was suspected to have tested Fractional Orbital
Bombardment System in Oct 2021. This information
has been given to hint that covering current affairs
and related static for these themes will mostly cover
the theme reasonably.
S 10 - Diseases and Vaccines
PYQs
1. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent
COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following
statements : [22/39]
1. The Serum Institute of India produced
COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using
vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based
vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19
vaccine Covishield is a recombinant, replication-
deficient chimpanzee adenovirus vector encoding
the SARS-CoV-2 Spike (S) glycoprotein.
Following administration, the genetic material
of part of corona virus is expressed, which
stimulates an immune response. Whereas, Pfizer-
BioNTech and Moderna vaccines are messenger
RNA vaccines (mRNA vaccines). St.1 T
2. Sputnik V vaccine is named after the first
Soviet space satellite. It is an adenovirus viral
vector vaccine for COVID-19 developed by the
Gamaleya Research Institute of Epidemiology
and Microbiology. It is the world's first registered
combination vector vaccine for the prevention of
COVID-19. St.2 R
3. Covaxin is an indigenous, inactivated pathgen
type vaccine developed and manufactured in
Bharat Biotech's BSL-3 (Bio-Safety Level
3) high containment facility. The vaccine is
developed using Whole-Virion Inactivated Vero
Cell derived platform technology. St. 3 R
Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
– ‘Change of proper nouns type’ statement 1.
Name of Covishield is given in the statement, but
feature of Pfizer and Moderna is given. COVID 19
related question were due since prelims 2020 and
UPSC asked in 2022. Observe 22/97 in S3 also.
S 11 - Virus/Bacteria/Fungi
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements : [22/37]
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within
45
 The Unique Academy
human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing
surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements in respect of
probiotics: [22/38]
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods
we ingest but they do not naturally occur in
our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D | 2-C
Explanations
1. Biofilm is a thin resistant layer of microorganisms
(as bacteria) that forms on and coats various surfaces.
These cells are frequently embedded within a
self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric
substance. Biofilms can form on just about any
surface. St.1 & 2 R. St. 3 R as the biofilm shields the
bacteria from antibiotics and helps bacteria survive
harsh conditions such as extreme temperature or
stress. Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
2. 1. Probiotics are foods that are made up of good
live bacteria or yeasts and are intended to have
health benefits when consumed or applied to the
body. They are found in beauty products, dietary
supplements, yogurt and other fermented foods.
St.1 R
2. Bacteria are not all harmful, some are having
positive functions for us such as digest food,
destroy disease-causing cells, produce vitamins
etc. Many of the microorganisms in probiotic
products naturally live in our bodies. St.2 T
3. St. 3 R
Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 is the answer.
46
Science
S 13 - Genetic Engineering
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements: [22/99]
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in
processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. 1. Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon
dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for
determining the age of an object containing
organic material by using the properties of
radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon.
The method was developed in the late 1940s
at the University of Chicago by Willard Libby.
DNA barcoding is not known to be used for the
assessment of age of living organisms. St.1 T
2. DNA barcoding uses specific regions of DNA
in order to identify species. Initiatives are
taking place around the world to generate DNA
barcodes for all groups of living organisms and
to make these data publicly available in order to
help understand, conserve, and utilize the world's
biodiversity. DNA barcoding will allow users to
efficiently recognize known species and speed
the discovery of species yet to be found in nature.
The introduction of DNA barcoding represents
a promising approach for food authentication,
being broadly applied in fish species. St.2 R &
St. 3 R
Hence, option (d) 2 and 3 is the answer.
- Just think what is the primary function of
barcodes? E.g., when we get billing done in grocery
shop, bar code scanning just tell the product with
x bar code is different from the bar code y and
respective price is shown with already fed inputs in
the system. So, name suggests that first job of DNA
barcoding can be distinguishing species. 2 options (a
Prelims Simplified
 Science
& b) eliminated. Comparing balance options, either
of 1 and 3 will be correct. When DNA barcoding
distinguishes different products, automatically
chances of it being used to identify undesirable
animal or plant materials in processed foods is more.
Also, try recalling Carbon dating method for tracing
age (studied in school books, if not studied for UPSC
prep). We reached answer, with a good probability
of correctness.
S 15 - Electronics & IT
PYQs
1. With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)",
consider the following statements: [22/33]
1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface
and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their
mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms
of SaaS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. Software as a service (SaaS) allows users to
connect to and use cloud-based apps over the
Internet. Common examples are Outlook, Hotmail
and Yahoo! Mail, and office tools like Microsoft
Office 365. In this case, we rent the use of an app
for our organisation and our users connect to it over
the Internet, usually with a web browser. As data is
stored in the cloud, users can access their information
from any Internet-connected computer or mobile
device. Also, as app data is stored in the cloud, no
data is lost if a user’s computer or device fails. All
statements are correct in this context. Hence, option
(d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
- Suppose you have not heard about this
terminology beforehand. But you must have used
either of the Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo mail.
Starting with what we know a little about. Suppose
St. 3 R. Statement 2 should be correct, as we can
access our email data from mobile. Hence, if St.
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
3 R, statement 2 has to be correct. Option (c) is
eliminated. Such small skills of elimination using
what we have heard of, helps in reaching overall best
probable correct answer in the exam hall.
S 16- Futuristic technologies
PYQs
1. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following
statements: [22/32]
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control
their own data.
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain
based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather
than a corporation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which one of the following-is the context in which
the term "qubit" is mentioned? [22/35]
(a) Cloud Services
(b) Quantum Computing
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies
3. With reference to Non- Fungible Tokens (NFTs),
consider the following statements: [22/69]
1. They enable the digital representation of
physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that
exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency
and therefore can be used as a medium of
commercial transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D | 2-B | 3-A
Explanations
1. Web 1.0 is the "read-only Web," Web 2.0 is the
"participative social Web," and Web 3.0 is the
"read, write, execute Web." This Web interaction and
utilization stage moves users away from centralized
47
 The Unique Academy
platforms like Facebook, Google, or Twitter and
towards decentralized, nearly anonymous platforms.
It will be permissionless and democratic. In a Web
3.0 universe, people will control their own data and
will be able to move around from social media
to email to shopping using a single personalized
account, creating a public record on the blockchain
of all of that activity. This Web 3.0 model enables
peer to peer transactions by eliminating the role of
the intermediary. Web3 will deliver a “decentralized
and fair internet where users control their
own data”. Three key features of Web 3.0 are:
Ubiquity, Semantic Web, Artificial Intelligence and
3D Graphics. NFTs or non-fungible tokens are an
example of this. All three statements are correct
in this context. Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the
answer.
2. A quantum bit (qubit) is the smallest unit of
quantum information, which is the quantum analogy
to the regular computer bit. Qubit is used in the field
of quantum computing. Hence, option (b) Quantum
Computing is the answer.
- When you see a terminology-based question and
you don’t know exact answer, think of etymology
(origin of the word and historical development of
its meaning) approach. Here, checking options
Quantum computing has initial words Qu, which
is same as Qu+bit. Try applying mind, where have
you heard bit, in computers context. Here you go, Qu
Bit is analogues to regular computer bit in Quantum
Computing and hence answer. Always remember,
there is no NECESSITY that you have studied
exact concept beforehand to answer the question in
Prelims. In Prelims, answer is in front of you and
you just have to identify, by hook or crook.
3. Fungible means mutually interchangeable. NFTs,
–––––––––––– ––––––––––––
48
Science
are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a
blockchain and cannot be replicated—having a
unique identification code and metadata. Anything
that can be converted into a digital form can be
an NFT. Everything from one’s drawings, photos,
videos, GIF, music, in-game items, selfies, and
even a tweet can be turned into an NFT. NFTs
and cryptocurrencies are very different from each
other. Cryptocurrency is a currency and is fungible,
meaning that it is interchangeable. But NFTs are
non-fungible, that means the value of one NFT is
not equal to another. Every art is different from
other, making it non fungible, and unique. Hence,
not interchangeable. St.3 T. Hence, option (a) 1 and
2 only is the answer.
- Observe the statement combinations in the
options. At max, one of the statements will be
incorrect. There may be two possibilities, either
you know meaning of ‘Fungibility’ or you do not.
Taking first case, statement 3 can easily be negated,
as full form of NFT itself says that these tokens are
not fungible. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect and
answer arrived.
Now, taking second case, when you don’t know the
meaning of Fungibility. Try checking consistency.
Suppose St.1 R. Something is representation of
digital assets, JUST REPRESENTATION. Is it
possible to exchange or trade? Why money was
brought? Check functions of money in Chapter 3 of
Introductory Macroeconomics NCERT. To create
something equivalent to physical assets in terms of
money so that they become tradable, as physical
assets are not tradable. Hence, St. 3 T. Options (c)
and (d) eliminated. Compare remaining options,
either of St.1&3 R. After pondering this much
on the question statements and NON-FUNGIBLE
TOKEN, you might have felt that it indicates towards
interchangeability. If yes, you arrived correct answer.
Prelims Simplified
Current Affairs
 The Unique Academy
C 4 - Health
(including women and child)
PYQs
1. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission,
consider the following statements: [22/19]
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage,
every citizen of India should be part of it
ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-B
Explanations
1. Option (b) 3 only is the answer.
– Suppose you have not read this scheme in
detail. Observe statement 1. It says all hospitals
have to adopt it ‘MUST’. Is it not too much of
micromanagement in present era of 2022, when
we are moving towards minimum government,
maximum governance? It is such a big change that
you must have heard some debates about it, if there
was a provision that PRIVATE HOSPITALS MUST
ADOPT THIS. Statement 1 is incorrect and hence,
only option matching this is the answer.
C 8 - Digital India
PYQs
1. Consider the following: [22/31]
1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN
3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open- source
digital platforms?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans Key - 1-D
50
Current Affairs
Explanations
1. An open-source platform is any platform that
allows access to its source code to any other
developers or users. An open-source platform is
one aspect of a wide availability of open-source
products. Open-source products are oftentimes
part of the free software movement, and the
associated Free Software Foundation founded
by Richard Stallman in 1985. All the given apps
have been built on open-source platforms. Hence,
Option (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the answer.
Additional info -
1. Aarogya Setu - contact-tracing and self-
assessment app for COVID-19
2. DigiLocker - free platform to store and access
important documents
3. DIKSHA - Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge
Sharing- national platform for school education,
an initiative by NCERT
4. Co-WIN - Covid Vaccine Intelligence Network
for identifying target groups, keeping a track of
those to be administered the doses and preventing
malpractices.
C 11 - Skilling and job
PYQs
1. In India, which one of the following compiles
information on industrial disputes, closures,
retrenchments and lay- offs in factories employing
workers? [22/71]
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and
Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Manpower Information
System
Ans Key - 1-C
Explanations
1. Labour Bureau has been engaged in collection,
compilation, analysis and dissemination of labour
statistics at All India and State level on different
facets of labour since its inception in the year 1920.
It releases annual publication titled, ‘Industrial
Prelims Simplified
 Current Affairs
Disputes, Closures, Retrenchments and Lay-Offs
in industries in India’. Hence, option (c) is the
answer.
C 17 – United Nations
PYQs
1. With reference to the United National Convention on
the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
[22/85]
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the
breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not
exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from
baseline determined in accordance with the
convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-
locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage
through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend
beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline
from which the breadth of the territorial sea
is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D
C 19 - International Monetary Fund
PYQs
1. With reference to the "G20 Common Framework",
consider the following statements: [22/04]
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together
with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income
Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans Key - 1-C
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
C 21 - India and others
PYQs
1. Consider the following: [22/66]
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
India is a member of which of the above?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans Key - 1-D
Explanations
1. Option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
Additional info –
33 The Missile Technology Control Regime
(MTCR) is an informal political understanding
among states that seek to limit the proliferation
of missiles and missile technology. The regime
was formed in 1987. India became an official
member of MTCR in 2018.
33 The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
is a transcontinental political, economic, security,
and military alliance founded in 2001. In 2017, at
the historic summit in Astana, India and Pakistan
officially joined SCO as full-fledged members.
The SCO currently comprises Nine Member
States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan and
Iran).
C 22 - Asia
PYQs
1. Consider the following statements: [22/67]
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing
economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party-political
system.
3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its
integration with global supply chains and
focus on exports.
4. For a long time, Vietnam's low labour costs
and stable exchange rates have attracted global
51
 The Unique Academy Current Affairs

manufacturers. Which of the above are members of the Organization

5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service of Turkic States?
sector in the Indo-Pacific region. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) 2 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Ans Key - 1-C | 2-C

Ans Key - 1-C Explanations

Explanations 1. The Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is located in

Uganda. St.1 T. Rest statements are correct.
1. Vietnam is a one-party communist state, not a Hence, option (c) 2 and 3 is the answer.
multi-party parliamentary democracy. St.2 T. In
2. Organization of Turkic States, an
Indo-Pacific region, countries like Philippines,
intergovernmental organization, was established
Singapore and Indonesia are ahead of Vietnam
in 2009 by four founding member states are
in e-commerce productivity. St.5 T. All other
Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Turkey.
statements are correct in this context. Hence,
In 2019, Uzbekistan joined as a full member.
option (c) 1, 3 and 4 is the answer.
Hence option (c) 2 and 5 is the correct answer.
– Observe statement 3. What is the possibility
Note - Relative position of Mediterranean area,
of negation of this statement? Economic growth of
middle east, north Africa region countries and
any country is linked to its integration with global
grouping is one of the favorite areas of UPSC (reason
supply and exports. Anything special in Vietnam?
being instability and consistently being in news).
Not really. St. 3 R. This eliminated two options and
Also, refer questions in themes G23 & G24.
2/3rd job is done. Comparing balance options, either
St.5 R or St.1 & 4 R together. Low labour cost of
Vietnam and Bangladesh is generally heard in news, C 27 - Global Indices and reports
against Indian costs. Here you go, answer arrived.
PYQs
C 23 - Outside Asia
1. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines,
consider the following statements: [22/44]
PYQs 1. The 24-hour mean of PM 2.5 should not
exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5
1. Consider the following statements: [22/82]
should not exceed 5 µg/m3.
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution
western Kenya.
occur during the periods of inclement weather.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter
war live in Bidibidi.
the bloodstream.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in
Kenya. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Ans Key - 1-B
2. Consider the following countries: [22/83]
1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan Explanations
3. Croatia 4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan 1.  Ozone at ground level is one of the major
constituents of photochemical smog. It

52 Prelims Simplified
 Current Affairs
is formed by the reaction with sunlight
(photochemical reaction) of pollutants such
as nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle and
industry emissions and volatile organic
compounds (VOCs) emitted by vehicles,
solvents and industry. As a result, the highest
levels of ozone pollution occur during periods
of sunny weather. St.2 T
33 PM 10 can penetrate and lodge deep inside the
lungs, whereas PM2.5 can penetrate the lung
barrier and enter the blood system. St. 3 T
Rest statements are correct in this context. Hence,
option (b) 1 and 4 only is the answer.
C 30 - Others
PYQs
1. Which one of the following statements best describes
the 'Polar Code'? [22/77]
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships
–––––––––––– ––––––––––––
Prelims Simplified
The Unique Academy
operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the
North Pole regarding the demarcation of their
territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the
countries whose scientists undertake research
studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the
member countries of the Arctic Council.
Ans Key - 1-A
Explanations
1. Polar Code sets out regulations for shipping
in the polar regions, principally relating to
ice navigation and ship design. They have
been adopted by the International Maritime
Organization in 2014. Option (a) is the answer.
Note - Observe the incorrect options to understand
mind of paper setter in forming incorrect options.
53
54
14.17 Budget profile of India and relative idea of numbers
Rupee comes from
Borrowings and other Liabilities ����35p
Corporation Tax�������������������������������15p
Rupee goes to
Inccome tax �������������������������������������15p
Centrally Sponsored Schemes ������ 9p
Customs ��������������������������������������������5p Central Sector Schemes�������������� 15p
Union Excise Duties��������������������������7p
The Unique Academy

Interest Payments������������������������ 20p

Goods and Services Tax�������������������16p Defence����������������������������������������� 8p
Non- Tax Revenue�����������������������������5p Subsidies��������������������������������������� 8p
Non - Debt Capital Receipts��������������2p Finace Commision and
Other Transfers���������������������������� 10p
States Share of Taxes & Duties��� 17p
Pensions���������������������������������������� 4p
Other Expenditure������������������������� 9p

Fig 14.9: Budget profile of India (2022-23) (Source : https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/)

This chart is given here to let aspirants just having a relative idea of numbers of the Budget of India. A relative idea of numbers will help in negation of options.
No need to mug up the numbers. E.g. in 2017 Prelims, a question statement consisted whether National Investment and Infrastructure Fund has a corpus of
Rs. 4,00,000 crore at present. Try relating it with this chart, our whole budget for the country is 30 lakh crores in 2019. Can NIIF have a corpus of 4 lakh crores in

Prelims Simplified
2017? Is it not too big in our country where budget is 30 lakh crores? I think, Yes. This relative idea of number may help in intelligent guessing in the exam hall.
 The Unique Academy

14.18 Economy at a glance

(Source - PIB)

in the graphs. You just have to take a feel about numbers and trends,
* There is no need to remember the exact numbers and trends given

try think why did it decrease in a particular year or so. COVID or

other reasons, if any. Why is more important than what.
Nominal GDP = GDP evaluated at current market prices
Real GDP = GDP evaluated at a set of constant prices
- Nominal GDP or GDP at Current Prices in the year 2021-22 is estimated at Rs. 230 lakh crore
- Real GDP or GDP at Constant Prices (2011-12) in the year 2021-22 is estimated at Rs. 150 lakh crore
(Data of 2022, source PIB)
Data has been approximated to let aspirants have a general overview of the numbers. It is just given you for a cursory
review and to feel the data.

14.19 Macro view of India’s trade

Source - https://commerce.gov.in/ (Taken on 05 Dec 2022)

Please do not try mugging up these data. It is just given you for a cursory review and to feel the data. Pause on the
number for a while and try thinking, relating it with your knowledge and estimate of numbers. Trend is important, not
the absolute value. It may help in elimination of question statements in the exam.

Prelims Simplified 55
 The Unique Academy

14.20 Budgetary Deficits simplified

(Source - PIB & Budget)
All number in lakh crores and approximated to give simplicity & general idea.
A. Receipt and Expenditure numbers
Receipts Expenditure Remarks
Revenue receipts = 19.3 (Tax revenue) + 2.7 (Non Tax revenue)
Revenue 22.0 31.9 Revenue expenditure has inclusion of Interest payment = 9.4 and Grant
in aid for creation of capital assets = 3.2

Capital 0.8 7.5 Capital receipts = 0.14 (recovery of loans) + 0.65 (other borrowings)

22.8 39.4

B. Deficit – Types, formulas and statistics for 2022-23 Budgetary estimate (BE)
Value for
Percentage
Term Formula/definition Calculations 2022-23
of GDP
(BE)
Fiscal deficit* Total expenditure - Total receipts = 39.4-22.8 16.6 6.4

Revenue expenditure - Revenue

Revenue deficit = 31.9 – 22.0 9.9 3.8
receipts

Effective Revenue Revenue deficit - grants for creation

= 9.9-3.2 6.7 2.6
deficit# of capital assets
Primary deficit Fiscal deficit - Interest payments = 16.6-9.4 7.2 2.8

*- Fiscal deficit equals to total borrowing (major component is market borrowing) and when borrowing is added
to capital receipt, total receipt = total expenditure
#- Effective revenue deficit was introduced in Budget 2011-12
C. Trends in deficits D. Sources of Deficit financing

56 Prelims Simplified
 The Unique Academy

Protected areas and Conservation sites in India

Protected Areas of India

Protected areas are those in which human occupation or at least the exploitation of resources is limited. There are
several kinds of protected areas, which vary by level of protection, depending on the enabling laws of each country or
the regulations of the international organizations involved.
The term "protected area" also includes :
33 Marine Protected Areas, the boundaries of which will include some area of ocean, and
33 Transboundary Protected Areas that overlap multiple countries that remove the borders inside the area for
conservation and economic purposes.

Protected Areas of India

No. Approx total area (in 1000 km2) Coverage % of Country
National Parks (NPs) 106 44.4 1.35
Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLSs) 564 122.5 3.73
Conservation Reserves (CRs) 99 4.7 0.14
Community Reserves 218 1.4 0.04
Protected Areas (PAs) 987 173.0 5.26
Table 9.1: Number and areas of Protected areas in India
(Latest data as available on https://wii.gov.in/nwdc_national_parks) Last updated in December 2022
Remembering areas of each type is not of much need. They have been given here just for an idea, understanding
trend of protection and conservation in India.

Conservation sites in India

Conservation Areas are areas of notable environmental or historical interest or importancewhich is protected by law
against undesirable changes. These areas are conserved by varying levels of legal protection which are given by the
policies formulated by the government or global conventions
Reserves/ Sites
Tiger Reserves
Elephant Reserves
Biosphere Reserves
RAMSAR Wetland Sites
Natural World Heritage Sites
Cultural World Heritage Sites
Mixed World Heritage Sites
Important Coastal and Marine Biodiversity Areas
Marine Protected Areas
Important Bird Areas
Potential Important Bird Areas
Key Biodiversity Areas
Biodiversity Heritage Sites
Table 9.2: conservation sites in India

Prelims Simplified 57
The Unique Academy

14.22 Ramsar sites in India

Fig 14.11: Location of Ramsar sites in India

(Source : ENVIS RP & SACON website)

58 Prelims Simplified
 The Unique Academy

North India
Area
Sl. no. Name of Ramsar site State Description
(in sq kms)
1. Wular Lake JK Largest freshwater lake in India 189
2. Hokera Wetland JK Natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin 13.75
3. Surinsar-Mansar Lakes JK Freshwater composite lake, Hindu sacred site, Mahabharata period 3.5
Hygam wetland conservation
4. JK River Jhelum basin, IBA 8.02
reserve
Shallbugh wetland
5. JK A major natural floodplain system. 16.75
conservation reserve
Freshwater to brackish lake, lying at 4600 m above sea level, Black-necked
6. Tsomoriri Lake JK 120
crane, Bar-headed geese, no outflow (evaporation), sacred Buddhist site
Tso Kar Wetland Complex high-altitude wetland complex 4,500 m above sea level, two connected
7. LD 95.77
(2020) lakes, the freshwater Startsapuk Tso and the larger hypersaline Tso Kar
8. Chandertal Wetland HP High altitude lake, Snow Leopard 0.49
HP A water storage reservoir created in 1975 on the Beas River, location
9. Pong Dam Lake HP 156.62
on the trans-Himalayan flyway
Natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst
10. Renuka Wetland HP 0.2
formations, name from Parshuram’s mother
11. Harike Lake PB Shallow water reservoir with thirteen islands 41
12. Kanjli Lake PB Invasive water hyacinth, Sikh pilgrimage 1.83
Human-made wetland of lake and river, barrage for diversion of water
13. Ropar Lake PB 13.65
from the Sutlej River
human-made reservoir constructed as part of the Bhakra-Nangal Project,
14. Nangal Wildlife Sanctuary PB 1.16
“Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence” formalized here in 1954
15. Beas Conservation Reserve PB endangered Indus River dolphin. 64.289
Keshopur-Miani Community
16. PB mixture of natural marshes, aquaculture ponds, and agricultural wetlands 3.439
Reserve
17. Upper Ganga River UP UP Brijghat to Narora Stretch 265.9
18. Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary UP -- 2.246
19. Parvati Agra Bird Sanctuary UP permanent freshwater habitat made up of two oxbow lakes 7.22
20. Saman Bird Sanctuary UP UP seasonal oxbow lake on the Ganges floodplain 52.63
21. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary UP six linked lakes 79.94
22. Sandi Bird Sanctuary UP freshwater marsh 30.85
23. Sarsai Nawar Jheel UP name of the site refers to this non-migratory giant sarus crane, IBA 16.13
24. Sur Sarovar UP Also called as Keetham Lake, is a man-made reservoir 4.31
25. Haiderpur Wetland UP situated in the Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary,  artificial lake 69.08
26. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary UP -- 28.94
27. Asan Conservation Reserve UK stretch of the Asan River until its confluence with the Yamuna River 4.444
stopover along the Central Asian Flyway, home to five critically
28. Kabartal Wetland BH endangered species, namely three vultures (redheaded, white-rumped, and 26.20
Indian vulture) and two waterbirds (sociable lapwing and Baer’s pochard)
29. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary HR human-made freshwater wetland 4.12
30. Sultanpur National Park HR -- 1.425

West India
Area
Sl no Name of Ramsar site State Description
(in sq kms)
31. Keoladeo Ghana NP RJ World Heritage Site; National Park; Bird Sanctuary. 10 artificial, seasonal 28.73
lagoons, Montreux Record (water shortage and an unbalanced grazing
regime), invasive growth of grass Paspalum distichum
32. Sambhar Lake RJ Saline lake fed by four streams 240
33. Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary GJ Natural freshwater lake (a relict sea), site within Central Asia Flyway, 120
Indian Wild Ass

Prelims Simplified 59
The Unique Academy

34. Wadhvana Wetland (2021) GJ -- 6.30

35. Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary GJ artificial lake, Central Asian Flyway 6.99
36. Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary GJ part of the Central Asian Flyway 5.12
37. Bhoj Wetlands MP Two contiguous human-made reservoirs 32.01
38. Sakhya Sagar MP man-made wetland in the Madhav National Park 2.48
39. Sirpur wetland MP culturally important 1.61
40. Yashwant Sagar  MP IBA, water supply to Indore 8.23
41. Nandur Madhameshwar MH mix of lakes, marshes, and riparian forests, junction of the Godavari and 14.37
Kadva Rivers
42. Lonar Lake MH formed by a meteorite impact 4.27
43. Thane Creek MH Thane Creek Flamingo Sanctuary, IBA 65.21

North East India

Area
Sl no Name of Ramsar site State Description
(in sq kms)
44. Deepor Beel AS Fresh-water lake, only major storm water storage basin for Guwahati, 40
migratory flyway
45. Loktak Lake MN Freshwater lake, Montreux Record (deforestation in the catchment area, 266
infestation of water hyacinth, and pollution), phumdis
46. Rudrasagar Lake TR Three-striped Roof Turtle Kachuga dhongka 2.4
47. Pala Wetlands Mizoram reasonably deep lake with surrounding forest catchment region,
endangered Hoolock gibbon and Phayre’s leaf monkey. The
indigenous Mara people

East India
Area
Sl no Name of Ramsar site State Description
(in sq kms)
48. East Kolkata Wetlands WB Treating the city’s waste water and utilizing the treated water for 125
pisciculture and agriculture
49. Sunderbans Wetland WB Largest mangrove forest in the world, over 60% of the country’s total 4230
mangrove forest area, Tiger Reserve, Batagur baska, Irrawaddy dolphin
50. Chilka Lake OD Brackish lake, Montreux Record (added & removed 1165
51. Bhitarkanika Mangroves OD Diverse mangrove forests, Gahirmatha beach, Olive Ridley sea turtle, 650
saltwater crocodile
52. Satkosia Gorge OD Gorge over Mahanadi, meeting point of two biogeographic regions of 981.97
India; the Deccan Peninsula and the Eastern Ghats
53. Tampara Lake OD freshwater lakes 3
54. Hirakud Reservoir OD largest earthen dam in Odisha 654
55. Ansupa Lake  OD oxbow lake formed by River Mahanadi 2.31

South India
Area
Sl no Name of Ramsar site State Description
(in sq kms)
AP Natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two river basins of
56. Kolleru Lake AP 901
Godavari and Krishna
Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Coastal area, Lord Rama’s footprints, Spoonbill Sandpiper, Grey
57. TN 385
Sanctuary Pelican
58. Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest TN aquatic buffer for the flood-prone districts of Chennai and Chengalpattu 12.48
59. Karikili Bird Sanctuary TN two rain-fed non-perennial irrigation tanks 0.58
60. Pichavaram Mangrove TN situated between the important estuaries of the Vellar and Coleroon Rivers 14.79
Udhayamarthandapuram Bird
61. TN breeding sites for the darter & Eurasian spoonbill, 0.44
Sanctuary
62. Koonthankulam Bird Sanctuary TN part of the Central Asian Flyway, IBA 0.72
63. Vellode Bird Sanctuary TN Periyakulam Yeri, part ofthe Central Asian Flyway. 0.77
64. Vembannur Wetland Complex TN human-made inland tank, southernmost tip of peninsular India, IBA 0.20

60 Prelims Simplified
 The Unique Academy

freshwater wetland, multifold–Liquid Guano Effect, Coromandel

65. Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary TN 0.40
Coast biotic province, IBA
Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere 117 species of corals, Dugong, whale shark, sea horses, Balanoglossus,
66. TN 526.72
Reserve green sea turtle, Hawksbill turtle, dolphins, sacred chanks
67. Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary TN -- 2.60
Suchindram Theroor Wetland IBA, southern tip of the Central Asian flyway, man-made, inland
68. TN 0.94
Complex Tank, Copper plate inscriptions from the 9th century
69. Vaduvur Bird Sanctuary TN human-made irrigation tank 1.13
70. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary  TN -- 0.97
71. Asthamudi Wetland KR Estuarine system, fishing, mangrove species 614
72. Sasthamkotta Lake KR Freshwater lake, exceptional purity (cavaborus), Sastha temple 3.73
73. Vembanad Kol Wetland KR Brackish, fed by 10 rivers 1512.5
74. Ranganathituu bird sanctuary KN riverine wetland, IBA 5.18
75. Nanda Lake Goa Zuari River, freshwater marshes 0.42

Ramsar sites in India Note (Updated in Aug. 2022)

14.23 Tiger Reserves and National Parks in India

1. States and Union Territories have been categorized into five parts based on Geography. Even if you remember
that a particular National Park was in the Western group of states, you will be able to eliminate some of the
options. Use pictorial or visual memory when the information bundle is bulky.
2. For any specific group of states or Union Territories, Tiger Reserves map from the WII ENVIS website has
been shown. A list with the Tiger reserves and National parks in the states/UT is also given.
3. Often Tiger Reserves and National Park areas overlap. In such areas, they have been indicated in the same row.
4. National Parks, for which there is no corresponding Tiger Reserve area in the map, have not been shown one
the map, but mentioned in the list. Aspirants are advised to find the location through Google maps, WII Envis
site or otherwise and mark the same.

Prelims Simplified 61
 The Unique Academy

Annexure IV – Mains syllabus Simplified

IV A. Concept introduction.............................................................................................................................. 535
IV B. Prelims themes and overlapping Mains syllabus . ................................................................................. 535
IV C. Exclusive Mains syllabus....................................................................................................................... 537

IV A. Concept introduction
Generally, there are 100-110 days (110 days in CSE 2023 exam) to CSE Mains after Prelims. This much time is
generally insufficient for Mains preparation, in case one aspirant starts Mains prep and answer writing from scratch.
Everyone should have a customised approach based on individual parameters (a few listed below), regarding how much
of Mains syllabus one should cover before Prelims:
 Prelims preparation level, score in mocks
 Which exam s/he is targeting – CSE/IFS/both
 If s/he has cleared CSE/IFS prelims in previous attempts
 Optional subject preparation level, including notes/answer writing.
As highlighted above, this annexure does not advice that such an such Mains syllabus should be covered Prelims. It
just segregates Mains syllabus into two parts viz. Syllabus related to Prelims themes and relatively unrelated to Prelims
theme. This annexure aligns CSE Mains syllabus (Essay and GS I - IV) in line with thematic approach of this book.
In case, an aspirant plans to cover 20%, 40%, 60% etc of Mains GS syllabus before Prelims, s/he should precisely
know that which all parts of Mains syllabus are RELATIVELY* aligned to their present thematic preparation and
plan accordingly. This correlation between Prelims and Mains syllabus is mandatory for integrated preparation and
sometimes, it takes some attempts to decode the same.
Also, this annexure plans to let aspirants know, what are the keywords in Mains syllabus corresponding to themes
e.g. Extract from GS I Syllabus - ‘salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern
times’. Now, when an aspirant cover culture head of Prelims, s/he can have special emphasis on theme H17 – Literature.
Cover PYQs of the same both in Prelims & Mains, relate them and integrate the Prelims and Mains preparation.
*- The term relative segregation is used, as there is nothing very absolutely defined in Prelims & Mains syllabus and absolute
segregation is not possible. However, somewhere we will have to draw a line. Hence, this annexure keeps Mains syllabus Prelims
head-wise and some parts though remotely related are put as exclusive to Mains syllabus. E.g. World mapping and International
relations may be a bit related, but International relations is kept in exclusive portion, due to relatively unrelated preparation of
these two in comparison to others like Culture for Prelims and Mains.
IV B. Prelims themes and overlapping Mains syllabus
Below section consists of Heads in Prelims syllabus, list of corresponding themes and related CSE Mains syllabus
of General studies papers I to IV. Whatever is present in Italics in below table, they are verbatim UPSC Mains syllabus.
In below table, GS I syllabus is present in History & Geography subject heads. GS II in Polity and Current
affairs subject heads. GS III in History, Geography, Economy, Environment and Science subject heads.
Sub. Head Themes CSE Mains syllabus
1. Ancient History
2. Medieval History 33 GS I - Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and
H1 to H19
3. Religious beliefs Architecture from ancient to modern times.
4. Culture
History (H)

33 GS I - Modern Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until
H20 to the present- significant events, personalities, issues.
5. Modern History H35 33 GS I - The Freedom Struggle – its various stages and important contributors /
contributions from different parts of the country.
33 GS I - Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country.
6. Post- 33 GS III - Effects of liberalization on the economy, changes in industrial policy and
H36
independence their effects on industrial growth.
33 GS III - Land reforms in India.

62 Prelims Simplified
 The Unique Academy

33 GS I - Salient features of the world’s physical geography.

33 GS I - Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic
1. Physical
G1 to G10 activity, cyclone etc., geographical features and their location- changes in critical
Geography
geographical features (including water bodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna
and the effects of such changes.
2. Indian Geography G11 to G14 ---
3. India Mapping G15 to G22 ---
4. World Mapping G23 to G25 ---
Geography (G)

33 GS III - Major crops cropping patterns in various parts of the country, different types
of irrigation and irrigation systems storage, transport and marketing of agricultural
produce and issues and related constraints; e-technology in the aid of farmers.
33 GS III - Major Issues related to direct and indirect farm subsidies and minimum
5.  Agriculture G26 to G30 support prices; Public Distribution System- objectives, functioning, limitations,
revamping; issues of buffer stocks and food security; Technology missions;
economics of animal-rearing.
33 GS III - Food processing and related industries in India- scope and significance,
location, upstream and downstream requirements, supply chain management.
6.  Energy G31 to G33 33 GS III - Infrastructure: Energy……
33 GS I - Distribution of key natural resources across the world (including South
7.  Human G34 to
G36 Asia and the Indian subcontinent); factors responsible for the location of primary,
Geography
secondary, and tertiary sector industries in various parts of the world (including India)
33 GS II - Indian Constitution- historical underpinnings, evolution, features,
amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.
33 GS II - Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and
challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up
1.  Preamble, Sch. to local levels and challenges therein.
& Part 3, 4, 4A 33 GS II - Separation of powers between various organs; dispute redressal mechanisms
2.  Executive P1 to P18 and institutions.
3.  Legislature 33 GS II - Comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with that of other countries
4. Judiciary 33 GS II - Parliament and State Legislatures – structure, functioning, the conduct of
Polity (P)

business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.

33 GS II - Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary
Ministries and Departments of the Government; pressure groups and formal/
informal associations and their role in the Polity.
5.  Part 9 to 20 of
P19 to P26 33 GS II - Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act.
the Constitution
33 GS II - Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and
6.  Bodies P27 to P31 responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies.
33 GS II - Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.
7.  Philosophical, amds
P32 to P36 ---
& judgements
Eco 1 to
1.  Basics Eco 2 ---
2. Fiscal policy 33 GS III - Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources,
& Government growth, development and employment.
Eco 3 to
Economy (Eco)

budgeting 33 GS III - Inclusive growth and issues arising from it.

Eco 8
3.  Monetary policy 33 GS III - Government Budgeting.
& Inflation
Eco 9 to
4. Banking Eco 12 ---
5. Finance & Eco 13 to
Eco 14 33 GS III - Investment models.
investment
Eco 15 to
6. External sector Eco 16 ---

Prelims Simplified 63
 The Unique Academy

Env 1 to
1. Theory Env 4
2. Environmental
Env 5 to 33 GS III - Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental
problems and
Environment (Env)

Env 12 impact assessment.

solutions
3.  International Env 13 to
Env 17 ---
initiatives
4.  National Env 18 to
Env 22 ---
initiatives
5.  Protected areas and Env 23 to
Env 26 ---
Conservation sites
Env 27 to
6.  Species Env 30 ---
1.  General Science S1 to S3 ---
2.  Space, 33 GS III - Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects
Communications
Science (S)

in everyday life.
and Defence
33 GS III- Achievements of Indians in science & technology; indigenization of
3.  Health S4 to S16
technology and developing new technology.
4.  Emerging
technologies and 33 GS III- Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, robotics, nanotechnology,
research areas biotechnology and issues relating to intellectual property rights.
1.  National 33 GS II- Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors
C1 to C16
initiatives and issues arising out of their design and implementation.
Current Affairs (C)

2.  International
C17 to C25 ---
initiatives
3.  Indices and
C26 to C27 ---
reports
4.  Sporadically
asked factual C28 to C30 ---
themes

IV C. Exclusive Mains syllabus

Above section consisted of Mains syllabus related to Prelims themes in this book, whereas this section consists of
residual syllabus of Essay and GS I- IV syllabus to aid planning of aspirants. Aspirants can assume this section syllabus
as exclusive Mains part and plan accordingly to their parameters.

Essay paper
In Essay Paper, candidates may be required to write essays on multiple topics. They will be expected to keep closely
to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in an orderly fashion and to write concisely. Credit will be given
for effective and exact expression.

General Studies I
• History of the world  will include events from the 18th century such as industrial revolution, world wars,
redrawal of national boundaries, colonization, decolonization, political philosophies like communism,
capitalism, socialism etc.- their forms and effect on the society.
• Salient features of Indian Society, Diversity of India.
• Role of women and women’s organization, population and associated issues, poverty and developmental
issues, urbanization, their problems and their remedies.
• Effects of globalization on Indian society
• Social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism.

64 Prelims Simplified
 The Unique Academy

General Studies II
• Development processes and the development industry- the role of NGOs, SHGs, various groups and associations,
donors, charities, institutional and other stakeholders.
• Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States and the performance of
these schemes; mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bodies constituted for the protection and betterment of these
vulnerable sections.
• Issues relating to the development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education,
Human Resources.
• Issues relating to poverty and hunger.
• Important aspects of governance, transparency and accountability, e-governance- applications, models, successes,
limitations, and potential; citizens charters, transparency & accountability and institutional and other measures.
• Role of civil services in a democracy.
• India and its neighbourhood- relations.
• Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.
• Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests, Indian Diaspora.
• Important International institutions, agencies and fora- their structure, mandate.
General Studies III
• Infrastructure: … Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways etc.
• Disaster and disaster management.
• Linkages between development and spread of extremism.
• Role of external state and non-state actors in creating challenges to internal security.
• Challenges to internal security through communication networks, the role of media and social networking sites
in internal security challenges, basics of cyber security; money-laundering and its prevention.
• Security challenges and their management in border areas; linkages of organized crime with terrorism.
• Various Security forces and agencies and their mandate.
General Studies IV
General Studies 4 Paper Syllabus for UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of the below major areas: Ethics,
Integrity, and Aptitude.
Details of the syllabus as provided by UPSC is as below: 
• This paper will include questions to test the candidates’ attitude and approach to issues relating to integrity,
probity in public life and his problem-solving approach to various issues and conflicts faced by him in dealing
with society. Questions may utilise the case study approach to determine these aspects. The following broad
areas will be covered:
• Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, determinants and consequences of Ethics in human actions; dimensions
of ethics; ethics in private and public relationships. Human Values – lessons from the lives and teachings of great
leaders, reformers and administrators; role of family, society and educational institutions in inculcating values.
• Attitude: content, structure, function; its influence and relation with thought and behaviour; moral and
political attitudes; social influence and persuasion.
• Aptitude and foundational values for Civil Service, integrity, impartiality and non-partisanship, objectivity,
dedication to public service, empathy, tolerance and compassion towards the weaker sections.
• Emotional intelligence-concepts, and their utilities and application in administration and governance.
• Contributions of moral thinkers and philosophers from India and the world.
• Public/Civil service values and Ethics in Public administration: Status and problems; ethical concerns and
dilemmas in government and private institutions; laws, rules, regulations and conscience as sources of ethical
guidance; accountability and ethical governance; strengthening of ethical and moral values in governance;
ethical issues in international relations and funding; corporate governance.
• Probity in Governance: Concept of public service; Philosophical basis of governance and probity; Information
sharing and transparency in government, Right to Information, Codes of Ethics, Codes of Conduct, Citizen’s
Charters, Work culture, Quality of service delivery, Utilization of public funds, challenges of corruption.
• Case Studies on the above issues.

Prelims Simplified 65
 The Unique Academy

Annexure -VI : Thematic division of the syllabus

This book divides the whole Prelims syllabus into 200 themes. Subject-wise list of themes has been given in chapters 6 to
12. This annexure provides all the 200 themes at one place. H6 Sultanate 3/58 denotes that there are 3 question in theme H6
and that is available at page 58 of this book.

1. Ancient History 2. Medieval History 3. Religious beliefs H13 Dance 5/92

H1 Indus Valley
Civilisation 5/66
H2 Vedic 3/67
H3 Mauryan and
Post Mauryan 3/68
HISTORY
H5 South H9 Buddhism 11/80 H14 Painting 5/93
(including H10 Jainism 4/83 H15 Music 3/94
Vijaynagar) 8/72 H11 Bhakti/Sufi 6/84 H16 Festival 3/95
H6 Sultanate 3/73 4. Culture H17 Literature and
H7 Mughal 5/75 H12 Architecture and \ Language 10/96
H8 Terminologies H18 Schools of

H4 Gupta and Sculpture (including

Post Gupta 8/68 and Miscellaneous temple architecture) Philosophy 3/98
13/76 16/87 H19 Martial Arts 1/99

5. Modern History Personalities Specific themes H 31Princely States 1/121

Timeline
H20 Pre 1857 7/100
H21 1857 mutiny
and 1858-1905 3/102
H22 1905-19 9/103
H23 1919-39 9/104
H24 1939-47 10/107
H25 Associated H27 Major Acts 10/115 H32 Land Policies 3/121
Organisation/ H28 Socio-Religious H33 Peasant Movement 3/122
Movement 8/109 Reforms 4/117 H34 Labour Movement 2/123
H26 Other H29 Economic H35 Tribal Movement 3/124
Contributions impact 4/119
11/112 H30 Education 4/120 6. Post-independence
H36 Post-independence 5/125

1. Physical Geography 2. Indian Geography 3. India Mapping

G1 Earth in Solar system 6/129 G11 Structure/ G15 Rivers-origin and tributaries 5/145
G2 Origin & evolution of earth 4/130 Physiography 3/140 G16 River paths (places, topography etc) 6/146
G3 Geomorphic process 1/131 G12 Climate 4/141 G17 Lakes 3/148
G4 Atmosphere 1/132 G13 Natural Vegetations 4/142 G18 Coast & Islands 4/148
GEOGRAPHY

G5 Solar radiation 3/132 G14 Soils 4/143 G19 Hills 5/150

G6 Atmospheric circulation 5/133 G20 State position + boundary 3/151
4. World Mapping
G7 Water in the atmosphere 1/135 G21 State characteristics 3/152
G23 Seas and their borders 10/154
G8 Water (Oceans) 3/135 G22 Famous places 4/152
G24 Area in News 8/157
G9 Movement of ocean 7/136
G25 Other Current related world
G10 Climatic regions 8/138
mapping 3/158
5. Agriculture
6. Energy 7. Human Geography
G26 Good practices 16/160
G31 Fossil based sources 12/176 G34 Population density,
G27 Crops 8/165
G32 Non-fossil based sources 13/179 distribution and growth 2/185
G28 Propagation techniques 5/167
G33 Resource use efficiency 5/183 G35 Tribes 4/185
G29 Agri economics 13/169
G36 Minerals 7/187
G30 GM crops 6/174

1. Preamble, Schedules & Part 3, 4, 4A 2. Executive 3. Legislature

P1 Preamble and Schedules 7/193 P7 President (Article 52-62) 6/203 Parliament (Article 79-122)
P2 Part III- Fundamental Rights (Article 12-35) 9/195 P8 Governor (Article 153-162) 4/205 P10 General and Officers of
P3 Part IV- DPSP (Article 36-51) 6/197 P9 Prime Minister Parliament (Article 79-98) 7/208
(Article 74-75, 77-78) 3/206 P11 Legislative Procedure
P4 Part IVA- Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) 4/199
(Arti. 107-111) 6/211
P5 Mixed 8/200
4. Judiciary P12 Procedure in Financial
P6 Rights other than Matters (Article 112-117) 4/212
P16 Supreme Court (Article 124-147) 10/217
Fundamental Rights 5/201
POLITY

P17 High Court (Article 214-231) 1/220 P13 Motions 3/214

5. Part 9 to 20 of the Constitution P18 Subordinate Courts (Article 233-237) 6/220 P14 Committees 3/214
Local government 6. Bodies P15 State legislature
P19 Panchayat (Part 9) (Article 243-243O) 4/224 P27 Election Commission (Article 168-212) 3/215
P20 PESA 2/225 (Article 324) 1/232
7. Philosophical, amendments and cases
P21 Municipality (Part 9A) (Article 243P-243ZG) 1/226 P28 Finance Commission
(Article 280) 3/232
Philosophical type
P22 Relations between the Union and the States (Part 11)
P29 Comptroller & Audit P32 Preamble keywords 4/239
(Article 245-263) 6/226
General of India P33 Forms of Government 10/240
P23 Funds (Article 266-267) 2/228
P24 Elections (Part 15, Article 324-329) and election laws 4/229 (Article 148-151) 1/233 P34 Others 4/243
P25 Emergency provisions (Part 18) (Article 352-360) 2/230 P30 Attorney General of India P35 Important amendments 1/245
(Article 76) 2/234
P26 Amendment of the Constitution (Part 20) (Article 368) 2/231 P36 Important judgments 5/245
P31 Other bodies 10/235

66 Prelims Simplified
 The Unique Academy

1. Basics 2. Fiscal policy & Government budgeting

Eco 1 Human and social development 7/251 Eco 3 National income 6/256
Eco 2 Other basic concepts in economy 9/253 Eco 4 Budget 10/258
Eco 5 Taxation 8/262
ECONOMY
Eco 6 Five-year plans 2/264
3. Monetary policy & Inflation 4. Banking
Eco 7 Inflation 10/266 Eco 9 Banking operations 6/275
Eco 8 RBI & Monetary policy 17/268 Eco 10 Banking regulations 9/276
Eco 11 Digital economy 4/279
Eco 12 Financial inclusion 10/280
5. Finance & investment 6. External sector
Eco 13 FDI, FII, Bonds, disinvestment 15/ 283 Eco 15 Balance of payment 10/290
Eco 14 Tools (Money and Capital market) 8/288 Eco 16 Currency and Foreign exchange 11/293

1. Theory 2. Environmental problems and solutions

Env1 Ecology/Biodiversity basics 9/299
Env2 Food chain/web/Cycles 12/301
Env3 Adaptations 4/304
Env4 Patterns/distribution 4/305
ENVIRONMENT
Environmental Problems
Env5 Global issues like Climate change 6/307
Env6 National/local issues including Pollution 2/308
Solutions to environmental problems

3. International initiatives Env7 Solutions to Global issues 5/309

Env13 About summit/conferences 6/323 Env8 Solutions to National/local issues including Pollution mitigation 4/310
Env14 Formation/Parent org 15/325 Chemical/ pollutants
Env15 Aim/working 5/330 Env9 Source 21/311
Env16 Fund 4/332 Env10 Threat 2/316
Env17 Terminology 10/333 Env11 Remedy/alternate usage 7/317
Env12 Consequences of Environmental hazards 8/319
4. National initiatives
Env18 Environment Legislations 9/336 5. Protected areas and Conservation sites 6. Species
Env19 Forests & Wildlife Legislations 10/339 Env23 Basic theory 3/345 Env27 Flora 8/351
Env20 Rules and regulations 3/342 Env24 Location 9/345 Fauna
Env21 Institutions 2/343 Env25 Climate 4/348 Env28 Categorization 9/353
Env22 Missions and policies 2/344 Env26 Other Current affairs 6/349 Env29 Location 14/355
Env30 Threat 2/358

1. General Science 2. Space, Communications and Defence

S1 Physics 7/361 Space
S2 Chemistry 4/363 S4 Concepts 8/367 S5 Indian initiatives 4/369
S3 Biology 3/365 S6 International initiatives 5/371
SCIENCE

3. Health
S10 Diseases and Vaccines 13/377
S11 Virus/Bacteria/Fungi 9/380
S12 Healthy food/clean water 5/382
Communications
S7 Concepts 8/371 S8 Initiatives 2/374
S9 Defence 4/375
4. Emerging technologies and research areas
S13 Genetic Engineering 13/385
S14 Recent scientific researches 2/389
S15 Electronics & IT 8/390
S16 Futuristic technologies 12/392

1. National initiatives 2. International Initiatives

C1 Rural India 2/400 C17 United Nations 7/423
C2 Agriculture 10/401 C18 World Bank and other banks 3/425
CURRENT AFFAIRS

C3 Food 6/404 C19 International Monetary Fund 5/426

C4 Health (including women and child) 5/406 C20 WTO and other trade groupings 8/427
C5 Education 4/407 C21 India and others 13/429
C6 Infrastructure 3/408 C22 Asia 6/432
C7 DBT and UID 3/409 C23 Outside Asia 7/434
C8 Digital India 4/410 C24 Nuclear/Weapon related 10/435
C9 Economy 9/411 C25 Non-Governmental grouping 2/438
C10 Innovation and intellectual property 5/414 3. Indices and reports
C11 Skilling and job 8/415 C26 Indian Indices and reports 6/439
C12 Insurance and pension 4/417 C27 Global Indices and reports 11/441
C13 Energy 7/419 4. Sporadically asked factual themes
C14 Vulnerable sections 2/420 C28 GI Tag 2/443
C15 Consumer rights and Quality assurance 3/421 C29 States specific 4/443
C16 Sectors other than above 4/421 C30 Others 12/444

Prelims Simplified 67
The Unique Academy

Prelims 2021 answer key

68 Prelims Simplified
 The Unique Academy

Prelims Simplified 69