Министерство здравоохранения Республики Беларусь

Учреждение образования
«Гродненский государственный медицинский университет»

Кафедра инфекционных болезней

Т.В. Лиопо
Ю.В. Кравчук

ДЕТСКИЕ ИНФЕКЦИОННЫЕ БОЛЕЗНИ

Тесты
для студентов факультета иностранных учащихся
(английский язык обучения)

Гродно, 2014

Ministry of Health of the Republic of Belarus

Establishment of education
«Grodno Medical State University»
Department of infectious diseases
Liopo T.V.
Kravchuk Y.V.

Children's infectious diseases

The tests for the students of faculty of foreign students
with the English language of training

Grodno, 2014
УДК 616.9-053.2 (075.8) – инфекционные болезни у детей
ББК
Рекомендовано Центральным научно-методическим советом УО
«ГрГМУ» (протокол № … от … 2014 г.).
Авторы: ассистент кафедры инфекционных болезней Лиопо Т.В.
доцент кафедры инфекционных болезней Кравчук Ю.В.

Рецензент: заведующая 2-й кафедрой детских болезней, доктор

медицинских наук Н.С. Парамонова
Лиопо, Т.В.
Детские инфекционные болезни: тесты для студентов факультета
иностранных учащихся / Т.В. Лиопо, Ю.В. Кравчук. - Гродно:
ГрГМУ, 2014.- 20 с.
Тесты подготовлены для студентов 6 курса факультета
иностранных учащихся в соответствии с требованиями программы и на
основании современных представлений медицинской науки. Они
является руководством для студентов к практическим занятиям в
инфекционной клинике. Тесты содержат сведения, которыми должен
овладеть студент по разделам учебной программы. Информация тестов
может быть использована в практической деятельности врачей
различных специальностей.

Authors: Liopo T.V. — assistant of the Department of Infectious

Diseases
Kravchuk Y.V. — associate professor of the Department of
Infectious Diseases

The tests is prepared for students of the 6th year of faculty of

foreign students according to requirements of the syllabus and on
the basis of modern representations of a medical science. It is a
management for students to a practical training in infectious
clinic. The tests contains data which the student on sections of
the syllabus should seize. The information of tests can be used
by physicians of various specialties in practical activities.

Ответственный за выпуск: первый проректор, доцент В.В.Воробьев

1. Biochemical criteria for hepatitis cytolysis syndrome:
1) hyperbilirubinemia
2) increased ALT activity
3) increase in the activity of LDH, MDH, ADH
4) hypocholesterolemia
5) increase in the activity of mono-, dialdolazy
6) increase in the activity of alkaline phosphatase
2. What are the criteria for hepatitis cholestasis syndrome:
1) hyperbilirubinemia due to unconjugated bilirubin
2) hyperbilirubinemia due to bilirubin
3) increase in the activity of alkaline phosphatase, G-GTP
4) increase in the activity of acid phosphatase
5) hypercholesterolemia
6) skin itch
7) hepatosplenomegaly
3. When symptoms of infectious mononucleosis:
1) enlargement of the tonsils
2) filmy coating on the tonsils
3) an increase of submandibular and cervical lymph nodes
4) hepatosplenomegaly
5) purulent conjunctivitis
4. What methods are used for the laboratory diagnosis of
infectious mononucleosis :
1) immunofluorescence
2) the reaction of Paul - Bunnelya
3) complement-fixation reaction
4) immune-enzyme analysis
5) polymerase chain reaction
6) reaction of Hoff – Bauer
5. Which of the following syndromes typical of infectious
mononucleosis:
1) generalized lymphadenopathy
2) tonsillitis
3) hepatosplenomegaly
4) intoxication
5) haematological
6. Which diseases can be found generalized lymphadenopathy
syndrome:
1) infectious mononucleosis
2) chronic toxoplasmosis
3) HIV
4) tularemia
5) plague
7. Drugs that are used to suppress the secondary inflammation in
infectious mononucleosis:
1) amoxicillin
2) amphotericin
3) acyclovir
4) cefotaxime
5) ceftriaxone
8. What ways of transmissions of chickenpox:
1) by contacts
2) alimentary
3) droplet
4) transmissive
5) vertical
9. The least dangerous age for the infection for varicella
disease:
1) after 14 years
2) adults
3) 1-5 years
4) up to 1 year
10. Rash appears for chickenpox:
1) unsystematic
2) turning point
3) undulating
4) False polymorphism
11. Describe the typical elements of varicella rash - vesicle :
1) rounded shape
2) surrounded by a rim of hyperemia
3) the contents is transparent
4) the contents is purulent
5) umbilicated
12. Chickenpox should be differentiated from:
1) impetigo
2) strophulus
3) generalized herpes simplex
4) disseminated form of smallpox
5) scarlet fever
13. List atypical forms of Chickenpox:
1) hypertoxic
2) rudimentary
3) hemorrhagic
4) gangrenosum
5) generalized
14. Administration of antibiotics to patients with chickenpox is
requirement for:
1) children under one year
2) children with frequent episodes of respiratory disorders
3) in the presence of bacterial complications
4) in the presence of croup
5) to suppress viremia
15. Who is the source of infection with herpes infection :
1) man
2) the animals
3) birds
4) insects
16. Neonatal herpes simplex appear as a result of prenatal
exposure to the virus:
1) herpes simplex virus type 1
2) herpes virus type 2
3) Herpes virus types 1 and 2
4) Epstein- Barr virus
5) Cytomegalovirus
17. The Ways of transmission of HSV infection :
1) contact-household
2) sexual
3) airborne
4) transmissive
5) vertical
18. Drugs used for the treatment of herpes simplex infection in
children:
1) acyclovir
2) medovir
3) ribavirin
4) valacyclovir
5) foscarnet
19. What options are possible for the flow of HIV infection :
1) skin lesions
2) lesions of the mucous
3) genital herpes
4) damage to eyes
5) encephalitis
6) meningoencephalitis
7) otitis
20. In diphtheria most frequently affected :
1) nose
2) oropharynx
3) eye
4) external genitalia
5) skin
21. For localized form of diphtheria oropharynx characterized by:
1) pharyngalgias
2) pharyngeal mucosa hyperemia
3) filmy coating on the tonsils, not passing on the bow and tongue
22. Material for the isolation diphtheria is:
1) mucus from the nose
2) blood
3) urine
4) fecal
5) mucus from the throat
23. Call culturally - biological variants diphtheria :
1) gravis
2) intermedius
3) interrogans
4) mitis
5) pamona
24. Specify signs filmy form of diphtheria oropharynx :
1) the film is removed from the hard
2) the film is rough, not pounded between spatulas
3) after removal of the film surface bleeding
4) film floats on water
5) into the water sink to the bottom film
25. Specify degree toxic diphtheria :
1) 0 degree
2) I degree
3) II degree
4) III degree
5) IV degree
26. The most frequent complications of diphtheria :
1) Hepatitis
2) myocarditis
3) polyneuropathy
4) keratitis
5) nephrosis
27. List the degree of stenosis in diphtheria :
1) the initial
2) I degree
3) II degree
4) III degree
5) IV degree
28. Name the disease, which differentiate diphtheria oropharynx :
1) tonsillitis with lacunar exudate
2) tonsillitis
3) paratonsillar abscess
4) fungal tonsillitis
5) infectious mononucleosis
29. What could be the nature of the inflammatory changes in the
airways in croup:
1) catarrhal
2) fibrinous
3) necrotizing
4) ulcerative
5) abscess
30. Specify prescribers and activities undertaken in stenosis
degree I uncomplicated respiratory and heart failure :
1) prednisolone
2) chymotrypsin
3) a warm bath
4) warm drink
5) ozocerite boots
31. Specific treatment for diphtheria patients used all of the
above, except :
1) antitoxic serum antidiphtheritic
2) a gamma globulin antidiphtheritic
3) a diphtheria toxin
32. Sources of infection with Yersiniosis :
1) rodents
2) arthropods
3) birds
4) amphibians
5) Pets
33. Which of the following symptoms are typical for Yersiniosis:
1) point or mottling rash
2) hyperemia of the oropharynx
3) an increase in the peripheral lymph nodes
4) pain on palpation of the left half of the abdomen
5) an increase in liver
34. The main reservoir of the pathogen pseudotuberculosis is :
1) man
2) mammals
3) rodents
4) ticks
5) birds
35. Drugs for the causal treatment of pseudotuberculosis :
1) doxycycline
2) tubazid
3) isoniazid
4) ampicillin
5) chloramphenicol
36. What listed clinical symptoms characteristic for
pseudotuberculosis :
1) fever
2) seizures
3) symptoms "hood", "gloves", "socks"
4) spotty rash
5) an increase in liver and spleen
37. Which of the possible ways of infection in salmonellosis :
1) by contact
2) droplet
3) food
4) water
5) transmissive
38. The clinical forms of salmonellosis :
1) gastrointestinal
2) the form like typhoid fever
3) septicemic
4) subclinical
5) intrahospital
39. Clinical variants with gastrointestinal form of salmonellosis
are:
1) gastritic
2) gastroenteritic
3) gastroenterokolitic
4) colitic
5) syndrome of terminal ileitis
40. What are the complications typical for salmonellosis in
children:
1) collapse
2) hypovolemic shock
3) acute renal failure
4) intestinal perforation
5) pneumonia
41. What laboratory test used in the diagnostic of salmonellosis :
1) bacterioscopic
2) bacteriological
3) serological
4) immunofluorescence
42. What antigens contain Escherichia :
1) O-antigen
2) H-antigen
3) K-antigen
4) Vi-antigen
43. Sources of infection in ehsherihioza are:
1) patients with mild out forms
2) patients in reconvalescence
3) bacillicarriers
4) pets
44. Which of Escherichia cause the development of colitis:
1) enteropathogenic
2) enteroinvasive
3) enterotoxigenic
4) enteroadhesive
45. The least dangerous age for the infection for at measles :
1) after 14 years
2) adults
3) children 1-5 years
4) children up to 6 months
46. Rare variants in measles exanthema :
1) spot
2) papule
3) Spot + papule
4) petechia
5) vesicle
47. What are the symptoms characteristic of the catarrhal period
measles :
1) conjunctivitis
2) dry cough
3) maculopapular rash
4) discharge from the nose
5) spots Belsky Filatov Koplik
48. Specify the atypical forms of measles
1) measles in vaccinated
2) combined
3) with aggravated symptoms
4) fulminant
5) mild measles
49. What forms of measles are typical:
1) light
2) moderate
3) heavy
4) hypertoxic
5) hemorrhagic
50. Specify the characteristic measles complications:
1) stomatitis
2) hepatitis
3) otitis
4) pneumonia
5) necrotizing laryngotracheitis
51. "Measles Vaccination" occurs when:
1) measles after gamma globulin prophylaxis
2) after vaccination
3) after transfusion
4) after the skin lesions (inoculation)
52. What exanthema characteristic for a rubella:
1) maculae
2) roseola
3) petechiae
4) vesicles
5) pustule
53. Which of the listed symptoms are characteristic of rubella:
1) fever
2) exanthema
3) increase neck with the back lymph nodes
4) diarrhea
54. What outcomes exanthema possible for rubella:
1) pigmentation
2) peeling
3) necrosis
4) without a trace
55. What complications could rubella:
1) greenstone
2) croup
3) pneumonia
4) polyneuritis
5) encephalitis
6) arthritis
56. Congenital rubella presents:
1) cataract
2) heart defects
3) hepatitis
4) cleft palate
5) deafness
57. For prevention of rubella is used:
1) combination MMR vaccine
2) live attenuated monovalent
3) toxoid
4) polio
58. What is characteristic of typical exanthema with scarlet
fever:
1) skin hyperemia
2) necrosis of elements rash
3) concentration in the folds of the skin
4) pale nasolabial triangle
5) follow-peeling
59. What complications of scarlet fever are early:
1) myocarditis
2) synovitis
3) otitis
4) mastoiditis
5) septicemia
6) pyosepticemia
60. Which of the following refers to measures of emergency
prevention scarlet fever:
1) separation of contact
2) a quarantine on the team
3) vaccination
61. What symptoms characteristic of scarlet fever:
1) point rash
2) stages rash
3) the «burning» mouth
4) coarse lamellar peeling
5) dry skin
62. What are the main components in the pathogenesis with scarlet
fever:
1) toxic
2) autoimmune
3) allergic
4) septic
5) anaphylactic
63. Which diseases is unusual rash: "punctulata, skin hyperemia,
with predominant localization in the folds":
1) measles
2) rubella
3) scarlet fever
64. What disease is characteristic rash: "maculopapular rash, at
the unchanged skin background, places drain":
1) measles
2) rubella
3) scarlet fever
65. What gland affected if mumps infection:
1) parotid
2) submandibular
3) sublingual
4) thyroid
5) lymphatic glands
66. Indicators of cerebrospinal fluid characteristic of nervous
forms of mumps infection:
1) neutrophilic lymphocytosis
2) lymphocytic lymphocytosis
3) the cerebrospinal fluid is muddy
4) the cerebrospinal fluid is transparent
5) reaction Pandi strongly positive
6) reaction Pandi positive
67. Immunoprophylaxis of mumps infection is:
1) gamma globulin
2) live attenuated by monovalent
3) combination MMR vaccine
4) DPT3
5) a killed vaccine
68. To characteristic of pertussis:
1) series cough tremors
2) reprise
3) aura
4) ulcer on the frenulum of tongue
5) exanthema
69. What diagnostic methods are used pertussis:
1) clinical and epidemiological
2) bacteriological
3) serological
4) bronchoscopic
5) X-ray
70. What antibiotics are used to treat whooping cough:
1) azithromycin
2) streptomycin
3) erythromycin
4) netilmicin
71. Select the features typical moderate forms of pertussis:
1) the number of attacks spasmodic cough 15-25
2) the number of attacks spasmodic cough 10-15
3) the number of attacks spasmodic cough 25-35
4) the number of reprises to 10
5) the number of reprises to 5
72. What drugs are used for the treatment of pertussis:
1) erythromycin
2) chlorpromazine
3) cerukal
4) acyclovir
5) suprastin
73. Specify the symptoms of pertussis in the period of spasmodic
cough:
1) paroxysmal cough
2) reprise
3) apnea
4) vomiting
5) exanthema
74. What complications from lung possible in whooping cough:
1) pneumothorax
2) atelectasis
3) emphysema
4) encephalopathy
5) bronchiolitis
75. The HIV virus is found in:
1) blood
2) sperm
3) saliva
4) lacrimal fluid
5) vomitus
76. The human immunodeficiency virus capable of infecting:
1) hepatocytes
2) enterocytes
3) T-lymphocytes
4) B-lymphocytes
5) neuroglia
77. What methods of diagnostics used in HIV infection:
1) reaction of the immune blot
2) ELISA
3) reaction of the indirect haemagglutination
4) reaction of binding complement
5) PCR
78. List of group of drugs used to treat HIV infection:
1) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
2) cephalosporins
3) azidotimidine
4) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
5) protease inhibitors
79. The incubation period for HIV infection may be:
1) up to 1 month
2) 1-2 days
3) from 2 weeks to 5 years
4) from 2 weeks to 3 weeks
5) 4 months
80. Patients do not complicated forms of influenza is contagious:
1) up to 3-day illness
2) till the 5th day of illness
3) up to 2 weeks of illness
4) to 9-th day of illness
81. What are antiviral medications used for the influenza:
1) rimantadine
2) grippoblok
3) oseltamivir
4) zanamivir
5) amantadine
82. Indications for hospitalization of patients with influenza:
1) light and moderate forms of the disease
2) severe forms
3) presence of complications
4) the presence of severe concomitant diseases
5) child age
83. Syndromes typical for typical uncomplicated influenza:
1) high temperature of 3-5 days
2) intoxication syndrome
3) rinofaringit
4) tracheitis combined with rhinopharyngitis
5) hepatosplenomegaly
84. Which of the laboratory methods used for the etiological
diagnosis of adenoviral infection:
1) biochemistry
2) virologic
3) serological
4) rinocerose
85. For what SARS is not typical syndrome polidentati:
1) RS virus infection
2) parainfluenza
3) adenovirus infection
4) rhinoviral infection
86. Syndromes typical for adenovirus infection:
1) moderate intoxication
2) lymphadenopathy
3) conjunctivitis
4) reno-pharyngo-tonsillitis
5) laryngitis
87. Which of the following clinical forms are related to the
enterovirus infection:
1) pharyngitis with vesicles
2) epidemic myalgia
3) epidemic exanthema
4) pharyngoconjunctival fever
5) Reno-pharyngo-tonsillitis
88. At what ARVI is not typical enlarged liver and spleen:
1) the parainfluenza
2) adenovirus infection
3) respiratory syncytial virus infection
4) flu
5) rhinoviral infection
89. Specify the correct quantitative estimates of degrees of
dehydration in children:
1) to 3 %
2) up to 5 %
3) to 7 %
4) to 9 %
5) 10 % or more
90. The symptoms of acute dysentery colitis type:
1) the fever
2) multiple profuse vomiting
3) cramping abdominal pain
4) poor liquid blood and mucus stool
5) tenesmus
91. Sources of the infection with dysentery are:
1) patients with acute dysentery
2) patients with chronic dysentery
3) carriers of bacteria
4) pets
92. List symptoms triad with meningitis at meningococcal
infection:
1) fever
2) rigidity of muscles of the neck
3) vomiting
4) symptom of Kernig
5) headache
93. What forms of meningococcal infections are generalized to:
1) meningitis
2) nasopharyngitis
3) meningococtsemiya
4) meningoencephalitis
5) iridotsyklit
94. What are the symptoms are characteristic of meningococcal
nasopharyngitis:
1) low or moderate fever
2) short febrile period
3) itchy and sore throat
4) slight hyperemia of the palatine tonsils and bows
5) rigidity of muscles of the neck
95. Specify the symptoms characteristic of meningococcemia:
1) acute fever with chills
2) high fever
3) pallor, and cyanosis of the skin
4) hemorrhagic skin rash
5) enlarged liver and spleen
96. The time of onset of rash, when meningococcemia:
1) the first 12 hours
2) the first day
3) 1-2 days
4) 3-5 hours
5) later than 7 days
97. Which of the listed symptoms characteristic of meningococcal
meningitis:
1) painful diffuse headache
2) vomiting is not related to food intake
3) the intensity of headache does not change with a change of
position
4) skin hypertension
5) rigidity of muscles of the neck
98. Characteristic changes in the cerebrospinal fluid with
meningococcal meningitis are:
1) unclear cerebrospinal fluid
2) increased lymphocytosis neutrophilic nature
3) cell protein dissociation
4) protein cellular dissociation
5) increased lymphocytosis lymphocytic nature
99. What material from the patient meningococcal infection is used
for bacteriological research:
1) nasal slime
2) blood
3) faeces
4) cerebrospinal fluid
5) biopsies elements rash
100. What kinds of pathogenetic therapy used in meningococcal
meningitis:
1) rehydration
2) treatment toxemia
3) treatment edema and swelling of the brain
4) treatment of the patient from shock
5) cardiac and vascular treatment on the testimony
101. Specify the typical symptoms of meningococcemia:
1) high fever
2) hemorrhagic rash
3) positive symptom of Kernig’s
4) leukocytosis with neutrophilic shift to the left
5) rigidity of muscles of the neck
102. What changes hemogramme not characteristic of meningococcal
infection:
1) leukopenia with lymphocytosis, accelerated ESR
2) leukocytosis with neutrophilia, normal ESR
3) leukocytosis with neutrophilia, accelerated ESR
4) leukopenia with lymphocytosis, normal ESR
103. The drugs of choice for treatment of a syndrome of
Waterhouse-Friderichsen with meningococcal infection:
1) ceftriaxone
2) prednisolone
3) dopamine
4) verospiron
5) furosemide
104. The drugs of choice for treatment of generalized
meningococcal infection:
1) chloramphenicol-sodium succinate
2) penicillin
3) meropenem
4) erythromycin
5) lincomycin
105. For any of the listed diseases characteristic exanthema:
1) meningococcal infection
2) typhoid fever
3) typhus
4) diphtheria
5) scarlet fever
 Ответы к тестам

1- 2,3,4 41- 2,3,4 81- 1,3,4,5

2- 2,3,5,6 42- 1,2,3 82- 2,3,4
3- 1,2,3,4 43- 1,2,3 83- 1,2,4
4- 2,4,5,6 44- 1,2,4 84- 2,3,4
5- 1,2,3,4,5 45- 1,2,4 85- 1,2,4
6- 1,2,3 46- 4,5 86- 1,2,3,4
7- 1,4,5 47- 1,2,4,5 87- 1,2,3
8- 3,5 48- 1,3,5 88- 1,3,4,5
9- 1,2 49- 1,2,3 89- 2,4,5
10- 1,3,4 50- 1,3,4,5 90- 1,3,4,5
11- 1,2,3 51- 2 91- 1,2,3
12- 1,2,3,4 52- 1,2 92- 1,3,5
13- 2,3,4,5 53- 1,2,3 93- 1,3,4
14- 1,2,3,4 54- 2,4 94- 1,2,3,4
15- 1 55- 4,5,6 95- 1,2,3,4
16- 1,2,3 56- 1,2,5 96- 1,2,3
17- 1,2,3,5 57- 1,2 97- 1,2,3,4,5
18- 1,2,4 58- 1,3,4,5 98- 1,2,3
19- 1,2,3,4,5,6 59- 2,3,4,5,6 99- 1,2,4,5
20- 1,2 60- 1,2 100- 2,3,4,5
21- 1,2,3 61- 1,3,4,5 101- 1,2,4
22- 1,5 62- 1,3,4 102- 1,2,4
23- 1,2,4 63- 1,2 103- 1,2,3,5
24- 1,2,3,5 64- 1 104- 1,2
25- 2,3,4 65- 1,2,3,4 105- 1,2,3,5
26- 2,3,5 66- 2,4,6
27- 2,3,4,5 67- 2,3
28- 1,2,3,4,5 68- 1,2,3,4
29- 1,2,3,4 69- 1,2,3,5
30- 3,4,5 70- 1,2,3
31- 3 71- 1,4
32- 1,2,3,4,5 72- 1,2,5
33- 1,2,4,5 73- 1,2,3,4
34- 2,3 74- 1,2,3,5
35- 1,4,5 75- 1,2,3,4
36- 1,3,4,5 76- 3,4,5
37- 1,2,3,4 77- 1,2,5
38- 1,2,3,4,5 78- 1,4,5
39- 1,2,3 79- 1,3,4,5
40- 1,2,3,4,5 80- 1,2